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infection control study

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Benjamin is studying medicine and wants to understand why certain diseases occur. His professor asks him, "What is the term for the study of the cause or origin of a disease?"

a)

Etiology is the study of the cause or origin of a disease.

b)

Etiology is the study of the symptoms of a disease.

c)

Etiology is the process of treating a disease.

d)

Etiology is the classification of diseases based on severity.

2.

In a small town, Daniel notices that a certain disease is always present among the residents, but it doesn't cause sudden outbreaks. What term best describes this constant presence of the disease in the town?

a)

Endemic refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area.

b)

Endemic refers to a disease that spreads rapidly across countries and continents.

c)

Endemic refers to the complete absence of a disease in a population.

d)

Endemic refers to a disease that occurs only once in a population and never returns.

3.

In a small town, Avery noticed that suddenly, many more people than usual were getting sick with the flu over a short period of time. What is this situation called?

a)

Epidemic is the occurrence of more cases of a disease than expected in a given area or among a specific group of people over a particular period of time.

b)

Epidemic is the complete eradication of a disease from the world.

c)

Epidemic is the occurrence of a disease only in animals.

d)

Epidemic is the normal presence of a disease within a given geographic area.

4.

During a global health crisis, Daniel reads in the news that a certain disease has spread across several countries and is affecting a large number of people worldwide. What is this situation called?

a)

Pandemic is an epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.

b)

Pandemic is a disease that affects only animals in a specific region.

c)

Pandemic is a minor illness that occurs seasonally in one city.

d)

Pandemic is a rare disease that affects only a few individuals in a village.

5.

Michael visits the doctor with a persistent cough. After several tests, the doctor tells him that the cause of his illness cannot be identified. What type of disease does Michael most likely have?

a)

Idiopathic disease is a disease whose cause is unknown or not identified.

b)

Idiopathic disease is a disease caused by bacteria.

c)

Idiopathic disease is a disease that is always inherited genetically.

d)

Idiopathic disease is a disease that only affects children.

6.

Aria has been diagnosed with a disorder after doctors found physical changes in her brain tissue. What type of disorder does Aria have?

a)

Organic disorder is a disorder caused by a physical or physiological change to some tissue or organ of the body.

b)

Organic disorder is a disorder caused by psychological stress only.

c)

Organic disorder is a disorder that affects only mental processes without any physical basis.

d)

Organic disorder is a temporary emotional disturbance with no physical symptoms.

7.

Michael visits his doctor because he has been experiencing persistent stomach pain. After several tests, the doctor finds no detectable physical or structural abnormality, but Michael continues to have symptoms. What type of disorder is Michael most likely experiencing?

a)

Functional or non-organic disorder is a disorder where there is no detectable physical or structural abnormality, but the person experiences symptoms.

b)

Functional or non-organic disorder is a disorder caused by bacterial infection.

c)

Functional or non-organic disorder is a disorder with clear genetic mutations.

d)

Functional or non-organic disorder is a disorder always associated with visible tissue damage.

8.

Grace underwent a routine medical procedure and later developed a new health condition as a result of the treatment. What is the term for this type of illness?

a)

Iatrogenic illness is a condition that is caused by medical treatment or diagnostic procedures.

b)

Iatrogenic illness is a disease that is inherited genetically.

c)

Iatrogenic illness is a condition caused by environmental pollution.

d)

Iatrogenic illness is a disorder resulting from poor nutrition.

9.

Grace visits a doctor after experiencing fever and cough. The doctor explains that she has an infectious disease. What does this mean?

a)

Infectious disease is a disease caused by the invasion of the body by pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites.

b)

Infectious disease is a genetic disorder passed from parents to offspring.

c)

Infectious disease is a condition caused by physical injury to the body.

d)

Infectious disease is a disease caused by a deficiency of vitamins or minerals.

10.

During a prenatal checkup, Scarlett learns that her baby has a medical condition that is present at or before birth. What is this type of condition called?

a)

Congenital disorder is a medical condition that is present at or before birth.

b)

Congenital disorder is a disease that develops only in old age.

c)

Congenital disorder is a condition caused by external injuries after birth.

d)

Congenital disorder is a temporary illness that occurs during adolescence.

11.

Benjamin was admitted to a hospital for surgery. A few days after the procedure, he developed an infection that he did not have before being hospitalized. What is this type of infection called?

a)

Nosocomial infection is an infection acquired in a hospital or healthcare facility.

b)

Nosocomial infection is a genetic disorder present from birth.

c)

Nosocomial infection is an infection caused by eating contaminated food.

d)

Nosocomial infection is a type of allergy caused by pollen.

12.

Liam is a nurse working in a hospital. He is careful to follow a set of infection control practices to prevent the transmission of diseases when coming into contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. What is this set of practices called?

a)

Standard Precaution is a set of infection control practices used to prevent transmission of diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

b)

Standard Precaution is a dietary guideline for maintaining healthy nutrition in hospitals.

c)

Standard Precaution refers to the use of personal protective equipment only during surgical procedures.

d)

Standard Precaution is a set of rules for handling hazardous chemicals in laboratories.

13.

William is a nurse working in a hospital. He is instructed to use certain infection control practices to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with patients or their environment. What are these practices called?

a)

Contact Precautions are infection control practices used to prevent transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or the patient's environment.

b)

Contact Precautions are measures to prevent the spread of airborne diseases through respiratory droplets.

c)

Contact Precautions are guidelines for handling hazardous chemicals in a laboratory setting.

d)

Contact Precautions are procedures for sterilizing surgical instruments before use.

14.

Luna is working in a hospital where a patient has been diagnosed with influenza. To prevent the spread of the infection to other patients and staff, Luna follows specific infection control practices. What is the term for these practices?

a)

Droplet Precaution is a set of infection control practices used to prevent the spread of pathogens transmitted through respiratory droplets.

b)

Droplet Precaution is a method to prevent the spread of diseases through contaminated food and water.

c)

Droplet Precaution is a technique to sterilize surgical instruments before use.

d)

Droplet Precaution is a guideline for handling hazardous chemicals in the laboratory.

15.

Evelyn is a nurse working in a hospital where a patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis, an infection that can spread through the air. What precautions should Evelyn follow to prevent the transmission of this infection to others?

a)

Airborne Precautions are infection control practices used to prevent transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air.

b)

Airborne Precautions are measures to prevent the spread of infections through contaminated water.

c)

Airborne Precautions are steps taken to avoid foodborne illnesses in healthcare settings.

d)

Airborne Precautions are guidelines for handling sharp instruments safely.

16.

Rohan comes home after playing outside and his hands are dirty. What should he do to remove dirt, germs, and prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Handwashing is the act of cleaning one's hands with soap and water to remove dirt, germs, and prevent the spread of infection.

b)

Handwashing is the process of drying hands with a towel after eating.

c)

Handwashing is the act of applying lotion to keep hands soft.

d)

Handwashing is the act of wearing gloves to protect hands from dirt.

17.

During an outbreak investigation, Harper is trying to identify the source of an infectious disease. She learns that the infectious agent normally lives and multiplies in certain animals and soil. In epidemiology, what is this source called?

a)

A reservoir is any person, animal, plant, soil, or substance in which an infectious agent normally lives and multiplies.

b)

A reservoir is a medical device used to store vaccines before administration.

c)

A reservoir is a type of laboratory equipment used to measure blood pressure.

d)

A reservoir is a term for the process of sterilizing surgical instruments.

18.

Kai is learning about how diseases spread in his science class. His teacher asks, "What is the portal of exit in the context of infectious diseases?"

a)

Portal of exit is the path by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

b)

Portal of exit is the process by which a host becomes immune to a disease.

c)

Portal of exit is the method used to diagnose infectious diseases.

d)

Portal of exit is the site where pathogens enter the host body.

19.

During a biology class, Olivia asks her teacher how diseases like the flu can spread from one person to another. The teacher explains a key concept related to this process. What is the definition of the mode of transmission?

a)

Mode of transmission is the mechanism by which an infectious agent is spread from a reservoir to a susceptible host.

b)

Mode of transmission is the process of cell division in living organisms.

c)

Mode of transmission refers to the method of food digestion in the stomach.

d)

Mode of transmission is the way nutrients are absorbed by plants from the soil.

20.

Abigail is learning about how infections spread in her biology class. Her teacher asks her to explain what is meant by the term "portal of entry" in the context of infectious diseases.

a)

Portal of entry is the site through which microorganisms enter the susceptible host and cause disease/infection.

b)

Portal of entry is the process by which nutrients are absorbed in the intestine.

c)

Portal of entry refers to the exit route of waste products from the body.

d)

Portal of entry is the method by which oxygen enters the bloodstream.

21.

James is working in a hospital where there is an outbreak of a contagious disease. He is concerned about who might get infected. In this context, what does it mean to be a susceptible host?

a)

A susceptible host is a person or animal who is at risk of becoming infected by a disease.

b)

A susceptible host is a person who is immune to all diseases.

c)

A susceptible host is a type of bacteria that causes disease.

d)

A susceptible host is a medicine used to treat infections.

22.

Maya is learning about diseases in her science class. Her teacher asks her to define what an infectious agent is. Which of the following best describes an infectious agent?

a)

An infectious agent is a microorganism such as a virus, bacterium, parasite, or fungus that can cause disease.

b)

An infectious agent is a type of chemical that helps in digestion.

c)

An infectious agent is a non-living object used in laboratory experiments.

d)

An infectious agent is a nutrient required for plant growth.

23.

Mason has the flu and sneezes while talking to Mia, who is standing close by. Mia later develops flu symptoms. What type of transmission does this scenario describe?

a)

Direct transmission is the immediate transfer of an infectious agent from an infected host to a susceptible host without an intermediate object or person.

b)

Direct transmission is the transfer of an infectious agent through contaminated food or water.

c)

Direct transmission is the spread of disease via insects or animals acting as carriers.

d)

Direct transmission is the process of infection through airborne particles over long distances.

24.

Ava is sitting in a classroom when her classmate sneezes nearby without covering their mouth. Later, Ava learns about how certain diseases can spread in such situations. What is the term for the spread of pathogens in this scenario?

a)

Droplet transmission is the spread of pathogens through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.

b)

Droplet transmission is the spread of pathogens through contaminated food and water.

c)

Droplet transmission is the spread of pathogens by direct contact with infected surfaces.

d)

Droplet transmission is the spread of pathogens through insect bites.

25.

Liam touches a doorknob that was previously touched by someone with a cold. Later, he touches his face and catches the cold. What type of transmission is this?

a)

Indirect transmission is the spread of infection from one person to another through an intermediate object or person.

b)

Indirect transmission is the direct contact between two healthy individuals.

c)

Indirect transmission is the process of vaccination.

d)

Indirect transmission is the spread of infection only through air.

26.

Scarlett is in a hospital room where a patient with tuberculosis is being treated. The disease can spread even when Scarlett is not in direct contact with the patient, as the infectious agents remain in the air for long periods and distances. What type of transmission is this?

a)

Airborne transmission is the spread of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air.

b)

Airborne transmission is the spread of infectious agents through direct contact with contaminated surfaces.

c)

Airborne transmission is the spread of infectious agents by consuming contaminated food or water.

d)

Airborne transmission is the spread of infectious agents through insect bites.

27.

Grace attends a picnic where she eats food that was prepared earlier and left uncovered. Later, several people, including Grace, develop symptoms of food poisoning. What type of transmission is this an example of?

a)

Vehicle borne transmission is the transmission of infectious agents through contaminated inanimate objects such as food, water, or equipment.

b)

Vehicle borne transmission is the spread of infection through direct contact with an infected person.

c)

Vehicle borne transmission is the transmission of diseases by insects such as mosquitoes or flies.

d)

Vehicle borne transmission is the spread of infection through airborne particles like droplets or dust.

28.

Arjun is studying about how diseases spread. He learns that some infectious agents are transmitted through vectors such as mosquitoes, ticks, or fleas. What is this type of transmission called?

a)

Vector borne transmission is the transmission of infectious agents through vectors such as mosquitoes, ticks, or fleas.

b)

Vector borne transmission is the spread of diseases through direct contact with infected individuals.

c)

Vector borne transmission is the transfer of infections through contaminated food and water.

d)

Vector borne transmission is the transmission of diseases via airborne particles.

29.

Arjun is studying how diseases spread and observes that flies can carry pathogens from garbage to food surfaces without the pathogens multiplying or developing inside the flies. What type of transmission is this?

a)

Mechanical vector borne transmission is the passive transport of pathogens by a vector, without the pathogen undergoing development or multiplication in the vector.

b)

Mechanical vector borne transmission is when a pathogen multiplies and develops inside the vector before being transmitted.

c)

Mechanical vector borne transmission refers to the genetic modification of vectors to prevent disease transmission.

d)

Mechanical vector borne transmission is the process where pathogens are transmitted only through direct contact between hosts.

30.

Lily is studying how diseases spread. She learns that some pathogens are transmitted by vectors, and in these cases, the pathogen undergoes part of its life cycle or multiplies inside the vector before being passed to a new host. What is this type of transmission called?

a)

Biological vector borne transmission is the transmission of pathogens by a vector in which the pathogen undergoes part of its life cycle or multiplies before being transmitted to a new host.

b)

Biological vector borne transmission is the direct transfer of pathogens from one person to another without any intermediate.

c)

Biological vector borne transmission is the spread of pathogens through contaminated food and water only.

d)

Biological vector borne transmission is the transmission of pathogens by air without the involvement of any vector.

31.

When putting on your PPE what is the first piece of PPE that you put on?

a)

Googles

b)

Gown

c)

Mask

d)

Gloves

32.

When putting on your PPE what is the fourth piece of PPE that you put on?

a)

Googles

b)

Gown

c)

Mask

d)

Gloves

33.

When taking off your PPE what is the fourth piece of PPE that you take off?

a)

Googles

b)

Gown

c)

Mask

d)

Gloves

34.

The last protective equipment that the health care provider

removes before leaving a room observing airborne precautions

is/are the:

a)

Gloves

b)

Cap

c)

Mask

d)

Gown

35.

What does PPE stand for?

a)

Protective Priority Equipment

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Private Protective Equipment

d)

Proactive Protective Equipment

36.

Patients infected with a pathogen transmitted by large particle droplets would be placed on which isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

37.

Which Isolation does the rule, “you can maintain a distance of 3 feet without a mask” apply to?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

38.

Patients infected with a pathogen transmitted by large particle droplets would be placed on which isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

39.

Patients infected with a pathogen transmitted by small particle droplets would be placed on which isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

40.

Choosing PPE based on a procedure would be which type of precaution?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

41.

For your protection which type of isolation require gloves to be worn when coming into contact with the patient or contaminated surfaces?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

42.

This type of isolation allows for patients to have different diagnosis in the same room if 3 feet are maintained between them

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

43.

Immunocompromised patients are placed on which type of isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

44.

Pneumonia and Influenza patients are placed on which type of isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

45.

Patients with Staph or E-coli are placed on which type of Isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

46.

Tuberculosis patients are placed on which type of isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

47.

This type of isolation requires sterile PPE to enter the room.

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

48.

This type of isolation precaution requires a HEPA (N-95) mask to be worn before entering the room.

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

49.

Which type of isolation precaution is used strictly for protecting the patient?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

50.

The outside of any PPE is considered____.

a)

Sterile

b)

Clean

c)

Contaminated

51.

The inside of gown and gloves, and ties on mask are considered to be ____.

a)

Sterile

b)

Clean

c)

Contaminated

52.

If you acquire an infection while it the hospital it is called_______.

a)

Bad luck

b)

Not too bad

c)

Nosocomial infection

d)

Immunocompromised infection

53.

This type of isolation precaution requires a HEPA (N-95) mask to be worn before entering the room.

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

54.

If you acquire an infection while it the hospital it is called_______.

a)

Bad luck

b)

Not too bad

c)

Nosocomial infection

d)

Immunocompromised infection

55.

Patients with Staph or E-coli are placed on which type of Isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Protective

e)

Standard/Universal

56.

What is the first link in the chain of infection?

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Infectious agent

c)

Reservoir

d)

Mode of transmission

57.

Which of the following is considered a reservoir in the chain of infection?

a)

Hand sanitizer

b)

Human body

c)

Surgical mask

d)

Antibiotics

58.

Identify the term that describes the way an infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Mode of transmission

c)

Portal of exit

d)

Susceptible host

59.

Which of the following is a mode of transmission in the chain of infection?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Immune response

c)

Vaccination

d)

Antibiotic resistance

60.

Which federal agency is responsible for regulating safe workplace environments, including compliance with blood borne pathogen standards?

a)

A. DEA

b)

B. CLIA

c)

C. FDA

d)

D. OSHA

61.

You are an employee in a healthcare setting and you have noticed a couple phlebotomists are not using proper hand washing technique. What standards are being violated?

a)

A. CLIA

b)

B. OSHA

c)

C. JC

d)

D. NAACLS

62.

Sterilized instruments should be stored

a)

A. for a maximum of 90 days.

b)

B. with the tape side down to avoid susceptibility to contamination.

c)

C. for a maximum of 10 days.

d)

D. in a temperature controlled environment to prevent moisture accumulation.

63.

When performing routine quality control for an autoclave, how frequently should the safety valve be checked to ensure it is functioning properly?

a)

A. after each use

b)

B. daily

c)

C. monthly

d)

D. weekly

64.

Keeping contaminated equipment and supplies away from the medical assistant’s clothing to prevent pathogen transmission to the next patient is an example of which of the following?

a)

A. medical asepsis

b)

B. surgical asepsis

c)

C. sanitization

d)

D. disinfection

65.

Handling exudate from a patient is an example of which of the following modes of disease transmission?

a)

A. indirect

b)

B. direct

c)

C. airborne

d)

D. vector

66.

A patient notices the symbol above on the door and asks what it means. The medical assistant should tell the patient the symbol means

a)

A. isolation precautions required.

b)

B. radiation in use.

c)

C. emergency eye wash station.

d)

D. biohazard material present.

67.

Which of the following chemicals is most commonly used to disinfect work surfaces?

a)

A. benzalkonium chloride

b)

B. chlorhexidine gluconate

c)

C. isopropanol

d)

D. sodium hypochlorite

68.

Which of the following is the minimum PPE requirement when drawing ordered lab work on a patient with suspected HIV?

a)

A. gown, gloves, and mask

b)

B. gloves only

c)

C. mask only

d)

D. gloves and mask only

69.

As the medical assistant, you are assisting the primary provider with suture placement. What is the most important personal protective equipment you are going to gather for yourself and the provider?

a)

A. Sterile Gloves

b)

B. Face Mask

c)

C. Body Gown

d)

D. Shoe covers

70.

The medical assistant has received a requisition to collect a blood specimen on a patient infected with multidrug-resistant TB. When leaving the patient’s room the medical assistant should be sure to

a)

A. Remove her gloves, then the gown, then the mask.

b)

B. Remove her gown, then the mask, then the gloves.

c)

C. Remove her mask, then the gloves, then the gown.

d)

D. Remove her mask, then the gown, then the gloves.

71.

Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)?

a)

A. direct contact with the skin of infected persons

b)

B. direct contact with contaminated blood

c)

C. inhaling contaminated respiratory droplets of infected persons

d)

D. direct contact with contaminated feces

72.

When a phlebotomist enters an airborne isolation room, the appropriate PPE would be

a)

A. gloves, N95 respirator

b)

B. gown, gloves, N95 respirator

c)

C. gown, gloves, mask

d)

D. gown, mask

73.

Which of the diseases listed below require contact precautions?

a)

A. Rubella, mumps, and pertussis

b)

B. Parovirus B19, streptococcal, and mycoplasma

c)

C. Neisseria meningitis, sepsis, and epiglottitis

d)

D. Clostridium difficile, escherichia coli, and pediculosis

74.

Which of the following personal protective equipment must be used when working with a patient suspected of having pertussis?

a)

A. surgical mask

b)

B. fluid resistant gown

c)

C. N95 respirator

d)

D. sterile gloves

75.

When working with a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), the ECG technician should

a)

A. take the precautions for a contact pathogen.

b)

B. use a special mask as it is an airborne pathogen.

c)

C. use the procedures for reverse isolation.

d)

D. use gloves and a mask if the patient is being treated.

76.

Which precautions would be used for a patient with Pulmonary TB?

a)

A. airborne

b)

B. droplet

c)

C. contact

d)

D. percutaneous

77.

In addition to usual PPE what would you add or replace before entering a patient's room with airborne precautions.

a)

A. Surgical mask

b)

B. N95 respirator

c)

C. Mask with face shield

d)

D. Full face/head mask

78.

How can direct contact transmission be prevented?

a)

Practicing good hand hygiene

b)

Eliminating standing water around homes

c)

Wearing face masks in crowded settings

d)

Using insect repellent

79.
Which of the following is NOT a vector of a disease? 
a)
ticks
b)
mosquitos
c)
rats
d)
viruses
80.

What is the main mode of transmission for respiratory infections like influenza?

a)

Respiratory droplet transmission

b)

Direct contact transmission

c)

Indirect contact transmission

d)

Vector-borne transmission

81.

What is significant about an infectious disease?

a)

It can be passed from person to person

b)

It cannot be passed from one person to another

82.

If a flu outbreak affects a small community, would that be considered a pandemic or an epidemic?

a)

Pandemic

b)

Epidemic

83.

This term is used when many people in a local area get sick at the same time.

a)

Epidemic

b)

Pandemic

c)

Diseases

d)

Pathogens