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Foundations Exam 1 Review Spring 2026

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Images of Nursing: Which past image of nursing is characterized by a harsh and authoritative figure that is often contrasted with the "Angel of Mercy" image?

a)

The Invisible Nurse

b)

The Handmaiden

c)

The Battle-ax

d)

The Professional

2.

Images of Nursing: The public’s perception of nursing as the "most trusted" profession is often influenced by personal interactions with nurses, yet the profession historically ranks low in which area?

a)

Professional ethics

b)

Clinical necessity

c)

Public desirability

d)

Educational requirements

3.

Nursing Professions & Roles: A nurse coordinates the various activities of the healthcare team and facilitates communication between departments. Which nursing role is being performed?

a)

Client Advocate

b)

Manager

c)

Consumer of Research

d)

Change Agent

4.

Nursing Professions & Roles: The American Nurses Association (ANA) defines nursing as the “protection, promotion, and optimization of health” and which of the following?

a)

Advocacy in the care of individuals and populations

b)

The medical diagnosis and treatment of pathology

c)

Rigid adherence to provider orders without question

d)

Task-oriented care for hospital convenience

5.

Safe & Effective Nursing Care: A nurse reviews unit data regarding the incidence of pressure injuries to identify gaps in care and implement a new turning schedule. This nurse is applying which QSEN competency?

a)

Informatics

b)

Quality Improvement (QI)

c)

Teamwork and Collaboration

d)

Evidence-Based Practice (EBP)

6.

Safe & Effective Nursing Care: According to the Institute of Medicine (IOM), providing patient-centered care must begin with which step?

a)

Delegating basic hygiene tasks to the most experienced UAP

b)

Following the provider's medical plan of care exactly

c)

Including the patient as a member of the healthcare team

d)

Using the latest informatics to document patient vital signs

7.

Education Pathways: Which advanced practice role is categorized as an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN)?

a)

Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)

b)

Nursing Informatics Specialist

c)

Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)

d)

Clinical Nurse Educator

8.

Education Pathways: Which of the following is considered a terminal practice degree in nursing?

a)

Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP)

b)

Master of Science in Nursing (MSN)

c)

Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)

d)

Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN)

9.

Benner’s Stages of Clinical Competence: A nursing student who relies heavily on rigid rules and has minimal clinical judgment for "out of the ordinary" situations is at which stage?

a)

Novice

b)

Advanced Beginner

c)

Competent

d)

Proficient

10.

Benner’s Stages of Clinical Competence: A nurse who has worked on a cardiac unit for 2.5 years is now efficient and organized, demonstrating intentional long-term planning for patient care. This nurse is at which stage?

a)

Expert

b)

Proficient

c)

Competent

d)

Advanced Beginner

11.

Critical Thinking: Which of the following is a critical thinking attitude where the nurse acknowledges they do not know everything and recognizes gaps in their own knowledge?

a)

Intellectual autonomy

b)

Intellectual humility

c)

Intellectual perseverance

d)

Fair-mindedness

12.

Critical Thinking: Sound clinical judgment in nursing requires the integration of several types of knowledge. Which type of knowledge refers to "knowing why" a specific intervention is performed?

a)

Theoretical

b)

Practical

c)

Ethical

d)

Self-knowledge

13.

The Nursing Process: What is the primary purpose of the "Evaluation" step in the nursing process?

a)

To carry out the nursing actions identified in the planning phase

b)

To measure the extent to which the patient’s goals were achieved

c)

To identify the patient’s human response to a health problem

d)

To set SMART goals for the duration of the shift

14.

The Nursing Process: During which step of the nursing process (ADPIE) does the nurse collect, validate, and communicate patient data?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

15.

The Nursing Process: A nurse is caring for a client who is two days postoperative and has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. According to the nursing process, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a)

Check the client to determine the reason for inadequate pain relief

b)

Determine whether the change in plan reduces the client’s pain

c)

Change the plan of care to provide a different method of pain relief

d)

Educate the client about the plan of care for managing the pain

16.

Components of a Nursing Diagnosis: In a NANDA nursing diagnosis, the "Related Factor" is defined as which of the following?

a)

The cluster of observable cues and inferences

b)

The reason for the diagnosis identified from assessment data

c)

The essence of the patient's response to a condition

d)

The quantifiable evidence that the problem exists

17.

Components of a Nursing Diagnosis: A nurse identifies signs and symptoms, such as a patient's report of sharp chest pain and an elevated heart rate. These clinical evidences that prove a diagnosis is present are known as what?

a)

Related factors

b)

Risk factors

c)

Defining characteristics

d)

Diagnostic labels

18.

Types of Nursing Diagnoses—Actual vs. Risk: A nurse is writing a nursing diagnosis for a patient who is vulnerable to falling but has not fallen yet. How many parts will this diagnosis have?

a)

Two parts (Problem + Related Factor)

b)

Three parts (Problem + Related Factor + AEB)

c)

One part (Problem only)

d)

Four parts (Problem + Etiology + Signs + Symptoms)

19.

Types of Nursing Diagnoses—Actual vs. Risk: Why does a "Risk for Falls" diagnosis not include an "As Evidenced By" (AEB) statement?

a)

The nurse does not have enough objective data yet

b)

Risk diagnoses are only based on medical pathologies

c)

The problem has not yet occurred, so there are no defining characteristics

d)

Defining characteristics are only used for wellness diagnoses

20.

Interventions (Interdependent, Dependent, Collaboration): A nurse is administering a medication that was prescribed by a physician. This is an example of which type of intervention?

a)

Independent

b)

Dependent

c)

Collaborative

d)

Indirect-care

21.

Interventions (Interdependent, Dependent, Collaboration): A nurse is deciding which feeding technique to use for a patient with a swallowing disorder. To follow best practices, the nurse should first do which of the following?

a)

Ask a peer with several years of experience

b)

Perform a general search on the Internet

c)

Search for evidence-based clinical practice guidelines

d)

Consult the facility’s administrative policy on staffing

22.

Delegation: A Registered Nurse (RN) is deciding which tasks to delegate to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP). Which task is inappropriate to delegate?

a)

Bathing a stable patient who is a fall risk

b)

Delivering hygiene supplies to an independent patient

c)

Determining whether a patient is able to swallow their evening pills

d)

Assisting a patient to the bathroom hours after surgery

23.

Delegation: The "Five Rights of Delegation" include Right Task, Right Person, Right Circumstance, Right Supervision/Evaluation, and which of the following?

a)

Right Patient

b)

Right Direction/Communication

c)

Right Documentation

d)

Right Timing

24.

Delegation: When delegating hygiene care to a UAP, the professional nurse remains responsible for which of the following?

a)

Performing every part of the bath themselves

b)

Only the documentation of the final task

c)

Interpreting and validating the data reported by the UAP

d)

Ensuring the UAP performs the task exactly according to the unit schedule

25.

A patient reports they are unable to buy prescribed medications because they lost their job and are facing poverty. Which SDOH domain is most affected?

a)

Social and Community Context

b)

Economic Stability

c)

Health Care Access and Quality

d)

Neighborhood and Built Environment

26.

A neighborhood with high rates of violence and unsafe air quality represents a concern in which SDOH domain?

a)

Social and Community Context

b)

Education Access and Quality

c)

Neighborhood and Built Environment

d)

Economic Stability

27.

Giving a patient exactly what they need—such as an interpreter or specific dietary resources—to reach their best health is the definition of:

a)

Health Equality

b)

Health Equity

c)

Social Responsibility

d)

Reality

28.

Removing systemic barriers, such as lack of public transportation to a clinic, is an example of pursuing:

a)

Health Equality

b)

Health Disparity

c)

Social Justice

d)

Ethnocentrism

29.

A nurse believes that their own cultural and professional beliefs are superior to the patient’s beliefs. This is known as:

a)

Prejudice

b)

Racism

c)

Ethnocentrism

d)

Cultural Sensitivity

30.

Which barrier refers to the tendency to make judgments based on prejudice and assumptions rather than data?

a)

Cultural stereotyping

b)

Health care jargon

c)

Implicit/unconscious bias

d)

Confirmation bias

31.

Which concept emphasizes ongoing self-reflection and recognition of power differences throughout a person’s professional life?

a)

Cultural Competency

b)

Cultural Humility

c)

Cultural Sensitivity

d)

Cultural Awareness

32.

The developmental process of achieving increasing levels of awareness, knowledge, and skills to work effectively in cross-cultural situations is:

a)

Cultural Competence

b)

Cultural Humility

c)

Cultural Imposition

d)

Cultural Awareness

33.

Which of the following demonstrates culturally competent care?

a)

Relying on family members to interpret medical information to avoid delays in care

b)

Asking patients about their cultural beliefs and preferences and incorporating them into the plan of care

c)

Avoiding discussions about cultural practices to prevent offending the patient

d)

Acknowledging cultural differences while maintaining standardized protocols for all patients

34.

A nurse is reviewing the health rankings for a specific county and notices very poor outcomes for cardiovascular disease. However, a patient from that area is in excellent health and has strong family support and high health literacy. The nurse understands that broad socioeconomic statistics may not accurately predict this specific patient's health because of:

a)

Genetic determination

b)

Clinical care targets

c)

Protective factors

d)

Individual biases

35.

In the SOLER technique for active listening, the "L" represents:

a)

Look at the patient

b)

Lean toward the client

c)

Listen to the message

d)

Leave personal space

36.

Which statement by the nurse acts as a barrier to therapeutic communication?

a)

“That sounds really difficult. What concerns you the most right now?”

b)

“I can see why you’re upset; anyone would feel this way.”

c)

“Have you tried focusing on the positives or doing something to take your mind off it?”

d)

“Take your time. I’m here and listening.”

37.

A nurse is concerned about a patient's safety and says, "I am uncomfortable with this plan." This is an example of using:

a)

SBAR

b)

CUS language

c)

SOLER

d)

ADPIE

38.

The nurse is calling a provider using SBAR and states, "The patient's current heart rate is 124 and blood pressure is 100/58." Which part of SBAR is this?

a)

Situation

b)

Background

c)

Assessment

d)

Recommendation

39.

While giving an SBAR report to the provider, the nurse states, "The patient was admitted with sepsis yesterday and has had persistently elevated heart rates and low blood pressures since admission." Which component of SBAR is the nurse using?

a)

Situation

b)

Background

c)

Assessment

d)

Recommendation

40.

A nurse holds a patient’s medications due to a potential interaction with another medication. Which ethical principle does this reflect?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Informed consent

d)

Nonmaleficence

41.

A nurse notes that an oncoming nurse smells of alcohol and seems unsteady. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Report the oncoming nurse to the board of nursing

b)

Confront the oncoming nurse

c)

Notify the oncoming nurse supervisor

d)

Ask an assistive personnel if they smelled alcohol on the oncoming nurse’s breath

42.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is refusing a life‑saving blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The nurse provides the patient with the necessary information to make an informed decision and respects the patient's choice to refuse. Which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Autonomy

d)

Fidelity

43.

A nurse documents in a patient’s chart that another nurse on the unit is “lazy and incompetent” despite having no evidence to support this claim. If this written statement harms the other nurse’s reputation, it is an example of:

a)

Slander

b)

Libel

c)

Assault

d)

Battery

44.

To prove a claim of malpractice, which elements must be established by the plaintiff? (Select all that apply)

a)

Existence of a duty

b)

Breach of a duty

c)

Intent to cause harm

d)

Causation

e)

Damages

45.

A nurse is caring for a client with a large surgical wound. The nurse understands that this client is at a higher risk for infection primarily because of which link in the chain of infection?

a)

Reservoir

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Infectious agent

46.

Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

a)

A person producing antibodies after a viral infection

b)

A person producing antibodies in response to a vaccine

c)

An infant receiving antibodies through breastmilk

d)

A person receiving an injection of antiserum after a snakebite

47.

A patient contracts a respiratory infection after using a contaminated nebulizer that was shared between rooms. In this scenario, the nebulizer acts as a:

a)

Vector

b)

Fomite

c)

Susceptible host

d)

Portal of exit

48.

A nurse is planning hygiene care for an 85‑year‑old client with advanced dementia who becomes combative when undressed. Which intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Bathe the client as quickly as possible to finish the task

b)

Ensure at least three staff members are present to restrain the client

c)

Turn down the lights, warm the room, and use a calm voice

d)

Postpone the bath until the client is more cooperative

49.

When delegating a complete bed bath for a stable patient to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?

a)

Please assess the patient’s skin for any new redness while you bathe them

b)

Please let me know if you notice any new skin breakdown or redness during the bath

c)

The patient prefers a hot bath, so please use the highest temperature available

d)

I am busy, so you are responsible for deciding if the patient needs a partial or complete bath

50.

True or False: A nurse should provide thorough foot care to a patient with diabetes to prevent infections.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A nurse is providing information about age‑related physical changes to the family member of an older adult. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

a)

Older adults have oilier skin than younger persons

b)

Dry mouth is common for older adults

c)

It is common for older adults to have increased perspiration

d)

Hair in the eyebrows decreases

52.

True or False: If a patient is taking anticoagulant medications, the nurse should use a disposable twin‑blade razor to ensure a close shave.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which of the following is true about denture care?

a)

The nurse should put the dentures in a denture cup with a patient label

b)

The nurse should use hot water to clean the dentures

c)

If the dentures have metal parts, the nurse should let them soak

d)

The nurse should clean the dentures while they are in the patient’s mouth