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MLSC1010 Final Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why must a procedure be discussed with a patient?

a)

To inform the patient

b)

To identify the patient

c)

To relax the patient

d)

To demonstrate competence

2.

Why is documenting calibration activities important?

a)

It helps lower operational costs.

b)

It speeds up the overall testing time.

c)

It reduces the need for future calibration

d)

It provides a record that the instrument was properly calibrated.

3.

A manual test for glucose is performed. A 5.0 mmol/L glucose standard is measured and an absorbance of 0.450 is obtained. What is the concentration of a patients glucose with an absorbance of 0.345?

a)

3.8

b)

7.6

c)

6.5

d)

1.70

4.

Which of the following actions should a technologists take if a glucose specimen that has been drawn in sodium fluoride arrives at the laboratory for processing, 16 hours after it was collected? 

a)

Process the specimen only after addition of lithium heparin to the tube

b)

Reject the specimen due to time delay of greater than 8 hours

c)

Reject the specimen due to incorrect anticoagulant

d)

Process the specimen as usual

5.

Why are accurate measurements from calibrated instruments crucial in clinical settings?

a)

They can influence diagnosis and treatment decisions

b)

They simplify the documentation process

c)

They reduce the cost of laboratory supplies

d)

They make instruments last longer

6.

Which of the following clinical chemistry tests is primarily used to diagnose and assess myocardial infarct?

a)

Troponin

b)

GGT

c)

TSH

d)

Glucose

7.

What is the purpose of calibrating a new analyzer?

a)

To set the accuracy of the assay

b)

To make sure the manufacturer cleaned the machine properly

c)

Calibration is not needed for a new analyzer

d)

To set the expiry date for the analyzer

8.

If a glucose meter shows a result of 15 mmol/L but the true level is 6 mmol/L due to lack of calibration, what is the most likely consequence?

a)

The laboratory will save money on reagents.

b)

The patient might receive inappropriate treatment

c)

The instrument will automatically self-correct

d)

The test will take less time to complete.

9.

When running sodium testing, the technologist notices all the results are skewed downwards. What is the best way to ensure the analyzer is releasing the correct resuls?

a)

Run quality assurance samples

b)

Run 1 level of QC

c)

Calibrate and QC the analyzer

d)

Call the manufacturer and get them to help you

10.

Which type of cuvette should be used when measuring absorbance at a wavelength of 320nm?

a)

Amber glass

b)

Plastic

c)

Glass

d)

Quartz

11.

Is this calibration curve acceptable?

a)

Yes, acceptable!

b)

No, the line is not straight enough

c)

No, the line does not go through all the calibration points

d)

Yes, that's the best it will get.

12.

A medical laboratory technologist runs two levels of quality control (QC) for a blood glucose assay. The results are:

  • Control 1 Result: 4.05 mmol/L

  • Control 2 Result: 7.15 mmol/L

The acceptable ranges are:

  • Control 1 Acceptable Range: 3.90 - 4.30 mmol/L

  • Control 2 Acceptable Range: 6.70 - 7.30 mmol/L

  • Based on these results, what is the appropriate action?

a)

Reject the test run because Control 2 is too close to the upper limit

b)

Reject the test run because two controls are required, and the control results are not identical.

c)

Accept the test run only if a third control level is run and passes.

d)

Accept the test run and report patient results, as both control results are within their acceptable ranges.

13.

Which of the following is considered an engineering control?

a)

Lab coat

b)

The schedule

c)

Gloves

d)

Sharps safety shield

14.

During a quality control check, the current result for Control 1 falls at 2 SD from the mean. No other points are out of range. Which Westgard rule is violated, and what action should the technician take?

a)

1 3s is violated, reject the test run.

b)

4 1s is violated; Accept the run, but check the patient results.

c)

2 2s is violated, reject the test run.

d)

1 2s is violated; This is a warning rule, so the run can be accepted, but it should be noted.

15.

What is your next course of action if you calibrate an analyzer and get this calibration curve?

a)

Re-calibrate

b)

Run patient samples

c)

Turn analyzer off and on

d)

Run quality control

16.

A blood test is run, and the control fails a rejection rule 1 3s. What is the immediate next step for the Medical Laboratory Technologist?

a)

Reject the whole test run, then review the procedure and re-run controls

b)

Immediately shut down the assay and refer samples to another lab.

c)

Repeat the patient samples at 2-hour intervals since the last acceptable control.

d)

Contact the instrument manufacturer and complete an incident report.

17.

Which of the following pipettes offers the highest degree of accuracy?

a)

Volumetric

b)

Mohr

c)

Mechanical

d)

Serological

18.

What is considered to be an acceptable practice when performing a venipuncture collection?

a)

blowing on the area of the arm cleansed with alcohol in order to speed up the drying process

b)

touching the vein on the intended puncture site with a gloved finger cleansed with alcohol

c)

securely anchoring the vein with one finger above and one finger below the intended puncture site

d)

keeping the tourniquet on the patient for 3 minutes

19.

Which of the following preanalytical errors is commonly associated with prolonged tourniquet application?

a)

Impaired hemostasis

b)

Diluted hemoglobin

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Hemoconcentration

20.

Sources of stray light in a spectrophotometer system can be reduced by all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Cuvettes free of scratches and dust

b)

Placing the equipment in direct sunlight

c)

A correctly aligned light source

d)

Ensuring the sample does not emit fluorescence

21.

A control has a mean of 5.5 with a standard deviation of 0.5. If the laboratory is using a 95% confidence interval, what range must the control values fall within?

a)

5.0 to 6.5

b)

4.0 to 7.0

c)

5.0 to 6.0

d)

4.5 to 6.5

22.

When using a butterfly needle, why are a few mLs of blood collected into a discard tube prior to obtaining a light blue stoppered tube for the test?

a)

To prevent loss of vacuum

b)

To prevent over-filling

c)

To ensure proper filling

d)

To allow additional testing

23.

What is the color of gram-negative bacterial cells after the decolorization step of the gram stain?

a)

Red/pink

b)

Iodine yellow

c)

Purple/blue

d)

Colorless   

24.

Which circumstance is most likely to have an effect on the linearity of a spectrophotometer?

a)

Using a micropipette to prepare linearity standards

b)

Presence of stray light hitting the detector

c)

Using a water blank before reading the sample absorbance

d)

Using a tungsten lamp for measurements in the visible range

25.

While processing a blood sample, you accidentally spill some blood onto the bench top.  What is the best way to clean the spill?

a)

Wipe up the blood with an alcohol pad using concentric circles

b)

Wait for the blood to dry and then scrape it into a biohazard bag

c)


Absorb the blood with a damp cloth and wash the area with soap and water

d)

Absorb the blood with a paper towel and wipe the area with a disinfectant

26.

Given the displayed calibration curve, what is the concentration of a patient sample with an absorbance of 0.400?

a)

6.0 mmol/L

b)

5.5 mmol/L

c)

Unable to determine the concentration with the given information

d)

7.0 mmol/L

27.

What is considered to be the objective of streaking an agar plate in clinical microbiology?

a)

To produce isolated colonies of bacteria

b)

To stain bacteria

c)

To sterilize the agar plate

d)

To destroy pathogenic bacteria

28.

What is defined as energy reaching the spectrophotometer detector through the monochromator and exit slit that is not of the selected wavelength?

a)

Spectral radiation

b)

Reflective light

c)

Stray light

d)

Absorbance radiation

29.

Plasma samples from the ER are routinely received in the lab, centrifuged, and brought to chemistry for testing.  Recently, many samples have contained clots in the plasma. What is true regarding the lab’s quality control system regarding this problem?

a)

The 10x multi-rule will eventually be violated and the clots discovered

b)

The 1 2s rule routinely detects clots in plasma samples

c)

Routine QC systems do not detect this type of pre analytical problem

d)

Control rules can detect this problem if controls are properly reconstituted

30.

A vacutainer with a green stopper normally contains

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Thrombin

31.

An MLT performs a 1:2 dilution, analyzes the diluted sample and obtains a reading of 20.0 mmol/L of glucose on the diluted sample. Which glucose result should the MLT report?

a)

40.0 mmol/L

b)

20.0 mmol/L

c)

80.0 mmol/L

d)

60.0 mmol/L

32.

A laboratory has set their quality control acceptable limits to +/- 2 standard deviations. If the normal control is run 100 times in this laboratory, how many of the control values are expected to be out of the control range?

a)

1

b)

20

c)


5

d)

10

33.

When an unlabeled blood specimen is received for routine testing in a laboratory, what is the best action to take?

a)

The specimen should be returned to the ward for testing

b)

The nurse should come to the laboratory to label the specimen

c)

A new labelled specimen should be requested

d)

The doctor can confirm the identification of the specimen by telephone

34.

A chemistry procedure calls for the use of 0.1 mL serum and 4.9 mL of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the solution?

a)

1/5

b)

1/50

c)

1/10

d)

1/100

35.

A tube manufacturer has made a tube with a purple shield over a yellow stopper. All you know about this tube is that it contains EDTA. Where would you put this tube in the recommended order of draw?

a)

Between a light blue and a gold stoppered tube

b)

First, before any other tubes

c)

After a yellow stoppered tube

d)

Between a green and a grey stoppered tube

36.

How much 95% alcohol is required to prepare 5 L of 70% alcohol?

a)


3.7 L

b)


4.4 L

c)

3.5 L

d)

2.4 L

37.

Which of the following analytes would be markedly decreased in the case of severe hyponatremia?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

TSH

38.

This test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant.

a)

Ethanol

b)

Prothrombin time

c)

Glycohemoglobin

d)

Zinc

39.

After using a lancet device on a patient for a capillary puncture, no blood comes out. What's the best course of action to take?

a)

Massage the area

b)

Place the finger below the heart so gravity can draw blood out

c)

Gently squeeze the finger

d)

Put heat on the finger

40.

A physician ordered a drug trough level on a patient. When should the phlebotomist go to collect the blood?

a)

A soon as the patient wakes up

b)

Right before the next dose of the drug

c)

Right after the administration of the drug

d)

30 minutes after the administration of the drug

41.

You receive a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the lab that is not labelled. As a lab technologist, what is your next course of action?

a)

Reject the tubes and request a redraw

b)

Get the physician to sign accountability of the specimen and accept it

c)

Get the nurse to verbally state the patient identifiers to you

d)

Label the specimen yourself and start testing it

42.

You start a centrifuge, but as its accelerating, you hear a load crash and it starts to wobble off the bench. What actions should you take immediately?

a)

Hold the centrifuge in place until it is done

b)

Open the centrifuge and remove the samples quickly

c)

This is normal. Let it do its thing

d)

Turn off the centrifuge

43.

You need to deliver 0.25mL of patient sample using a 100-1000μL pipette. What do you set the pipette to?

a)

25μL

b)

250μL

c)

0.25mL

d)

0.25μL

44.

What is the Mode in the following set of numbers? 11,19,10,20,11,26,20,11

a)

19

b)

16

c)

11

d)

20

45.

Which Westgard rule is violated in this chart?

a)

R 4s

b)

No rules have been violated

c)

1 2s

d)

1 3s

46.

You run a patient's glucose level and their result comes across as 55.0 mmol/L (Ref. range= 4.0-6.0 mmol/L, Critical=>30.0 mmol/L). What is your next course of action?

a)

Rerun the sample

b)

Dilute the sample

c)

Report the result

d)

Call the nurse as this is a critical value

47.

What does this pictogram represent?

a)

May cause damage to ozone layer

b)

Gases under pressure

c)

May cause serious health effects

d)

May cause death with short exposure

48.

What is not required on a workplace label?

a)

Product name

b)

Signal word

c)

Safety handling precautions

d)

Reference to SDS

49.

A technologist needs to perform a dilution. They want to perform a dilution factor of 11. What amount of plasma and dH20 should they use for this?

a)

50uL plasma to 500uL dH20

b)

50uL plasma to 1000uL dH20

c)

50uL plasma to 50uL dH20

d)

30uL plasma to 200uL plasma

50.

You perform a 1/6 dilution on a patients glucose. You analyze the diluted sample and obtains a reading of 5.0 mmol/L. What result will you report?

a)

5.0 mmol/L

b)

20.0 mmol/L

c)

30.0 mmol/L

d)

10.0 mmol/L