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Astronomy Unit Test 1 Review | NYSSLS Earth and Space Science

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which observation most directly supports that the universe is expanding?

a)

Seasonal constellations

b)

Parallax of nearby stars

c)

Redshift of distant galaxy spectra

d)

Lunar phases

2.

The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is best described as:

a)

Radio noise from the Sun

b)

Leftover radiation from the hot early universe

c)

X-rays from black holes

d)

Infrared from dust clouds

3.

According to Hubble’s Law, more distant galaxies:

a)

Move away faster

b)

Move toward us faster

c)

Have identical velocities

d)

Do not move

4.

Which instrument separates starlight into its component wavelengths to reveal spectral lines?

a)

Photometer

b)

Spectrometer

c)

Calorimeter

d)

Seismometer

5.

A star’s absorption lines are shifted toward shorter wavelengths. This indicates the star is:

a)

Rotating faster

b)

Approaching Earth

c)

Moving away from Earth

d)

Cooling rapidly

6.

Which combination of evidence supports the Big Bang Theory?

a)

Plate tectonics + tides

b)

Redshift + CMB + Hubble’s Law

c)

Meteor impacts + seasons

d)

Parallax + eclipses

7.

On the H–R diagram, main sequence stars show that as temperature increases, luminosity generally:

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Stays constant

d)

Becomes random

8.

A star’s color most directly indicates its:

a)

Age

b)

Surface temperature

c)

Distance

d)

Chemical age of its planets

9.

Which star type typically has the shortest lifespan?

a)

Red dwarf

b)

Blue giant

c)

Sun-like yellow star

d)

White dwarf

10.

Red giants are typically:

a)

Hot and dim

b)

Cool but very luminous

c)

Cool and very dim

d)

Hot and faint due to small radius

11.

White dwarfs are generally found in which region of the H–R diagram?

a)

Upper right

b)

Lower left

c)

Upper left

d)

Middle main sequence

12.

Which property is the primary determinant of a star’s lifespan?

a)

Distance from Earth

b)

Mass

c)

Apparent magnitude

d)

Rotation rate

13.

The Sun’s most likely evolutionary path is:

a)

Main sequence → red giant → white dwarf

b)

Main sequence → supernova → neutron star

c)

Protostar → black hole

d)

White dwarf → red giant

14.

In stellar cores, nuclear fusion primarily:

a)

Splits heavy nuclei

b)

Converts hydrogen into helium

c)

Converts iron into nickel releasing energy

d)

Produces electricity directly

15.

Fusion stops at iron in massive stars because iron fusion:

a)

Requires more energy than it releases

b)

Is too cold to occur

c)

Is forbidden by gravity

d)

Creates immediate black holes

16.

Elements heavier than iron (e.g., Au, U) are mainly formed during:

a)

Planetary nebula ejection

b)

Supernova explosions

c)

Main sequence burning

d)

Solar wind condensation

17.

Which statement about spectral “fingerprints” is correct?

a)

Different elements share identical lines

b)

Each element has a unique set of spectral lines

c)

Spectral lines occur only in visible light

d)

Lines cannot reveal composition

18.

The Doppler effect applied to starlight allows astronomers to determine a star’s:

a)

Radius

b)

Motion toward/away from Earth

c)

Age

d)

Metal content directly

19.

Which EM band best reveals star-forming regions behind cool dust?

a)

Ultraviolet

b)

Infrared

c)

Gamma ray

d)

Visible green

20.

Which wavelengths are mostly blocked by Earth’s atmosphere, requiring space telescopes?

a)

Visible

b)

Radio

c)

Ultraviolet and X-ray

21.

A larger redshift in a galaxy’s spectrum generally implies:

a)

Smaller distance

b)

Greater recessional velocity

c)

Lower mass

d)

Older star population

22.

Which best describes an absorption spectrum?

a)

Bright lines from hot, thin gas

b)

Dark lines where specific wavelengths are removed

c)

Even brightness at all wavelengths

d)

Broken bands from cold solids

23.

Emission spectra are produced by:

a)

Hot, thin gas emitting light at discrete wavelengths

b)

A cool gas in front of a continuum

c)

Solids at low temperature

d)

Light scattered by dust

24.

A star’s peak emission shifts to shorter wavelengths. What does this indicate?

a)

The star cooled

b)

The star heated up

c)

The star slowed down

d)

The star gained mass

25.

Compared to the Sun, Barnard’s Star is most likely:

a)

Hotter and more luminous

b)

Cooler with a longer lifespan

c)

Same mass and temperature

d)

More massive but dimmer

26.

During the red giant phase of a Sun-like star, luminosity increases mainly because:

a)

Radius decreases greatly

b)

Mass increases

c)

Core temperature falls

d)

Rotation stops

27.

Which observation confirms a star’s chemical composition?

a)

Proper motion

b)

Unique spectral line pattern

c)

Parallax angle

d)

Apparent magnitude

28.

Which sequence shows massive-star fusion before core collapse?

a)

He → H → C → Fe

b)

H → He → C/O → Fe

c)

H → Fe → He → C

d)

Fe → Ni → H → He

29.

After a core-collapse supernova, the compact remnant could be:

a)

White dwarf

b)

Neutron star or black hole

c)

Protostar

d)

Red giant

30.

Which is true of the EM spectrum and the atmosphere?

a)

All wavelengths pass equally

b)

Visible and some radio pass; much IR/UV/X-ray are absorbed

c)

Only IR passes

d)

Only gamma passes

31.

Which pair best probes black hole accretion disks?

a)

Radio + microwave

b)

X-ray + gamma ray

c)

Visible + radio

d)

Infrared + AM radio

32.

Which is the best evidence that the universe began hot and dense?

a)

Parallax of stars

b)

Uniform CMB with tiny fluctuations

c)

Solar cycles

d)

Earth’s magnetic field

33.

Kepler’s 2nd Law implies that a planet moves fastest when it is:

a)

At aphelion

b)

At perihelion

c)

Crossing the ecliptic

d)

Behind Jupiter

34.

According to Kepler’s 3rd Law, planets farther from the Sun have:

a)

Shorter orbital periods

b)

Longer orbital periods

c)

Identical orbital periods

d)

Constant orbital speeds

35.

Which factor increases gravitational force between two bodies?

a)

Increasing distance

b)

Decreasing mass

c)

Increasing mass

d)

Removing atmospheres

36.

For satellites orbiting Earth, stronger gravity occurs:

a)

Farther from Earth

b)

Closer to Earth

c)

Only at geosynchronous altitude

d)

Only above the poles

37.

Compared to the Moon’s distance, HST is much closer to Earth. Therefore HST’s orbital period is:

a)

Longer than the Moon’s

b)

Equal to the Moon’s

c)

Shorter than the Moon’s

d)

Unrelated to gravity

38.

Which condition produces a more eccentric (stretched) ellipse?

a)

Decreasing distance between the two foci

b)

Increasing distance between the two foci

c)

Constant orbital speed

d)

Circularizing the path

39.

Which statement about Mercury and Venus aligns with Kepler’s Laws?

a)

Both move at constant speed

b)

Mercury moves faster near perihelion than at aphelion

c)

Venus has no eccentricity

d)

Mass determines their speeds directly

40.

Planets beyond Mars generally have:

a)

Warmer surfaces

b)

Higher densities

c)

Longer periods of revolution

d)

Shorter periods of rotation

41.

The Andromeda Galaxy is best classified as a:

a)

Spiral galaxy

b)

Elliptical galaxy

c)

Irregular galaxy

d)

Dwarf spheroidal only

42.

Which two variables most directly determine the gravitational pull between the Milky Way and Andromeda?

a)

Ages of stars and CMB

b)

Masses and distance

c)

Star temperatures and luminosities

d)

Disk thickness and dust color

43.

About how old is the universe according to current models?

a)

4.6 billion years

b)

7 billion years

c)

9 billion years

d)

13.8 billion years

44.

Which list shows stars in order of increasing luminosity?

a)

Procyon B → Sun → Sirius → Betelgeuse

b)

Spica → Rigel → Deneb → Betelgeuse

c)

Polaris → Deneb → 40 Eridani B → Proxima Centauri

d)

Barnard’s Star → Alpha Centauri → Rigel → Spica

45.

Which force sorted solar system materials by density during formation?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Gravity

c)

Coriolis

d)

Friction only

46.

Two planets orbit between Mercury and Venus. Which has the greater average orbital speed?

a)

The one closer to the Sun

b)

The one farther from the Sun

c)

Both the same

d)

Depends on mass

47.

Why would the innermost Kepler-62 planet have the shortest period?

a)

It is most massive

b)

It is closest to the star

c)

It is tidally locked

d)

It has the least eccentricity

48.

Why place telescopes in space?

a)

To eliminate gravity

b)

To avoid atmospheric absorption and distortion

c)

To decrease cost

49.
Where is the planet moving faster
a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
50.
What has an eccentricity of zero
a)
a straight line
b)
a large ellipse
c)
a circle
d)
a small ellipse
51.
Kepler's 2nd Law deals with 
a)
the shape of the planets' orbits
b)
the speed/area the planet travels 
c)
the length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun
52.
A planet moves __________ when it is farthest from the sun.
a)
faster
b)
slower
53.
Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or 
a)
ellipses
b)
perfect circles
54.
The path a planet travels around the sun is called its 
a)
orbit
b)
ellipse
c)
barycenter
d)
precession
55.
Which diagram shows a planet with the least eccentric orbit?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
56.
What is the maximum eccentricity an ellipse can be?
a)
0
b)
.5
c)
1
d)
42
57.
Calculate the eccentricity for the following orbit. 
a)
1.6
b)
0.8
c)
0.6
d)
1.2
58.
What is eccentricity? 
a)
a measurement of how elliptical an orbit is. 
b)
a measurement of the distance between the planet and the sun
c)
a measurement of how long the planet takes to rotate around the sun
d)
none of these
59.
During which month is the earth moving the slowest? 
a)
July 
b)
March
c)
January
d)
September
60.
An ellipse is drawn around two points called
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
c)
foci
d)
axis
61.
When a planet orbits the Sun, one of the foci of the elliptical orbit is 
a)
the axis
b)
the perihelion
c)
the center
d)
the Sun
62.
The place where a planet is farthest away from the Sun in its orbit around the Sun is called the
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
63.

What color is the longest wavelength?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Red

64.

What is the name of the cloud that a star is formed in?

a)

Nebula / Stellar Nursery

b)

Supernova

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Dwarf

65.

When a Red Giant runs out of fuel, it become a:

a)

Supernova

b)

Nebula

c)

White Dwarf

d)

Main Sequence Star

66.

What is a protostar?

a)

A star that has died

b)

A smaller than average star

c)

A big, blue star that is on the main sequence of the HR diagram

d)

A contracting mass of gas which represents an early stage in the formation of a star

67.

The Milky Way galaxy is thought to be a(n)

a)

spiral galaxy

b)

a galaxy far far away

c)

elliptical galaxy.

d)

irregular galaxy.

68.

The Solar System is a part of the Milky Way Galaxy.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Rank the stars colors in order from hottest to coolest

a)

blue, white, yellow, orange, red

b)

white, blue, yellow, orange, red

c)

red, orange, yellow, white, blue

d)

white, blue, orange, yellow, red

70.

Put the life cycle stages of a small/medium mass star in order from beginning to end.

a)

protostar

b)

main sequence

c)

red giant

d)

planetary nebula

e)

white dwarf

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
71.
In which region of the H-R Diagram would you be likely to find the brightest, reddest stars?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
The orange dashed line
72.
In which region of the H-R Diagram would you be likely to find the oldest stars?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z

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