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TOPIC 3.1 Enzymes: Introduction to Enzyme Function

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the primary role of enzymes in cells?

a)

They store genetic information.

b)

They act as biological catalysts that lower activation energy.

c)

They function as structural carbohydrates.

d)

They provide energy by being broken down during reactions.

2.

Enzymes are a type of which biomolecule, and what is their monomer?

a)

Carbohydrate; monosaccharide

b)

Protein; amino acid

c)

Lipid; fatty acid

d)

Nucleic acid; nucleotide

3.

What is the term for the region of an enzyme where the substrate binds?

a)

Allosteric site

b)

Active site

c)

Regulatory domain

d)

Phosphorylation loop

4.

For an enzyme-mediated reaction to occur, what must be compatible between the substrate and the active site?

a)

Size and temperature

b)

Shape and charge

c)

pH and pressure

d)

Concentration and volume

5.

Which option best explains the enzyme-substrate complex model?

a)

Substrates permanently change the enzyme’s primary structure.

b)

The substrate temporarily binds to the enzyme’s active site to form a complex.

c)

Enzymes only function after being consumed by the reaction.

d)

The enzyme binds nonspecifically to any molecule nearby.

6.

An enzyme has a positively charged amino acid at the center of its active site. What is the most likely effect if a mutation changes this residue to a negatively charged one?

a)

Increased substrate binding due to stronger attraction

b)

No change because charge does not affect binding

c)

Loss of function because substrate charge compatibility is disrupted

d)

The enzyme becomes a carbohydrate

7.

If an enzyme’s shape is altered by mutation, what is the predicted outcome for its function?

a)

Enhanced activity with any substrate

b)

Substrate cannot fit into the active site, reducing or eliminating function

c)

The enzyme gains the ability to replicate DNA

d)

No effect on reaction rate

8.

Which factor directly explains why enzymes can regulate biological processes by facilitating reactions?

a)

They raise the activation energy required.

b)

They lower the activation energy required.

c)

They neutralize substrates before binding.

d)

They permanently bond to products.

9.

According to substrate specificity, which substrate would bind to the depicted enzyme’s active site? Refer to a diagram showing an active site shaped to fit a particular substrate.

a)

A substrate with a very different shape from the active site

b)

Any substrate if concentration is high enough

c)

A substrate whose shape complements the active site

d)

Only substrates with neutral charge regardless of shape

10.

Which statement best defines activation energy in a chemical reaction?

a)

The total energy released by the reaction

b)

The amount of energy required for a chemical reaction to happen

c)

The energy stored in the products

d)

The energy that enzymes produce

11.

In the straw-and-scissors analogy for an enzymatic reaction, what is the biological catalyst?

a)

The straw pieces

b)

The hand

c)

The scissors

d)

The tape

12.

According to the energy diagrams, how does the presence of an enzyme affect activation energy and reaction rate?

a)

It increases activation energy and slows the reaction

b)

It decreases activation energy and speeds up the reaction

c)

It has no effect on activation energy but speeds up the reaction

d)

It increases activation energy and speeds up the reaction

13.

Which part of the enzyme binds the substrate during catalysis?

a)

Active site

b)

Product site

c)

Energy site

d)

Binding pocket of the product

14.

If you had to break straws by hand without scissors, what would happen to the reaction rate, and why?

a)

Rate would increase because activation energy is lower

b)

Rate would decrease because activation energy is higher

c)

Rate would be unchanged because activation energy is the same

d)

Rate would be random because activation energy varies

15.

Identify the substrate and product in the straw analogy.

a)

Substrate: two straw pieces; Product: one whole straw

b)

Substrate: one plastic straw; Product: two pieces of straw (A and B)

c)

Substrate: scissors; Product: straw pieces

d)

Substrate: hand; Product: energy

16.

Which graph represents a reaction without an enzyme?

a)

The graph with a lower activation energy peak

b)

The graph labeled 'With enzyme'

c)

The graph showing a higher activation energy peak

d)

Neither graph

17.

What is the primary role of a biological catalyst in a reaction?

a)

To become a product

b)

To raise the energy of the products

c)

To lower the activation energy and increase reaction speed

d)

To supply energy to the substrate

18.

In an energy diagram, where is activation energy indicated?

a)

As the difference between substrate and product energies at the end

b)

As the peak height that must be overcome for the reaction to proceed

c)

As the area under the curve

d)

As the final energy of the products

19.

Which statement best describes enzyme denaturation?

a)

A permanent increase in enzyme concentration

b)

A change in enzyme structure due to temperature, pH, or chemical environment that eliminates catalytic ability

c)

A temporary blockage of the active site by a competitive inhibitor

d)

Formation of more hydrogen bonds to stabilize the enzyme

20.

What happens to the substrate binding when an enzyme is denatured?

a)

It binds more strongly to the active site

b)

It no longer fits into the active site, so the reaction does not occur

c)

It converts directly into product without enzyme assistance

d)

It binds to an allosteric site to increase reaction rate

21.

Which environmental factor disrupts the hydrogen bonds that help form the 3D shape of an enzyme, leading to lower reaction rates when outside the optimum?

a)

Only low temperature

b)

Only high pH

c)

Both high temperature and high/low pH outside the optimum

d)

Only substrate concentration

22.

According to the material, what is the typical optimal temperature for enzymes in the human body?

a)

72 degrees

b)

37 degrees Celsius (98 degrees Fahrenheit)

c)

25 degrees Celsius

d)

100 degrees Celsius

23.

Which graph trend best represents enzyme reaction rate versus temperature around the optimum?

a)

A steady linear increase with temperature

b)

A bell-shaped curve with peak at the optimum and lower rates at temperatures above or below it

c)

A constant reaction rate regardless of temperature

d)

A step function that jumps at the optimum

24.

Which statement about pH effects on enzymes is accurate?

a)

Enzyme activity increases indefinitely with pH

b)

Activity is highest at the enzyme’s optimum pH and decreases at too acidic or too basic conditions

c)

pH has no effect on enzyme structure

d)

Only basic pH affects enzymes

25.

Which bonds are primarily disrupted during denaturation that alters enzyme structure?

a)

Covalent peptide bonds of the primary structure

b)

Hydrogen bonds that stabilize the 3D shape

c)

Ionic bonds in substrates

d)

Metallic bonds

26.

Is enzyme denaturation ever reversible, allowing the enzyme to regain activity?

a)

No, denaturation is always irreversible

b)

Yes, sometimes

c)

Only at very high temperatures

d)

Only in the presence of inhibitors

27.

Which scenario would most likely cause an enzyme’s reaction rate to decrease due to denaturation?

a)

Maintaining the enzyme at its optimum temperature

b)

Exposing the enzyme to high temperature and extreme pH

c)

Increasing substrate concentration at optimum pH

d)

Adding a cofactor at optimum temperature

28.

Catalase catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen (H2O2 → H2O + O2). Which direct measurement could indicate catalase reaction rate?

a)

Decrease in enzyme mass

b)

Increase in oxygen produced over time

c)

Change in color of the solution unrelated to products

d)

Number of substrates added

29.

Which statement best describes how product concentration affects enzyme reaction rate over time?

a)

The reaction rate increases because product stimulates the active site.

b)

The reaction rate drops as product interferes with enzyme–substrate interactions.

c)

The reaction rate remains constant because product does not affect enzymes.

d)

The reaction rate increases because product becomes additional substrate.

30.

As substrate concentration around an enzyme decreases over time, what is the expected impact on reaction rate?

a)

Reaction rate increases due to reduced competition.

b)

Reaction rate drops because there is less substrate for the reaction.

c)

Reaction rate remains unchanged if temperature is optimal.

d)

Reaction rate oscillates due to product feedback.

31.

Which cellular strategy helps maintain a high reaction rate by managing product concentration?

a)

Increase pH to denature enzymes.

b)

Move product away from the area or use the product in another reaction.

c)

Decrease substrate concentration to prevent saturation.

d)

Add noncompetitive inhibitors to stabilize enzymes.

32.

Which cellular strategy helps maintain a high reaction rate in terms of substrate availability?

a)

Dilute the substrate throughout the cell.

b)

Compartmentalize the reaction to concentrate substrate near the enzyme.

c)

Remove products to inhibit feedback.

d)

Bind inhibitors to the active site.

33.

Which statement correctly distinguishes competitive and noncompetitive (allosteric) inhibitors?

a)

Competitive inhibitors bind allosteric sites; noncompetitive inhibitors bind the active site.

b)

Competitive inhibitors irreversibly denature enzymes; noncompetitive inhibitors are reversible.

c)

Competitive inhibitors bind directly to the active site; noncompetitive inhibitors bind allosteric sites causing a change in the shape of the active site.

d)

Both inhibitors increase substrate binding affinity at the active site.

34.

Where do competitive inhibitors bind, and what immediate effect does this have?

a)

Allosteric site; increases product formation.

b)

Active site; prevents substrate from binding.

c)

Active site; accelerates enzyme turnover.

d)

Allosteric site; prevents product release.

35.

According to Essential Knowledge 3.2.B.2, how do higher environmental temperatures generally affect enzymatic reactions in solution?

a)

They decrease molecular movement, lowering collision frequency.

b)

They increase average molecule movement and enzyme–substrate collision frequency until optimal temperature is reached.

c)

They immediately denature all enzymes regardless of temperature.

d)

They have no effect on reaction rate.

36.

Noncompetitive inhibitors bind allosteric sites. What is the consequence of this binding on the enzyme’s active site?

a)

No change occurs; substrate still binds normally.

b)

The active site changes shape, altering enzyme activity.

c)

The active site is duplicated, increasing activity.

d)

The enzyme is transported to another compartment.

37.

Which statement best describes the first law of thermodynamics in biological systems?

a)

Energy can be created by cells when needed

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can be transformed from one form to another

c)

Entropy of a system always decreases during metabolism

d)

Energy is only stored in ATP and cannot be transferred

38.

What is the second law of thermodynamics as it applies to living systems?

a)

Energy transformations increase the system's entropy

b)

Energy is perfectly conserved without loss

c)

Entropy decreases when matter moves

d)

Cells can eliminate entropy entirely

39.

Why is a continual input of energy necessary for living organisms to maintain homeostasis?

a)

To decrease entropy below zero

b)

To power cellular processes and prevent the system from moving toward disorder

c)

To increase heat within cells for stability

d)

To store unlimited glucose

40.

According to the instructional material, what happens when organisms obtain less energy than required to stay alive?

a)

They grow faster

b)

They enter a reversible dormancy

c)

They die due to loss of order outweighing energy input

d)

They become more efficient at energy use without consequence

41.

Which pairing correctly illustrates energy coupling in cells?

a)

Photosynthesis coupled to fermentation

b)

ATP formation coupled to processes that require energy

c)

Glycolysis coupled to decreasing entropy

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation coupled to energy loss only

42.

In cellular respiration, which statement is accurate based on the material?

a)

Respiration builds glucose to store energy

b)

Respiration breaks down glucose to release energy

c)

Respiration converts radiant energy directly into ATP

d)

Respiration decreases entropy of the universe

43.

What is the ultimate source of energy for Earth mentioned in the material?

a)

Geothermal vents

b)

Chemical bonds in glucose

c)

The sun

d)

Earth's magnetic field

44.

What do photoautotrophs do with the energy they receive from the sun?

a)

Use it in photosynthesis to make glucose

b)

Use it to increase cellular entropy

c)

Use it to combust ATP directly

d)

Use it to power glycolysis only

45.

Why are glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation described as "highly conserved" across all domains of life, and what does this imply about evolution?

a)

They evolved independently in each lineage; implies frequent reinvention

b)

They are found across life forms largely unchanged; implies early origin and inheritance from a common ancestor

c)

They are unique to eukaryotes; implies recent evolution

d)

They only occur in bacteria; implies horizontal transfer only

46.

Which equation best represents photosynthesis as presented, including reactants and products powered by sunlight?

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O —sun→ C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 —sun→ 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6O2 + C6H12O6 —sun→ 6CO2 + 6H2O

d)

6CO2 + 6O2 —sun→ C6H12O6 + 6H2O

47.

What is stored in a glucose molecule produced by photosynthesis?

a)

Genetic information

b)

Energy

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Iron

48.

According to the material, in which type of organisms did photosynthesis first evolve?

a)

Eukaryotic plant cells

b)

Animals

c)

Prokaryotic organisms

d)

Fungi

49.

Which statement best explains how cyanobacteria impacted early Earth?

a)

They removed oxygen from the atmosphere, preventing iron oxidation.

b)

They generated oxygen as a waste product, increasing atmospheric oxygen.

c)

They produced methane that rusted iron in oceans.

d)

They consumed sunlight, reducing oxygen levels.

50.

What do banded iron formations indicate about ancient oceans, and how did they form according to the text?

a)

Oceans lacked iron; bands formed from volcanic ash.

b)

Oceans had dissolved iron; oxygen from cyanobacteria oxidized iron causing it to sink and form bands.

c)

Oceans were rich in oxygen; iron bands formed from tidal action.

d)

Oceans had no microbes; iron bands formed by evaporation.

51.

Which theory explains the origin of chloroplasts in eukaryotic plant cells?

a)

Chemiosmotic theory

b)

Fluid mosaic theory

c)

Endosymbiotic theory

d)

Gene flow theory

52.

Which statement about the relationship between prokaryotic photosynthetic pathways and eukaryotic photosynthesis is supported by the material?

a)

Eukaryotic photosynthesis evolved independently and shares no features with prokaryotes.

b)

Prokaryotic photosynthetic pathways were the foundation of eukaryotic photosynthesis.

c)

Eukaryotes created prokaryotic photosynthesis through horizontal gene transfer.

d)

Prokaryotic photosynthesis was derived from plant chloroplasts.

53.

Where is the stroma located within a chloroplast, according to the description?

a)

Inside the thylakoid lumen

b)

Between the outer chloroplast membrane and the cell wall

c)

The fluid within the inner chloroplast membrane and outside the thylakoid

d)

Embedded within the grana

54.

In the simple chloroplast diagram, which structures should be labeled in addition to the stroma?

a)

Mitochondria and nucleus

b)

Thylakoid and grana

c)

Cell wall and plasma membrane

d)

Ribosome and centriole

55.

Which location within the chloroplast is the site of the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions)?

a)

Thylakoid lumen

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Stroma

d)

Grana

56.

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, where are chlorophyll pigments and electron transport proteins organized?

a)

Mitochondrial cristae

b)

Thylakoid membranes within grana

c)

Stroma matrix

d)

Cytosol

57.

Which outputs are produced by the light-dependent reactions?

a)

Glucose, CO2, NAD+

b)

Oxygen, ATP, NADPH

c)

Water, ADP, NADP+

d)

Pyruvate, ATP, FADH2

58.

Photophosphorylation in chloroplasts directly results in the formation of which molecule?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

NADP+

d)

Glucose

59.

During photosynthesis, water splitting at the start of the ETC provides which component?

a)

Electrons to replace those lost from photosystem II

b)

Carbon dioxide for Calvin cycle

c)

Protons to neutralize the stroma

d)

Oxygen to reduce NADP+

60.

How many photons are needed to move one electron all the way through the photosynthetic ETC?

a)

One photon hitting PSII

b)

Two photons: one hits PSI and one hits PSII

c)

Three photons: two PSI and one PSII

d)

Four photons: two PSI and two PSII

61.

Movement of electrons through the ETC pumps H+ into which space, making it more acidic?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid lumen

c)

Cytosol

d)

Intermembrane space

62.

What is the final electron acceptor in the photosynthetic ETC?

a)

O2 forming water

b)

NADH

c)

NADP+ becomes NADPH

d)

FAD

63.

As electrons are passed along the ETC, the molecule that loses the electron is described as being what?

a)

Reduced

b)

Oxidized

c)

Hydrolyzed

d)

Phosphorylated

64.

What is the role of ATP synthase during the light reactions?

a)

Oxidizes NADPH to produce NADP+

b)

Allows H+ to flow to generate ATP from ADP + P

c)

Splits water to provide electrons

d)

Pumps protons into the stroma

65.

Where do ATP and NADPH go after being produced by the light-dependent reactions?

a)

Back to photosystem II

b)

Into the Calvin cycle

c)

Exported out of the chloroplast

d)

Used to split more water

66.

What is the purpose of ATP and NADPH produced in the light reactions?

a)

Store energy to power the Calvin cycle

b)

Provide electrons to PSII

c)

Produce oxygen

d)

Fix carbon directly into glucose

67.

Doubling the number of thylakoids in a chloroplast would most directly increase which outcome?

a)

Rate of CO2 diffusion into the stroma

b)

Production of glucose via more ETC enzymes contributing to Calvin cycle

c)

Amount of water entering the chloroplast

d)

Number of ribosomes in the stroma

68.

Which statement best describes thylakoids and grana?

a)

Thylakoids are membrane sacs arranged in stacks called grana

b)

Grana are stroma-filled spaces within the inner membrane

c)

Thylakoids are cytosolic vesicles with DNA

d)

Grana are protein complexes embedded in PSI

69.

During the light reactions, what happens to O2 generated from water splitting?

a)

It becomes part of glucose

b)

It is released into the air

c)

It remains dissolved in the stroma to reduce NADP+

d)

It enters PSI as an electron donor

70.

Which photosystem’s pigments re-energize electrons after they pass through part of the ETC?

a)

Photosystem I

b)

Photosystem II

c)

Cytochrome c

d)

ATP synthase

71.

What is the membrane that embeds photosystems I and II and connects them via the ETC?

a)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

b)

Nuclear envelope

c)

Thylakoid membrane

d)

Plasma membrane

72.

Establishment of an electrochemical gradient of protons across the thylakoid membrane separates which regions?

a)

Cytosol from nucleus

b)

Stroma (low H+) from thylakoid lumen (high H+)

c)

Mitochondrial matrix from intermembrane space

d)

Grana from stroma

73.

Which balanced overall equation best represents aerobic cellular respiration in eukaryotes?

a)

Glucose + 6 Oxygen → 6 Water + 6 Carbon Dioxide + ATP

b)

Glucose + Oxygen → Alcohol + Carbon Dioxide + ATP

c)

6 Carbon Dioxide + 6 Water → Glucose + Oxygen + ATP

d)

Glucose → Lactic Acid + ATP

74.

In a eukaryotic cell, the majority of cellular respiration occurs in which organelle?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Nucleus

75.

Which statement correctly describes the role of the electron transport chain (ETC) in cellular respiration?

a)

It breaks glucose into two pyruvate molecules.

b)

It transfers electrons from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen and helps create a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

c)

It converts carbon dioxide into sugars.

d)

It directly produces glucose from ATP.

76.

During cellular respiration, what is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic organisms?

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide

77.

What structural feature of mitochondria increases ATP production efficiency by creating more surface area for the ETC?

a)

Outer membrane pores

b)

Cristae (folding of the inner membrane)

c)

Matrix granules

d)

Smooth outer membrane

78.

A patient’s mitochondria resemble diagram A (smooth inner membrane) rather than diagram B (highly folded). Which symptom is most likely and why?

a)

High energy levels due to more membranes

b)

Very tired, low energy because less inner membrane surface area reduces ATP production

c)

Elevated oxygen levels because ETC stops using oxygen

d)

Increased glucose storage due to excess ATP

79.

Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?

a)

Mitochondrial matrix

b)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

Cytosol

d)

Intermembrane space

80.

Glycolysis begins with glucose and produces which immediate end product(s)?

a)

Acetyl-CoA only

b)

Two pyruvate molecules, ATP, and NADH

c)

Carbon dioxide and water

d)

Lactate and ethanol

81.

What is the primary use of the energy released from glucose during cellular respiration according to the material?

a)

To make sucrose

b)

To power photosynthesis

c)

To make molecules of ATP

d)

To produce GA3P

82.

Which molecules deliver electrons to the ETC in cellular respiration?

a)

ATP and ADP

b)

NADH and FADH2

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

Glucose and oxygen

83.

In the context of aerobic respiration, where does pyruvate go after glycolysis and what is its purpose?

a)

It stays in the cytosol to accept electrons.

b)

It enters the mitochondrion to be oxidized further, contributing to the Krebs cycle and ETC.

c)

It is excreted from the cell.

d)

It becomes GA3P for the Calvin cycle.

84.

Which statement best explains why chemiosmosis in mitochondria is essential for ATP synthesis?

a)

It uses light to directly make ATP.

b)

The proton gradient across the inner membrane drives ATP synthase to convert ADP and inorganic phosphate into ATP.

c)

It splits glucose into two molecules.

d)

It transports oxygen into the matrix.

85.

Which statement best describes the general purpose of the Krebs cycle in cellular respiration?

a)

To directly synthesize the majority of ATP

b)

To make high-energy molecules to be passed to the electron transport chain (ETC)

c)

To break down ATP into ADP and phosphate

d)

To pump protons across the outer mitochondrial membrane

86.

Which set lists three important molecules made during the Krebs cycle according to the material?

a)

ATP, NADH2, FADH

b)

FADH2, ATP, NADH2

c)

CO2, H2O, ATP

d)

Glucose, NADH, Pyruvate

87.

Where do NADH2 and FADH2 go after being produced in the Krebs cycle, and what do they carry?

a)

To the cytosol carrying protons

b)

To ATP synthase carrying oxygen

c)

To the electron transport chain carrying electrons

d)

Remain in the Krebs cycle carrying carbon dioxide

88.

What waste product is released during the Krebs cycle that plants utilize?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Ammonia

89.

As electrons are transferred down the ETC, H+ ions are pumped into which space of the mitochondria, establishing an electrochemical gradient?

a)

Mitochondrial matrix

b)

Intermembrane space

c)

Outer membrane

d)

Cytosol

90.

What is the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain?

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen

91.

Protons flow back across the inner mitochondrial membrane through which enzyme?

a)

ATP synthase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Rubisco

d)

DNA polymerase

92.

In the context of membrane transport, chemiosmosis is best described as which type of process?

a)

Active transport using ATP directly

b)

Facilitated diffusion driven by a proton gradient

c)

Simple diffusion of electrons

d)

Endocytosis of glucose

93.

The process of making ATP by joining ADP and inorganic phosphate as protons flow through ATP synthase is called what?

a)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Photophosphorylation

d)

Glycolysis

94.

According to the table, how many net ATP per glucose are made by the electron transport chain via oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

2

b)

4 (total, two are used)

c)

32

d)

36

95.

During glycolysis, what type of phosphorylation occurs and how many net ATP per glucose are produced?

a)

Oxidative; 32

b)

Substrate-level; 4 total, two are used

c)

Substrate-level; 2

d)

Oxidative; 2

96.

Which statement correctly matches the cellular respiration process with its phosphorylation type?

a)

Krebs cycle — Oxidative

b)

Electron transport chain — Substrate level

c)

Glycolysis — Oxidative

d)

Krebs cycle — Substrate level

97.

What does phosphorylation mean in simple terms, as stated in the material?

a)

To remove a phosphate from a molecule

b)

To add a phosphate to a molecule

c)

To oxidize glucose

d)

To reduce oxygen

98.

Which molecules are identified as key terms associated with the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation in the material?

a)

Oxygen, Water, ATP synthase, Chemiosmosis, Oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Glucose, Pyruvate, Rubisco, NADPH

c)

Carbon dioxide, Chlorophyll, Thylakoid, Stroma

d)

Lactate, Fermentation, Cytoskeleton, Actin

99.

According to the essential knowledge, where does the Krebs cycle take place within the mitochondrion?

a)

Intermembrane space

b)

Inner membrane

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Outer membrane

100.

What is broken in ATP to release energy for cellular processes, as indicated by the diagram prompt?

a)

The bond between ribose and adenine

b)

The bond between the ADP and the phosphate (P)

c)

The hydrogen bond with water

d)

The peptide bond between amino acids

101.

Which statement best describes fermentation in cellular respiration?

a)

It requires oxygen and produces high ATP yields.

b)

It does not require oxygen and produces organic molecules such as alcohol and lactic acid.

c)

It uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.

d)

It only occurs in mitochondria of eukaryotic cells.

102.

What is the defining difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration does not use oxygen; anaerobic uses oxygen.

b)

Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor in an ETC; anaerobic does not use oxygen.

c)

Both use oxygen but at different points in glycolysis.

d)

Anaerobic respiration yields more ATP than aerobic.

103.

Which process generally makes more ATP?

a)

Anaerobic respiration

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Aerobic respiration

d)

Fermentation

104.

Yeast primarily perform which type of fermentation, and what are the products?

a)

Lactic acid fermentation producing lactic acid only

b)

Alcoholic fermentation producing ethanol and CO2

c)

Alcoholic fermentation producing lactic acid and ATP

d)

Lactic acid fermentation producing ethanol and CO2

105.

Humans primarily use which type of fermentation under low-oxygen conditions, and what is the product?

a)

Alcoholic fermentation; ethanol

b)

Lactic acid fermentation; lactic acid

c)

Aerobic respiration; CO2

d)

Anaerobic respiration; ATP

106.

During fermentation, why is the conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid or alcohol essential for glycolysis to continue?

a)

It generates additional ATP directly.

b)

It regenerates NAD+ from NADH, allowing glycolysis to continue.

c)

It increases oxygen availability.

d)

It forms a proton gradient for the ETC in mitochondria.

107.

Is it possible for anaerobic prokaryotes to use an electron transport chain (ETC)?

a)

No, ETC requires oxygen and mitochondria.

b)

Yes; some use molecules other than oxygen as a final electron acceptor, but they generally produce less ATP than aerobic respiration.

c)

Yes; they use chloroplasts to establish a proton gradient.

d)

No; fermentation replaces all ETC functions.

108.

Prokaryotes do not have mitochondria or chloroplasts. How can they establish a proton gradient to make ATP?

a)

By using membrane-bound organelles.

b)

By utilizing infolding of their cell membranes.

c)

By relying on chloroplast thylakoids.

d)

By storing protons in the nucleus.