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Fluids & Electrolytes — NCLEX Practice (30 Questions)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is assessing a client with fluid volume deficit (FVD). Which finding requires immediate action?

a)

Dry mucous membranes

b)

Weak, thready pulse of 120 bpm

c)

Poor skin turgor

d)

Fatigue and thirst

2.

Which is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s overall fluid balance?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Daily weights

d)

Intake and output

3.

Which action should the nurse avoid when caring for a client with fluid volume overload (FVE)?

a)

Restrict fluids as ordered

b)

Encourage ambulation

c)

Monitor lung sounds every 2 hours

d)

Encourage high-sodium snacks

4.

A patient with CHF has 2+ pitting edema, crackles in both lung bases, and an O2 sat of 91%. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Apply oxygen at 2 L/min

b)

Administer prescribed diuretic

c)

Elevate the head of the bed

d)

Obtain a stat chest X-ray

5.

Which finding indicates effective treatment for a client with FVE?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Weight loss and clear breath sounds

c)

Distended neck veins

d)

Bounding pulse

6.

Which statement by a client with hyponatremia indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will avoid drinking too much water.

b)

I can eat canned soup to help with sodium levels.

c)

I will report confusion or seizures right away.

d)

I understand my IV fluid will help raise sodium levels.

7.

A client with serum sodium of 128 mEq/L is confused and drowsy. Which is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Restrict sodium intake

b)

Administer 3% normal saline as ordered

c)

Encourage oral fluids

d)

Provide hypotonic IV fluids

8.

Which lab result requires the nurse to hold a potassium supplement?

a)

3.2 mEq/L

b)

4.0 mEq/L

c)

5.6 mEq/L

d)

3.8 mEq/L

9.

A client on furosemide reports leg cramps and weakness. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?

a)

Check serum potassium level

b)

Assess lung sounds

c)

Check daily weight

d)

Assess sodium level

10.

Which food should the nurse avoid recommending to a client with hyperkalemia?

a)

Spinach

b)

Carrots

c)

Apples

d)

White rice

11.

Which statement indicates understanding of potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone)?

a)

I will eat plenty of bananas.

b)

I’ll avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.

c)

I should drink extra fluids daily.

d)

I can take this with over-the-counter potassium pills.

12.

The nurse notes a client with potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. Which action takes highest priority?

a)

Administer IV potassium slowly as prescribed

b)

Restrict potassium-rich foods

c)

Notify the provider only if muscle weakness occurs

d)

Discontinue cardiac monitoring

13.

Which finding suggests hypercalcemia?

a)

Chvostek’s sign

b)

Muscle weakness and constipation

c)

Tetany and tremors

d)

Tingling around the mouth

14.

Which nursing intervention should the nurse avoid when managing a client with hypercalcemia?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Encourage fluids

c)

Administer phosphorus supplements

d)

Restrict movement and bed rest

15.

A client with a history of parathyroid surgery develops numbness around the mouth and carpal spasms. Which electrolyte imbalance is suspected?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypokalemia

16.

Which assessment finding supports hypomagnesemia?

a)

Weak, flaccid muscles

b)

Shallow respirations

c)

Hyperactive reflexes and tremors

d)

Vasodilation and flushing

17.

The nurse notes a magnesium level of 6.0 mg/dL and shallow respirations. Which is the priority intervention?

a)

Administer calcium gluconate

b)

Encourage magnesium-rich foods

c)

Prepare for dialysis

d)

Encourage deep breathing

18.

Which statement should the nurse correct regarding hypomagnesemia teaching?

a)

I should eat spinach and nuts.

b)

I will avoid alcohol.

c)

I will take magnesium supplements as prescribed.

d)

I can take antacids daily to help increase my magnesium.

19.

A client with chronic kidney disease has phosphate of 5.2 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Increase dairy products

b)

Avoid phosphate-containing laxatives

c)

Increase antacid use

d)

Eat more beef and chicken

20.

A client with hypophosphatemia has muscle weakness and confusion. Which action is the priority?

a)

Notify provider and administer phosphate supplements

b)

Encourage ambulation

c)

Restrict calcium-rich foods

d)

Monitor urine output

21.

Which IV solution should the nurse avoid giving to a client with cerebral edema?

a)

3% sodium chloride

b)

0.9% sodium chloride

c)

0.45% sodium chloride

d)

D5W

22.

Which IV solution is isotonic?

a)

0.9% NaCl

b)

D5 ½ NS

c)

3% NaCl

d)

0.45% NaCl

23.

A client receiving IV therapy develops redness, warmth, and a palpable cord along the vein. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Stop the infusion

b)

Apply warm compress

c)

Flush with 10 mL normal saline

d)

Continue the IV at a slower rate

24.

Which nursing action should the nurse avoid when extravasation is suspected?

a)

Stop the infusion immediately

b)

Leave the IV catheter in place

c)

Apply heat to the affected area

d)

Notify the provider

25.

Which client is at highest risk for fluid volume overload?

a)

25-year-old marathon runner

b)

45-year-old on IV isotonic fluids post-surgery

c)

60-year-old with CHF receiving IV fluids rapidly

d)

30-year-old NPO for surgery

26.

A client with dehydration has BP 86/50 mm Hg and HR 122 bpm. Which IV fluid should the nurse anticipate?

a)

0.9% NaCl

b)

D5W

c)

3% NaCl

d)

0.45% NaCl

27.

Which symptom would the nurse expect in a patient with hypernatremia?

a)

Hypertension and bounding pulse

b)

Dry mouth and poor skin turgor

c)

Muscle spasms and tremors

d)

Edema and confusion

28.

Which finding should the nurse not ignore in a client with hyponatremia?

a)

Confusion

b)

Full bounding pulse

c)

Seizure activity

d)

Fatigue

29.

A client with potassium 6.2 mEq/L has peaked T-waves on ECG. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Prepare to administer calcium gluconate

b)

Encourage potassium-rich foods

c)

Monitor urine output

d)

Hold loop diuretics

30.

Which nursing assessment is most appropriate before starting any IV infusion?

a)

Check blood pressure

b)

Verify vein patency and assess for infiltration

c)

Ask about pain level

d)

Review the medication order

31.

A patient presents with a weak, thready pulse and tachycardia. What is the priority for hypovolemia?

a)

Administer high sodium foods

b)

Assess for poor perfusion

c)

Monitor for hypervolemia

d)

Encourage fluid intake

32.

Which of the following best reflects true fluid balance in a patient?

a)

Intake and output

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Daily weights

d)

Heart rate

33.

Which type of foods should be avoided to prevent worsening fluid overload?

a)

Low sodium foods

b)

High potassium foods

c)

High protein foods

d)

High sodium foods

34.

What intervention improves oxygenation before giving medications?

a)

Increasing IV fluids

b)

Administering oxygen

c)

Positioning the patient

d)

Giving diuretics

35.

Which of the following indicates effective diuresis?

a)

Weight gain and clear lungs

b)

Weight loss and clear lungs

c)

Weight loss and crackles

d)

Weight gain and crackles

36.

Which of the following is incorrect teaching regarding sodium content in foods?

a)

Fresh fruits are high in sodium

b)

Canned foods are high in sodium

c)

Fresh vegetables are high in sodium

d)

Canned foods are low in sodium

37.

What is the effect of 3% saline on serum sodium and cerebral swelling?

a)

Decreases serum sodium and increases swelling

b)

Increases serum sodium and reduces swelling

c)

Decreases serum sodium and reduces swelling

d)

Increases serum sodium and increases swelling

38.

Why should K+ >5.0 supplements be held?

a)

To prevent dehydration

b)

To prevent cardiac arrhythmias

c)

To prevent hypokalemia

d)

To prevent hypernatremia

39.

What does hypokalemia cause?

a)

Cramps and weakness

b)

Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hyperreflexia

40.

Which food should be avoided in hyperkalemia?

a)

Spinach

b)

Apples

c)

Rice

d)

Chicken

41.

Why should salt substitutes be avoided in hyperkalemia?

a)

They contain sodium

b)

They contain potassium

c)

They contain calcium

d)

They contain magnesium

42.

Why should potassium be replaced carefully?

a)

To prevent arrhythmias

b)

To prevent dehydration

c)

To prevent hypertension

d)

To prevent hypocalcemia

43.

What do depressed reflexes and constipation indicate?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypernatremia

44.

What is a risk of immobility related to calcium?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

45.

What do Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs indicate?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypokalemia

46.

What does low magnesium cause?

a)

Decreased reflexes

b)

Hyperexcitability and increased reflexes

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypotension

47.

What reverses magnesium toxicity?

a)

Potassium chloride

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Sodium bicarbonate

d)

Magnesium sulfate

48.

Why should antacids be avoided in excess?

a)

They can raise potassium

b)

They can raise sodium

c)

They can raise magnesium

d)

They can raise calcium

49.

What should be avoided in hyperphosphatemia?

a)

Phosphate-containing products

b)

Calcium-containing products

c)

Sodium-containing products

d)

Potassium-containing products

50.

Why is phosphate replaced?

a)

To restore muscle/neurologic function

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To decrease edema

d)

To prevent arrhythmias

51.

What is the effect of D5W on cerebral edema?

a)

Becomes hypertonic and reduces edema

b)

Becomes hypotonic and worsens edema

c)

Becomes isotonic and has no effect

d)

Becomes hypotonic and reduces edema

52.

Which solution is isotonic?

a)

0.45% NaCl

b)

0.9% NaCl

c)

D5W

d)

3% NaCl

53.

What should be done immediately to prevent further injury in extravasation?

a)

Stop infusion

b)

Apply heat

c)

Elevate limb

d)

Flush IV

54.

What effect does heat have on tissue damage in extravasation?

a)

Reduces damage

b)

Worsens damage

c)

No effect

d)

Heals tissue

55.

What is the risk of CHF with IV fluids?

a)

Low overload risk

b)

High overload risk

c)

No risk

d)

Dehydration

56.

What is the effect of isotonic fluids in hypovolemia?

a)

Decrease intravascular volume

b)

Restore intravascular volume

c)

Increase potassium

d)

Decrease sodium

57.

What does fluid deficit cause?

a)

Edema

b)

Dry mucosa and poor turgor

c)

Hypertension

d)

Tachycardia

58.

What is a medical emergency related to severe hyponatremia?

a)

Arrhythmias

b)

Seizures

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hyperreflexia

59.

How does calcium gluconate protect the myocardium?

a)

From sodium effects

b)

From potassium effects

c)

From magnesium effects

d)

From phosphate effects

60.

What must be ensured before IV infusion?

a)

IV site is patent and free of infiltration

b)

IV site is warm

c)

IV site is red

d)

IV site is swollen