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2205 Exam 2 pt.6

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A laboring client becomes progressively somnolent after IV opioid analgesia. Which physiologic change most directly increases fetal CO2 retention?

a)

Maternal hypoventilation raises maternal PaCO2, reducing the fetal-to-maternal diffusion gradient for CO2 across the placenta

b)

Increased maternal heart rate improving placental CO2 clearance

c)

Maternal respiratory alkalosis enhancing fetal CO2 excretion

d)

Increased maternal serum glucose shifting fetal CO2 to bicarbonate

2.

A fetus develops worsening metabolic acidemia during prolonged tachysystole. Which fetal waste product is most dependent on placental diffusion for elimination during labor?

a)

Creatinine

b)

CO2

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Ketones

3.

A labor client is hyperventilating from anxiety. The nurse’s priority concern related to fetal oxygenation is:

a)

Maternal hypercapnia causing fetal bradycardia

b)

Maternal respiratory alkalosis causing uterine vasoconstriction and decreased uteroplacental perfusion

c)

Maternal metabolic acidosis causing fetal alkalosis

d)

Maternal hypoventilation causing increased uterine tone

4.

Which statement best explains why fetal CO2 rises quickly during periods of decreased uteroplacental perfusion?

a)

The fetus primarily eliminates CO2 through fetal kidneys

b)

CO2 is lipid-soluble and readily diffuses, so impaired perfusion quickly limits removal

c)

CO2 binds hemoglobin tightly, preventing diffusion

d)

CO2 elimination increases when placental flow decreases

5.

A client with a Category II tracing is placed supine for a procedure. FHR worsens and variability becomes minimal. Which mechanism most directly contributes to fetal CO2 accumulation?

a)

Compression of the vena cava reducing uteroplacental blood flow

b)

Increased maternal renin decreasing fetal oxygen demand

c)

Increased fetal swallowing decreasing fetal PaCO2

d)

Maternal hyperglycemia decreasing fetal lactate

6.

The nurse notes heavy vaginal bleeding immediately after birth. The fundus is firm and midline. Which cause is most likely?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Retained products of conception

c)

Cervical laceration

d)

Uterine inversion

7.

A postpartum client continues to saturate pads despite a firm fundus. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Begin continuous fundal massage

b)

Notify the provider and prepare for evaluation/repair of lacerations

c)

Increase oxytocin infusion rate

d)

Administer methylergonovine immediately without assessment

8.

Which birth history places a client at highest risk for cervical laceration?

a)

Prolonged latent phase with mild contractions

b)

Rapid precipitous delivery with operative vaginal assistance

c)

Epidural analgesia with slow descent

d)

Post-term pregnancy with intact membranes until crowning

9.

A nurse suspects a cervical laceration. Which assessment finding best supports this suspicion?

a)

Boggy uterus and heavy lochia

b)

Firm uterus with persistent bright red bleeding and clots

c)

Uterus deviated right with scant bleeding

d)

Mild bleeding that decreases with fundal massage

10.

While preparing for repair of a suspected cervical laceration, which order should the nurse anticipate as most immediately helpful for hemorrhage management?

a)

Type and crossmatch

b)

Oral fluids and ambulation

c)

Discontinue IV access

d)

Delay vitals to reduce anxiety

11.

A periviable client presents in preterm labor and asks about outcomes. Which is the best initial nursing action?

a)

Give exact survival percentages without consulting neonatal services

b)

Request a neonatal consult and follow facility periviability counseling pathways

c)

Immediately start oxytocin to avoid prolonged labor

d)

Avoid discussing options until delivery occurs

12.

A client at the edge of periviability is admitted with PPROM and no infection. Which intervention is most appropriate to prepare based on common periviability management?

a)

Routine immediate delivery in all cases

b)

Antenatal corticosteroids if gestational age and policy support use

c)

Vaginal exams every hour to assess progression

d)

Methylergonovine prophylaxis to prevent hemorrhage

13.

A periviable client asks, “Do I have to do everything to keep the pregnancy going?” The best nursing response is:

a)

“Yes—standard care requires maximal intervention.”

b)

“No—your preferences matter; we’ll discuss options and align care with your goals and policy.”

c)

“We can’t discuss that until the baby is born.”

d)

“You should decide quickly because there’s no time for consultation.”

14.

Which finding would most strongly require immediate escalation rather than expectant management in a periviable PPROM client?

a)

Clear fluid and stable maternal vitals

b)

Mild uterine irritability that resolves

c)

Maternal fever with uterine tenderness and fetal tachycardia

d)

Patient anxiety and insomnia

15.

A C-section client is transferred from PACU to postpartum. Which assessment is highest priority in the first hour on the postpartum unit?

a)

Teaching on newborn sleep cycles

b)

Fundus, lochia, incision, and vital signs trend for hemorrhage and shock

c)

Scheduling a 2-week incision check appointment

d)

Discussing contraception options

16.

A post-op C-section client reports new unilateral calf pain and swelling. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Encourage leg massage to relieve discomfort

b)

Notify the provider and limit ambulation until evaluated

c)

Apply heat and elevate the leg only

d)

Document as expected post-op soreness

17.

A post-op C-section client has decreasing urine output and a distended bladder. The most appropriate nursing action is:

a)

Restrict IV fluids immediately

b)

Assess for urinary retention and manage per catheter protocol

c)

Encourage the client to ignore the urge to void

d)

Give a diuretic without provider notification

18.

A C-section client received spinal anesthesia and now reports a severe positional headache (worse upright, improved lying flat). What complication is most likely?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Post-dural puncture headache

c)

Amniotic fluid embolism

d)

Uterine inversion

19.

Which intervention best reduces risk of post-op ileus after cesarean birth?

a)

Strict NPO for 24–48 hours regardless of status

b)

Early ambulation and gradual diet advancement as tolerated

c)

High-dose opioids as first-line pain control

d)

Continuous supine positioning

20.

A post-op C-section client has an oxygen saturation drop and new shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage coughing only and recheck in 30 minutes

b)

Raise the head of the bed, assess airway/breath sounds, and escalate rapidly

c)

Offer oral fluids and ambulate to bathroom

d)

Remove SCDs to improve comfort

21.

A fetus is showing signs of worsening acidemia. Which tracing feature most supports that fetal metabolic acidemia is less likely at the moment of observation?

a)

Moderate variability

b)

Recurrent late decelerations

c)

Persistent tachycardia alone

d)

A smooth sinusoidal pattern

22.

During maternal hypoventilation, which fetal change is most expected first?

a)

Decreased fetal CO2 and increased pH

b)

Increased fetal CO2 with risk of respiratory acidosis progressing to metabolic acidemia if prolonged

c)

Immediate fetal hypoglycemia

d)

Increased fetal bilirubin production

23.

The nurse is explaining fetal gas exchange. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

The fetus primarily excretes CO2 via fetal lungs in utero

b)

CO2 crosses the placenta down a diffusion gradient between fetal and maternal blood

c)

Maternal kidneys directly remove fetal CO2

d)

CO2 is not a major fetal waste product during labor

24.

A postpartum client has persistent heavy bleeding and the provider suspects a laceration. Which nursing preparation is most appropriate?

a)

Prepare for uterine balloon tamponade as first-line

b)

Set up for visualization/repair, ensure IV access, and anticipate labs/blood products

c)

Begin aggressive fundal massage and delay provider evaluation

d)

Encourage pushing to expel retained clots

25.

Which clinical scenario most strongly suggests a cervical laceration rather than uterine atony?

a)

Boggy fundus that firms with massage and bleeding slows

b)

Firm fundus with continued brisk bleeding after a forceps delivery

c)

Fundus above umbilicus and deviated right with scant bleeding

d)

Mild lochia rubra that decreases over several hours

26.

A periviable client requests “everything possible,” but the partner requests comfort care only. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Follow the partner’s request because they are the support person

b)

Clarify the patient’s decision-making capacity and preferences; involve the team/ethics per policy

c)

Avoid conflict by delaying all interventions

d)

Provide only neonatal updates after delivery

27.

Which order is most critical to verify before administering neuraxial anesthesia for a scheduled C-section?

a)

Maternal height and weight

b)

Recent platelet count/coagulation risk screening

c)

Fetal sex and estimated weight

28.

A post-op C-section client’s incision dressing is saturated with blood and the client is tachycardic. What is the priority action?

a)

Document and reassess in 1 hour

b)

Assess vitals, incision, and fundus/lochia; escalate for possible hemorrhage

c)

Encourage oral fluids only

d)

Remove the dressing without sterile supplies

29.

Which teaching is most appropriate for a C-section client to reduce incision complications at home?

a)

“Avoid walking for 2 weeks to protect the incision.”

b)

“Keep the incision clean and dry, monitor for redness/drainage/fever, and follow lifting limits.”

c)

“Scrub the incision with peroxide daily.”

d)

“Stop pain meds early even if you can’t move comfortably.”

30.

A post-op C-section client has increasing uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia. What complication is most concerning?

a)

Uterine atony only

b)

Endometritis/infection

c)

Post-dural puncture headache

d)

Normal involution

31.

A laboring client is experiencing recurrent late decelerations. Which maternal physiologic state most contributes to fetal CO2 accumulation?

a)

Increased uterine blood flow during contractions

b)

Reduced placental exchange from impaired uteroplacental perfusion

c)

Increased fetal renal perfusion

d)

Increased fetal swallowing

32.

A postpartum hemorrhage protocol is initiated. Which lab result is most urgent to trend for ongoing blood loss severity?

a)

Sodium

b)

Hemoglobin/hematocrit

c)

AST/ALT

d)

Amylase

33.

A provider is repairing a cervical laceration. Which nursing action best supports safety?

a)

Encourage the client to ambulate during the repair

b)

Maintain sterile field support, monitor VS/bleeding, and prepare for pain control orders

c)

Remove IV access to prevent fluid overload

d)

Stop all assessments to reduce stress

34.

A periviable client is transferred to a higher level facility. What is the nurse’s priority during transfer preparation?

a)

Perform frequent digital cervical exams to document change

b)

Stabilize maternal vitals, minimize infection risk, maintain fetal monitoring as ordered, and send records

c)

Delay corticosteroids until arrival

d)

Encourage the client to walk to speed transfer

35.

A C-section client is at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Which medication is commonly administered routinely after delivery to support uterine tone?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Naloxone

d)

Nifedipine

36.

After spinal anesthesia, which finding requires the most immediate response?

a)

Mild pruritus

b)

Nausea relieved by position change

c)

Sudden dyspnea with hypotension and difficulty speaking

d)

Shivering

37.

A periviable client asks, “What does periviable mean?” The best response is:

a)

“It means the baby is guaranteed to survive.”

b)

“It refers to a gestational age near the edge of viability where outcomes are uncertain and decisions are individualized.”

c)

“It means you must have a cesarean birth.”

d)

“It means labor will stop on its own.”

38.

Which plan best demonstrates trauma-informed periviability counseling support by the nurse?

a)

Provide only one option to reduce confusion

b)

Encourage questions, involve neonata/OB teams, use clear language, and confirm understanding/values

c)

Avoid discussing disability outcomes

d)

Require immediate decisions without support

39.

A post-op C-section client is dizzy when sitting up and has a falling blood pressure trend. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Encourage standing to improve circulation

b)

Assess bleeding, uterine tone, intake/output, and notify the provider if hemorrhage suspected

c)

Give a laxative to reduce dizziness

d)

Remove compression devices

40.

Which discharge instruction is most important for a C-section client to reduce thromboembolism risk?

a)

“Avoid walking until pain is gone.”

b)

“Perform leg exercises and ambulate regularly as tolerated; use SCDs if prescribed inpatient.”

c)

“Stop fluids after discharge.”

d)

“Sleep only on your back.”

41.

Which clinical situation would most likely require operative delivery planning at the periviable threshold?

a)

Placental abruption with nonreassuring fetal status and maternal instability

b)

Mild nausea and vomiting

c)

Stable contractions with no cervical change

d)

Reassuring fetal status with no infection

42.

A client returns from C-section with a Foley catheter. Which finding requires the most immediate follow-up?

a)

Urine output 40 mL/hr

b)

Urine output 10 mL/hr with increasing tachycardia

c)

Clear yellow urine

d)

Client reports urge to void

43.

A postpartum client has a firm fundus and persistent bleeding. Which action is least appropriate?

a)

Prepare for possible repair and labs

b)

Notify the provider for laceration evaluation

c)

Continue to reassess vital signs and quantify blood loss

d)

Document and discharge if pain is controlled

44.

Which maternal condition most increases risk that fetal CO2 clearance becomes impaired during labor?

a)

Maternal hyperpigmentation

b)

Maternal hypotension after epidural reducing placental perfusion

c)

Maternal seasonal allergies

d)

Maternal mild reflux

45.

Following cesarean birth under neuraxial anesthesia, which assessment is essential before first ambulation?

a)

Newborn latch quality

b)

Fundal height only

c)

Ability to swallow pills

d)

Return of sensation/motor control and stable blood pressure

46.

A client with suspected cervical laceration is becoming tachycardic and pale. What is the priority sequence?

a)
  1. Oral fluids → discharge teaching → call provider

b)

Fundal massage only → wait for next shift

c)
  1. Quantify bleeding → maintain IV access/fluids → notify provider/prepare for repair and

labs

d)

Remove pads to reduce anxiety → reassess later

47.

During prolonged fetal hypoxia, which change most directly reflects rising fetal CO2 and acid-base compromise?

a)

Decreasing fetal bilirubin

b)

Increasing fetal PaCO2 leading to acidosis if persistent and uncompensated

c)

Decreasing fetal urine output as primary cause of acidosis

d)

Increasing maternal pH causing fetal alkalosis