Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Module 6

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is hirsutism?

a)

Hair loss on the scalp

b)

Excessive male-pattern hair growth in women

c)

A condition of brittle nails

d)

Inflammation of hair follicles

2.

A patient with a moon face, central obesity, and purple abdominal striae is most likely exhibiting signs of:

a)

Diabetes Insipidus

b)

Cushing's disease/syndrome

c)

Addison's disease

d)

Graves' disease

3.

The pathophysiology of Diabetes Insipidus (DI) involves a problem with:

a)

Insulin production

b)

Blood glucose regulation

c)

The antidiuretic hormone (ADH) system

d)

Thyroid hormone feedback

4.

The classic signs and symptoms of Diabetes Insipidus are:

a)

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia

b)

Polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine

c)

Weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance

5.

A patient with hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, and high urine osmolality is likely suffering from:

a)

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

b)

Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)

c)

Diabetes Insipidus

d)

Cushing's Syndrome

6.

Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are the classic triad of symptoms for which condition?

a)

Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Diabetes Insipidus

c)

SIADH

d)

Hyperthyroidism

7.

The beta cells of the pancreas are responsible for secreting:

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Amylin

8.

Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DMT2)?

a)

Young age

b)

Being underweight

c)

Obesity and physical inactivity

9.

The key pathophysiological difference between DMT1 and DMT2 is:

a)

DMT1 is an autoimmune disorder, while DMT2 is characterized by insulin resistance.

b)

DMT2 is an autoimmune disorder, while DMT1 is characterized by insulin resistance.

c)

Both are autoimmune, but DMT1 has a later onset.

d)

DMT1 can be reversed with diet, while DMT2 cannot.

10.

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is defined as:

a)

Diabetes diagnosed in childhood

b)

Glucose intolerance with onset during pregnancy

c)

A precursor to type 1 diabetes

d)

Diabetes caused by pancreatic cancer

11.

A significant consequence of uncontrolled Gestational Diabetes for the baby is:

a)

Low birth weight (microsomia)

b)

Excessive birth weight (macrosomia)

c)

Congenital hypothyroidism

d)

Cleft lip and palate

12.

The term "ischemic penumbra" refers to:

a)

The core area of dead brain tissue in a stroke

b)

The area of brain tissue that is ischemic but potentially salvageable

13.

An aneurysm is best defined as:

a)

A blood clot that travels to the brain

b)

A localized, ballooning weakness in a blood vessel wall

c)

A transient episode of neurological dysfunction

d)

A tear in the lining of an artery

14.

A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) differs from an ischemic stroke in that a TIA:

a)

Always leads to a major stroke within 24 hours

b)

Involves bleeding in the brain

c)

Resolves completely within 24 hours, usually within minutes, without permanent damage

d)

Is caused by a ruptured blood vessel

15.

A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by:

a)

A clot blocking a cerebral artery

b)

A ruptured blood vessel in the brain

c)

A sudden drop in blood pressure

d)

A spasm in a cerebral artery

16.

The most significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Uncontrolled hypertension

17.

The most critical diagnostic test for confirming a hemorrhagic stroke is:

a)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

b)

Lumbar Puncture

c)

Non-contrast CT scan of the head

d)

Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA)

18.

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

a)

Thought and reasoning

b)

Coordination, balance, and fine-tuning movement

c)

Visual processing

d)

Emotional regulation

19.

Cushing's Triad, a sign of increased intracranial pressure, includes:

a)

Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations

b)

Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea

c)

Fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity

d)

Hyperthermia, tachycardia, and hypertension

20.

Which of the following is a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

a)

Papilledema

b)

Hypotension

c)

Polyuria

21.

The pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis (MS) involves:

a)

Dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia

b)

Autoimmune demyelination of the central nervous system

c)

The formation of plaques in the arteries

d)

A degenerative disorder of the lower motor neurons

22.

Which part of the nervous system is affected by Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

b)

Somatic Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

d)

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

23.

A common early symptom of Multiple Sclerosis is:

a)

Pill-rolling tremor

b)

Optic neuritis

c)

"Locked-in" syndrome

d)

chorea

24.

The primary pathophysiological mechanism of Parkinson's disease is:

a)

Demyelination of neurons in the brain and spinal cord

b)

Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra

c)

Buildup of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

d)

Prion infection of the cerebral cortex

25.

Trigeminal autonomic cephalgias (TACs), like cluster headaches, are characterized by:

a)

Bilateral, throbbing pain with an aura

b)

Unilateral, severe pain with ipsilateral autonomic features (tearing, redness)

c)

A band-like pressure around the entire head

d)

Pain that is triggered by stress and muscle tension

26.

In Diabetes Insipidus, the urine is typically:

a)

Concentrated with high osmolality

b)

Dilute with low osmolality

c)

Full of glucose and ketones

d)

Cloudy with white blood cells

27.

In SIADH, the body retains too much:

a)

Sodium

b)

Water

c)

Potassium

d)

Glucose

28.

Which of the following is a classic diagnostic finding in SIADH?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Low urine osmolality

c)

High urine sodium

29.

A patient with polyphagia would present with:

a)

Excessive thirst

b)

Excessive hunger

c)

Excessive urination

d)

Excessive sweating

30.

Which statement is true regarding DMT1?

a)

It is often managed with lifestyle modifications alone initially.

b)

It is characterized by insulin resistance.

c)

Patients are absolutely dependent on exogenous insulin.

d)

It typically has an onset in middle age.

31.

For the mother, a consequence of Gestational Diabetes is an increased risk of developing:

a)

Type 1 Diabetes later in life

b)

Type 2 Diabetes later in life

c)

Multiple Sclerosis

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

32.

The area of brain tissue that is most vulnerable and dies first during an ischemic stroke is the:

a)

Ischemic penumbra

b)

Ischemic core

c)

Subarachnoid space

d)

Ventricular system

33.

Which type of stroke is most commonly caused by atrial fibrillation?

a)

Hemorrhagic stroke

b)

Ischemic stroke (embolic)

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

d)

Subdural hematoma

34.

A sudden, severe "thunderclap" headache is a classic symptom of which type of stroke?

a)

Ischemic stroke

b)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

c)

Lacunar stroke

d)

Transient Ischemic Attack

35.

A patient with damage to the cerebellum would likely demonstrate:

a)

Memory loss and confusion

b)

Ataxia and uncoordinated movement

c)

Paralysis on one side of the body

d)

Inability to speak

36.

Bradycardia in Cushing's Triad is a result of:

a)

The body's attempt to increase cardiac output

b)

Compression of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X) in the brainstem

c)

A side effect of hypertension medications

d)

Hypoxia

37.

Projectile vomiting without nausea is a sign of increased intracranial pressure because it results from:

a)

Irritation of the gastric mucosa

b)

Direct pressure on the vomiting center in the medulla oblongata

c)

A side effect of pain

d)

Hyperglycemia

38.

The "relapsing-remitting" course is most characteristic of which neurological disease?

a)

Parkinson's Disease

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Multiple Sclerosis

d)

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

39.

A "pill-rolling" tremor at rest is a classic feature of:

a)

Multiple Sclerosis

b)

Parkinson's Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Essential Tremor

40.

Cluster headaches, a type of TAC, are notable for:

a)

Occurring in cyclical patterns or "clusters"

b)

Being bilateral and pressing in quality

c)

Primarily affecting the elderly

d)

Being preceded by a visual aura

41.

The "buffalo hump" and "moon face" in Cushing's are caused by:

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Redistribution of body fat

c)

Muscle wasting

d)

Fluid retention

42.

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is caused by:

a)

A pituitary tumor

b)

The kidney's inability to respond to ADH

c)

A head injury damaging the hypothalamus

d)

Excessive water intake

43.

The primary treatment for SIADH involves:

a)

Administering ADH analogs

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

Administering intravenous insulin

d)

Encouraging high fluid intake

44.

Polyuria in Diabetes Mellitus is a direct result of:

a)

The body trying to excrete excess glucose via osmosis

b)

A deficiency of ADH

c)

Excessive ADH production

d)

An overactive bladder

45.

The honeymoon phase in DMT1 refers to a period after diagnosis where:

a)

Blood glucose is easily controlled with diet alone

b)

The pancreas temporarily regains some insulin production

46.

Screening for Gestational Diabetes usually occurs:

a)

During the first trimester

b)

Between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation

c)

Immediately after delivery

d)

Only if the baby is measuring large

47.

A TIA is a significant warning sign for:

a)

A future migraine

b)

A future ischemic stroke

c)

A seizure disorder

d)

Multiple Sclerosis

48.

A common location for a saccular (berry) aneurysm, which can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, is:

a)

The Circle of Willis

b)

The middle cerebral artery

c)

The Circle of Willis

d)

The femoral artery

49.

The Romberg test is used to assess the function of the:

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum and proprioception

c)

Brainstem

50.

Which of the following is associated with cerebellum and proprioception?

a)

Parkinson's Disease

b)

Cerebellum and proprioception

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Spinal cord reflexes

51.

Lhermitte's sign, an electric-shock sensation down the spine upon neck flexion, is associated with:

a)

Parkinson's Disease

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Trigeminal Neuralgia