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Psychiatry Past MCQ (2)

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Regarding a psychotic disorder secondary to medical condition

a)

Psychotherapy is not as important

b)

There is a need to consult specialist in-charge of the medical condition

c)

Medication is not influenced by the medical condition

d)

The primary management involves managing the underlying medical condition

e)

Antipsychotic administration is the first line treatment

2.

Good interview technique

a)

Active listening

b)

Give empathic remarks

c)

Establish good rapport

d)

Many close ended questions

e)

Allow patient to talk excessively

3.

Drug safe during pregnancy except

a)

Lithium

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Quetiapine

d)

Sodium valproate

e)

Carbamazepine

4.

Schizotypal personality disorder

a)

Appear aloof

b)

Poor judgement

c)

Appear eccentric

d)

Rule breaking is typical

e)

Believes in magical thinking

5.

The following is/are the POOR prognostic factors for schizophrenia

a)

Late onset

b)

Presented with mood symptoms

c)

Family history of schizophrenia

d)

Dominant position syndrome

e)

Treatment resistant

6.

Regarding functional neurological disorder

a)

The prognosis is generally poor

b)

Patient voluntarily induce symptoms

c)

It is more prevalent in male than female

d)

Psychogenic non-epileptic seizure is an example

e)

Likely associated with another neurological disorder

7.

Regarding psychiatry illness in peripartum onset

a)

Infection is a risk factor if puerperal psychosis

b)

Schizophrenia has a low risk of relapse

c)

Bipolar disorder has a high risk of relapse

d)

Relative infant dosage below 10% is safe to prescribe during pregnancy

e)

Peripartum onset is during pregnancy and within 4 weeks after delivery

8.

Regarding medication in pregnancy and lactation

a)

Psychotropic medication must be discontinued during pregnancy

b)

The use of lithium in pregnancy increases the incidence of birth defects

c)

Teratogenic risk of psychotropic drugs is the highest in the third trimester

d)

A minimum number of psychotropic medications with the lowest effective dosage must be used

9.

Characteristic of CBT

a)

Person-centered therapy

b)

Required to do homework/task

c)

Encourage to teach patient to become their own therapist

d)

Change of thought can lead to positive change of behaviour and emotions

e)

Relate behaviour to emotion/unconscious feeling

10.

Which of the following is/are true about EPSE?

a)

Akathisia is one of the EPSE

b)

Some of the acute dystonia can cause respiratory depression

c)

Atypical antipsychotics does not cause EPSE

d)

Stop medication directly in tardive dyskinesia

e)

Anticholinergic can be used to treat parkinsonism EPSE

11.

Which of the following is/are first rank symptoms?

a)

Running commentary

b)

Thought block

c)

Made affect

d)

Delusional perception

e)

Commanding auditory hallucination

12.

Features of pseudohallucination

a)

Inner space

b)

Ideological

c)

Spontaneously

d)

Vivid imaginary from true perception

e)

Hypnopompic hallucination is subtype of pseudohallucination

13.

Insight

a)

Willing to receive treatment

b)

Know the illnesses

c)

Patients agree with all the doctor says

d)

Know that it is related to psychological problems

e)

Aware of the importance of treatment

14.

Following condition can affect individual’s mental capacity

a)

Stroke

b)

Hemophilia A

c)

Hyperuricaemia

d)

Intellectual disabilities

e)

Rheumatoid arthritis

15.

Regarding neurocognitive disorder

a)

Initial dementia workup includes Vitamin B12 and folate

b)

The symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is stepwise progression

c)

Management of vascular dementia is by managing cardiovascular risk factor

d)

MMSE is an assessment of all lobes of the brain

e)

Pharmacotherapy is the first approach in the management of BPSD

16.

Parameters for traumatic head injury

a)

Glasgow coma scale

b)

Duration of retrograde amnesia

c)

Duration of loss of consciousness

d)

Duration of post-traumatic amnesia

e)

Presence of subarachnoid hemorrhage

17.

Neuropsychiatric symptoms of epilepsy includes

a)

Depression

b)

Acute dystonia

c)

Peri-ictal psychosis

d)

Inter-ictal psychosis

e)

Neurocognitive impairment

18.

Mindfulness

a)

It is not possible to be mindful at all times

b)

Mindfulness is better than relaxation technique

c)

Mindfulness trains one to multitask

d)

Mindfulness means being present in the moment

e)

Mindfulness can reduce pain

19.

Reactive Attachment Disorder

a)

Absent checking with adult caregiver

b)

History of extremes of insufficient care

c)

Does not meet criteria for autism spectrum disorder

d)

Culturally inappropriate, over-friendliness with relative strangers

e)

Marked emotional inhibition and response to adult caregivers

20.

Phases in sexual

a)

Orgasm

b)

Attraction

c)

Excitation

d)

Stimulation

e)

Resolution

21.

Medication safe for pregnancy

a)

Lithium

b)

Quetiapine

c)

Sodium Valproate

d)

Benzodiazepines

e)

Haloperidol

22.

Somatic symptoms disorder

a)

Commonly feigns symptoms

b)

Gain benefit of playing sick role

c)

Excessive worry even with minimal symptoms of illness

d)

Presence of altered voluntary motor and sensory function

23.

Criteria for MDD in DSMV for adolescents

a)

Hypersomnia

b)

Irritability

c)

Thoughts of worthlessness

d)

Decreased need for sleep

e)

Recurrent thoughts of death

24.

The following can present with panic-like symptoms

a)

Hyperuricemia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Bronchial asthma

d)

Knee osteoarthritis

e)

Congestive heart failure

25.

Behavioural therapists believe that behaviour can be:

a)

Unlearned

b)

Repressed

c)

Modified

d)

Measured

e)

Internalised

26.

Psychiatric emergencies

a)

Intramuscular procyclidine is treatment for acute dystonia

b)

Benzodiazepines is the first line medication in delirium tremens

c)

Benzodiazepines can worsen delirium secondary to general medical conditions

27.

Regarding Psychological First Aid

a)

PFA is conducted when encountering in person with distress and following crisis

b)

It is important in obtaining detailed information before conducting PFA

c)

Principle in PFA is look, listen and link

d)

Mental health professional is main person to conduct PFA

e)

Help others to solve problems is priority in PFA

28.

Spikes model to break bad news to a patient

a)

Setting up

b)

Strategy and summary

c)

Showing empathy

d)

Intervention

e)

Invitations to share knowledge

29.

Mimic anxiety symptoms in women

a)

Polycystic ovaries syndrome

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperparathyroidism

e)

Ischemic heart disease

30.

Regarding bipolar disorder in pregnancy and postpartum period

a)

Mood stabilizing antipsychotic is more preferable rather than mood stabiliser in continuation during pregnancy

b)

The risk of relapse is higher if mood stabiliser is not given during pregnancy

c)

The risk of relapse is low after delivery

d)

Lithium is best avoided during pregnancy

e)

Lamotrigine can cause Epstein anomaly to the fetus

31.

Regarding violence

a)

De-escalation techniques is the initial step of management

b)

Breakaway and restraint require formal training

c)

Physical restraint can use without chemical tranquilisation

d)

Benzodiazepine are used as tranquilisation if the suspect cause of aggression is alcohol intoxication

e)

If stimulant withdrawal was the suspect cause of aggression, benzodiazepine is used as pharmacological agent for tranquilization

32.

Motivational interviewing

a)

Roll with resistance

b)

Anticipating abstinence

c)

Develop dissociation

d)

Express empathy

e)

Support self-efficacy

33.

Thought disorders

a)

Delusion

b)

Hallucination

c)

Phobia

d)

Flight of ideas

e)

Derailment

34.

Techniques of Humanistic-existential psychotherapy

a)

Transference

b)

Genuineness

c)

Empathy

d)

Dream analysis

e)

Unconditional positive regard

35.

Regarding conversion disorder

a)

Primary gain present

b)

Symptoms are deliberate

c)

More common in woman

d)

The presented symptoms are associated with CNS

e)

La belle indifférence features

36.

Regarding schizophrenia

a)

Male more common than female

b)

Monozygotic twin > dizygotic twin

c)

High risk to relapse in environment of high expressed emotional

d)

High in low class

e)

2% population

37.

Clozapine

a)

Can cause tardive dyskinesia for long-term usage

b)

More likely causes more metabolic syndrome compared to olanzapine

c)

Postural hypotension is a common side effect

d)

Potentially cause prolactin elevation

e)

Can reduce suicidality

38.

One of the five psychosexual stages

a)

Oral

b)

Anal

c)

Libido

d)

Fixation

e)

Latent

39.

Regarding bipolar disorder

a)

May present with mania or hypomania episode

b)

A depressive symptom is necessary to diagnose Bipolar I disorder

c)

A depressive symptom is necessary to diagnose Bipolar II disorder

d)

Hospital admission is indicated in manic rather than hypomanic episode

e)

Main difference between manic and hypomanic episodes is the duration of symptoms

40.

Regarding suicide

a)

Male are much more likely compared to female to be killed by suicide

b)

Elderly have lower risk of dying from suicide compared to young people

c)

Sudden calmness after distress is a warning sign

d)

Borderline personality disorder is a risk factor

41.

Medication in pregnancy is/are associated with increased risk of Ebstein’s anomaly

a)

Lithium

b)

Carbamazepine

c)

Sodium Valproate

d)

Clozapine

e)

Olanzapine

42.

Indication for ECT

a)

Catatonia

b)

Severe mania

c)

Substance induced psychotic disorder

d)

Antisocial personality disorder

e)

MDD with high suicidal risk

43.

Regarding Dissociative Identity Disorder

a)

It is also known as multiple personality disorder

b)

Each identity might have its own name, age, gender, way of thinking, feelings and behaviour

c)

Individuals tend to experience flashbacks of traumatic events as if they were recurring

d)

There is persistent effort to avoid distressing memory associated with traumatic events

e)

There are recurrent memory gaps of daily events that are inconsistent with ordinary memory loss

44.

Which of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

a)

Apathy

b)

Visual hallucinations

c)

Delusion of reference

d)

Agitation

e)

Ambivalence

45.

Schizoid personality disorder

a)

Cold emotion

b)

Paranoid ideation

c)

Weird magical thinking

d)

Suicide threat

46.

Features of major neurocognitive disorder include

a)

Disorientation

b)

Decline in executive functioning

c)

Word finding difficulty

d)

Amnesia

e)

Fluctuating attention

47.

Community psychiatry service

a)

Focus on prevention and early intervention

b)

Mainstay of treatment focus on pharmacology

c)

Detect early relapse for hospital admission

d)

Provide service in restricted setting

48.

Regarding illness anxiety disorder

a)

Acute in onset

b)

Patients with the disease rarely are seen initially by a psychiatrist

c)

The patients are preoccupied with fear about the seriousness of their symptoms

d)

Frequent laboratory tests shall be performed to reassure the patients

e)

Direct confrontation is an effective approach to reduce the patient’s distress

49.

Supported Employment in psychiatry include

a)

Job placement according to individual’s interest

b)

On-the-job training

c)

Provision of one-time job support

d)

Collaboration of treatment team and employers

e)

Immediate job placement in integrated mainstream work setting

50.

About mindfulness

a)

To reduce pain

b)

To relax

c)

Focus on present moment

d)

Can pay attention with flexibility

e)

Identify cognitive error

51.

Suicide

a)

A leading cause of death in youth

b)

SAFE-T is not a reliable assessment

c)

Difference between deliberate self-harm and suicide is the intention

d)

Inpatient must monitor chart and remove dangerous objects

e)

Malaysia Mental Health Act states that suicidal patient can be admitted to ward by sole signature of psychiatrist

52.

Following are true about EPSE

a)

Atypical antipsychotics cannot cause EPSE

b)

Anticholinergic agent can be used to treat Parkinsonian EPSE

c)

EPSE can be caused by antiemetic

d)

Treatment involves immediate withdrawal of antipsychotic

e)

Categories of EPSE include tardive dyskinesia, acute dystonia, and akathisia

53.

The following is/are true regarding delirium

a)

Delirium can be reliably assessed by using the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)

b)

Pharmacological treatment of delirium involves the use of benzodiazepines

c)

Delirium is unlikely in individual who has history of illicit substance intoxication

d)

Delirium can be caused by medication that is used to treat medical condition

e)

In a disoriented patient who is occasionally oriented to time, place, and person, delirium can be excluded

54.

The following is/are true regarding MSE

a)

Flight of ideas is an indication for mania

b)

Hallucinations are abnormal thought content

c)

It is done via observation and interviewing

d)

Insight can be assessed using the burning-house scenario

e)

Components of speech assessed are rate, tone and amount

55.

Schizoid personality disorder is characterised by

a)

Coldness

b)

Paranoid ideation

c)

Belief in psychic phenomenon

d)

Aggressiveness and impulsivity

e)

Self-destructive behaviour such as suicide threats

56.

Cognitive psychotherapist emphasise on

a)

Pattern of thinking

b)

Unconscious modes of perception

c)

Process of knowing the world

d)

Motivational approach in life

e)

Behavioural

57.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding PTSD

a)

Headache is one of the symptoms of PTSD

b)

Detachment from body is one of the dissociative symptoms of trauma

c)

The diagnosis of PTSD is made immediately after exposure to traumatic event

d)

Flashback memory is one of the intrusive symptoms of PTSD

e)

The main difference between adjustment disorder and PTSD is the absence of traumatic event in adjustment disorder

58.

Theory of psychosexual development

a)

Theory of Maslow

b)

Cognitive learning theory

c)

Behavioural learning theory

d)

Theory of planned behaviour

e)

Freud psychoanalysis theory

59.

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

a)

Anhedonia

b)

Apathy

c)

Alogia

d)

Aphasia

e)

Apraxia

60.

Drug with anti-suicidal property

a)

Clozapine

b)

Quetiapine

c)

Fluvoxamine

d)

Lithium

e)

Diazepam

61.

Features of Assertive Community Therapy

a)

Regular team meeting

b)

Frequent contact with client

c)

Support for family and carers

d)

Carry bigger caseloads for community

e)

Emphasis on engagement and medication adherence

62.

Regarding major neurocognitive disorder

a)

Old age and family history of Alzheimer’s increase the risk factor

b)

Gradual deterioration is a characteristic of vascular dementia

c)

The risk increases twofold every five years after age 60

d)

Early non-cognitive changes in frontotemporal dementia include disinhibition, impulsivity, loss of empathy

e)

Hypertension and past history of stroke increase risk for Alzheimer’s

63.

Regarding general management of major NCD

a)

Not important to know the subtypes of major NCD

b)

Pharmacological intervention greatly improves quality of life

c)

GI disturbances are common side effects

d)

Once diagnosed, manage holistically

e)

Pharmacological intervention is the initial management for major NCD

64.

A 15-year-old female with type 1 diabetes skips insulin and says “life not worth living.” Management should include

a)

Validating patient’s difficulty taking medication

b)

Convincing her that medication helps mood

c)

Give an anti-anxiety medication before insulin

d)

Give reassurance she can cope

e)

Understanding coping strategies under stress

65.

The use of following medications is associated with increased risk of neural tube defects in fetus

a)

Lithium

b)

Sodium valproate

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Olanzapine

e)

Lorazepam

66.

Following patient may lack capacity to give consent for surgery

a)

20-year-old with severe intellectual disability

b)

40-year-old with alcohol intoxication

c)

80-year-old with Alzheimer’s

d)

30-year-old with auditory hallucination and persecutory delusion

e)

35-year-old Jehovah’s Witness refusing blood transfusion but understands consequences

67.

Regarding ADHD in 8-year-old

a)

Difficulty in organizing task and activities

b)

Difficulty in non-verbal communication

c)

Difficulty in socio-emotional reciprocity

d)

Difficulty in waiting for turn in a queue

e)

Difficulty in sustained concentration in class

68.

Features of postpartum blues include

a)

Anxiety

b)

Irritability

c)

Mood lability

d)

Delusion of guilt

e)

Suicidal ideation

69.

Characteristics of therapeutic relationship

a)

Teamwork

b)

Unconditional positive regard

c)

Co-dependency

d)

Agreed upon goals

e)

Time limited

70.

Reactive attachment

a)

Onset at 7 years old

b)

Always seek comfort when distressed

c)

Continuous pattern of inhibition

d)

Overly familiar to strangers

e)

Unexplained irritability or sadness

71.

Major function of sexual behaviour

a)

Pleasure

b)

Imitation

c)

Responsibility

d)

Procreation

e)

Object relation

72.

In psychiatric interview, approach to sensitive issue should be

a)

Ask close-ended question

b)

Produce a conducive environment

c)

Let patient explain without interruption

d)

Use lengthy explanation on why information needed

e)

Use previous history to ask question

73.

Principle management for hyperactive delirium secondary to general medical condition

a)

Use of atypical antipsychotic

b)

Use of long-acting benzodiazepine

c)

Adjustment to ward environment

d)

Investigate underlying etiology

e)

Manage dehydration and malnutrition

74.

Characteristic of community psychiatry

a)

Focus service on population level

b)

Service levels according to patient needs

c)

Emphasis on treatment outside psychiatric institution

d)

Service caters especially for medication needs

e)

Comprehensive service caters for acute and long-term needs

75.

Cognitive Behavioural therapy includes

a)

Modelling

b)

Flooding

c)

Punishment

d)

Transference

e)

Systematic desensitization

76.

Supported employment

a)

One-time job support

b)

On-the-job training

c)

Collaboration between treatment team and employers

d)

Arranged based on individual’s interest

e)

Immediate job placement in integrated mainstream setting

77.

Neurocognitive disorder

a)

Confabulation is a symptom

b)

Confusion is a core feature

c)

Head trauma can cause neurocognitive disorder

d)

Bilingualism is a protective factor against Alzheimer’s

e)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor can reverse cognitive deficit

78.

Formal thought disorder include

a)

Delusion

b)

Pressure of speech

c)

Thought withdrawal

d)

Knight’s move thinking

e)

Loosening of association

79.

First rank Schneider symptoms

a)

Anhedonia

b)

Somatic passivity

c)

Commanding voices

d)

Thought block

e)

Delusional perception

80.

A schizotypal personality patient has following features

a)

Appear eccentric

b)

Appear cold and aloof

c)

Believe in magical thinking

d)

Active in social participation

e)

Appreciate others’ compliment

81.

Opioid withdrawal

a)

Constipation

b)

Tremor

c)

Yawning

d)

Lacrimation

e)

Pupil dilation

82.

Common side effects of antipsychotic

a)

Hyperphagia

b)

Acute dystonia

c)

Chronic diarrhoea

d)

Metabolic syndrome

e)

Decreased prolactin level

83.

Features of OCD

a)

Presents with free-floating anxiety

b)

Clomipramine is a recommended medication

c)

Repetitive mental calculations is an example of obsession

d)

6 months symptomatic required for DSM-V criteria

e)

IPSRT is recommended

84.

Stages of grief

a)

Guilt

b)

Anger

c)

Suppression

d)

Detachment

e)

Blaming

85.

Conduct disorder

a)

Often involve in physical fights

b)

Often deliberately annoy others

c)

Often argue with authority

d)

Has been cruel to animals

e)

Often lies to others for own favour

86.

Regarding suicide

a)

Male has higher risk of committing suicide than female

b)

Early morning awakening is the strongest predictor of suicide

c)

Those above 75 have lower risk than young

d)

Borderline personality disorder has higher risk of committing suicide

e)

Suddenly calm during depression may indicate impending suicide

87.

Regarding physical restraints

a)

There should be locking

b)

Patient needs constant supervision

c)

Vital signs monitored every 15 minutes

d)

Doctors must document indication

e)

Temporarily release one point to prevent neurovascular compromise

88.

Humanistic approach characteristic in psychotherapy

a)

Self-exploration can lead to recovery

b)

Therapist-client relationship not essential

c)

Emotional awareness not essential part of therapy

d)

Dream analysis is used

e)

Every individual has ability to recover from mental illness

89.

Regarding illness anxiety disorder

a)

It has acute onset

b)

Frequent lab tests reassure patient

c)

Patient rarely seen by psychiatrist

d)

Direct confrontation reduces distress

e)

Patient preoccupied with fear about seriousness of symptoms

90.

Features of postpartum blues INCLUDE

a)

Anxiety

b)

Irritability

c)

Mood lability

d)

Persecutory delusion

e)

Recurrent thought of death

91.

Regarding delirium tremens

a)

Antipsychotics recommended prophylaxis

b)

IV benzodiazepine is treatment

c)

May occur after 1 week of last drink

d)

Occurs 24–72 hours after last drink

92.

First rank symptoms include

a)

Delusion of control

b)

Delusion of reference

c)

Second person auditory hallucination

d)

Thought broadcast

e)

Somatic hallucination

93.

Diagnostic criteria of MDD according to DSM-5 include

a)

Significant change in weight

b)

Change in sleeping pattern

c)

Increase in energy

d)

Decrease concentration

e)

Suicidal ideation

94.

Which of the following produce depressive symptoms

a)

Parkinson disease

b)

Left cerebral artery infarct

c)

Cushing syndrome

d)

Hyperthyroidism

e)

Vitamin A deficiency

95.

A diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder may be appropriate for individuals who have

a)

Recurrent depressive episode with manic episode

b)

Recurrent depressive episode without manic episode

c)

Current manic episode with history of depression

d)

Current manic episode without affective disturbance

e)

Several manic episodes without depression

96.

De-escalation includes

a)

Establish verbal contact

b)

Stand close to patient to secure space

c)

Follow whatever patient requests

d)

Set clear limits

e)

Call security guard immediately

97.

Somatic symptom disorder

a)

Acute onset

b)

Initially rarely seen by psychiatrist

c)

Nervous and anxious about serious illness

d)

Frequent investigations reduce distress

e)

Direct confrontation is effective approach

98.

Symptoms needed for diagnosis of MDD in a 60-year-old with breast cancer

a)

Anhedonia

b)

Fatigue

c)

Weight loss

d)

Feeling of worthlessness

e)

Suicidal thought

99.

Mrs A, 26 years old presented to ETD with low mood, loss of appetite, sleep disturbances, loss of concentration and guilt for 1 week. On further questioning, she also sees spiders on the wall.

a)

For severe MDD with psychotic features, psychotic symptoms appear after MDD symptoms

b)

Psychotic symptoms are considered mood congruent

c)

These evidences are enough to diagnose schizoaffective disorder

d)

Antipsychotic drugs should be considered

100.

Assessment of cognitive function in MSE includes

a)

Orientation to time, place, person

b)

Flight of ideas

c)

Abstract thinking

d)

Attention and concentration

e)

Insight

101.

Extrapyramidal side effects

a)

Hyperprolactinemia

b)

Tardive dyskinesia

c)

Acute dystonia

d)

Dry mouth

e)

Akathisia

102.

Function of DSM-5 for clinicians

a)

To understand patient's unique experiences

b)

To facilitate communication between clinicians

c)

To help clinicians discuss with each other

d)

To help public fight stigma

e)

To explain treatment to patients and families

103.

Traumatic and stress-related disorder specific to children

a)

Post-traumatic stress disorder

b)

Adjustment disorder

c)

Acute stress disorder

d)

Disinhibited social engagement disorder

e)

Reactive attachment disorder

104.

Regarding the domains of psychosocial rehab

a)

There are 5 domains in PSR

b)

Peer support is one of the domains

c)

Supported employment is a vocational service

d)

Social skills training is included in cognitive rehab

e)

Enterprise is part of community resource development

105.

Intellectual Disability — true statements

a)

IQ below 70

b)

Prematurity is a risk factor

c)

Social function is impaired

d)

Supported employment is suitable management

106.

Regarding psychiatric care in community

a)

Community mental health care is accepted under Mental Health Act 2001

b)

Acute assertive care proven to reduce healthcare cost

c)

Psychoeducation includes early warning signs

d)

Focuses service on population level

e)

Poor insight is inclusion for assertive care

107.

Major principle behind Assertive Community Treatment

a)

Community training unnecessary for rehabilitation

b)

Vocational rehab only possible in community

c)

Inpatient management costs more than community

d)

Social skills training in hospital is hard to transfer to community

e)

Social skill training in hospital is costly

108.

Anxiety disorder

a)

GAD characterized by excessive worry

b)

Catastrophic thinking is common

c)

Male:female ratio 1:1

d)

Benzodiazepine has limited role post-trauma

e)

SSRI is treatment for anxiety disorder

109.

Borderline personality disorder is characterized by

a)

Some symptoms similar to bipolar disorder

b)

Black-and-white thinking

c)

Poor impulse regulation

d)

Severe dissociative symptoms

e)

Responsive to antidepressant

110.

Catatonic symptoms include

a)

Echolalia

b)

Psychological pillow

c)

Waxy flexibility

d)

Confabulation

e)

Automatism

111.

Features of delirium

a)

Acute onset

b)

Sleep-wake cycle disrupted

c)

Clouding of consciousness

d)

Normal memory

e)

Disorientation

112.

Pseudodementia is characterized by

a)

Patient rarely complains of cognitive impairment

b)

Often labile affect

c)

Patient often communicates distress

d)

Confabulation often present

e)

“I don’t know” responses frequent

113.

Psychiatric classification is important in

a)

Labelling patient

b)

Facilitating communication among professionals

c)

Identifying mentally ill patients

d)

Avoiding lawsuit

e)

Research purpose

114.

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

a)

Asociality

b)

Amnesia

c)

Aphasia

d)

Acalculia

e)

Anhedonia

115.

Psychological treatment for erectile dysfunction includes

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Vacuum device

c)

Relaxation therapy

d)

Couple therapy

e)

Exercise

116.

Disorder of thought form

a)

Tangentiality

b)

Poverty of thought

c)

Persecutory delusion

d)

Loosening of association

e)

Obsession

117.

Criteria for alcohol withdrawal includes

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narrow repertoire

c)

Seizures

d)

Psychomotor agitation

e)

Rapid reinstatement