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rxam 3

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse notices a patient leaning forward and using accessory muscles to breathe. What is the priority nursing action? 

 

a)
Place the patient in the orthopneic position.
b)
Provide supplemental oxygen without assessment.
c)
Encourage the patient to lie flat.
d)
Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
2.

During a respiratory assessment, the nurse observes bluish lips and fingertips. What does this finding indicate? 

a)
Dehydration due to heat exposure.
b)
Cyanosis due to hypoxia.
c)
Allergic reaction to medication.
d)
Infection causing fever.
3.

The nurse hears high-pitched wheezing on auscultation in a patient with asthma. What does this indicate? 

a)
Airway narrowing from bronchospasm.
b)
Fluid accumulation in the lungs.
c)
Increased lung capacity due to hyperinflation.
d)
Normal airway function without obstruction.
4.

A COPD patient’s O₂ saturation is 95% on nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next? 

a)
Decrease the oxygen flow rate.
b)
Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
c)
Switch to a non-rebreather mask.
d)
Increase the oxygen flow rate.
5.

A nurse hears crackles at the lung bases in a patient with pneumonia. What is the most appropriate intervention? 

a)
Increase the patient's oxygen flow rate.
b)
Perform a chest X-ray right away.
c)
Administer antibiotics immediately.
d)
Encourage coughing, deep breathing, and ambulation.
6.

Which finding requires immediate provider notification in a patient recovering from tonsillectomy? 

a)
Severe throat pain.
b)
Low-grade fever.
c)
Nausea and vomiting.
d)
Frequent swallowing.
7.

A patient reports “a tickle in my throat” and hoarseness. What upper airway condition does the nurse suspect? 

a)
Laryngitis.
b)
Allergic Rhinitis
c)
Bronchitis
d)
Pharyngitis
8.

A nurse caring for a patient with pulmonary edema observes pink frothy sputum. What is the first action? 

a)
Place the patient in a prone position.
b)
Sit the patient upright and administer oxygen.
c)
Administer diuretics immediately.
d)
Give the patient a sedative.
9.

Which sputum characteristic should alert the nurse to a possible bacterial infection? 

a)
Clear and thin sputum with no odor.
b)
Frothy white sputum with a sweet smell.
c)
Thick yellow or green sputum with foul odor.
d)
Rusty brown sputum with a metallic taste.
10.

What is the correct use of an incentive spirometer after surgery? 

a)
Exhale quickly into the device.
b)
Hold your breath while using the device.
c)
Use the device only when feeling short of breath.
d)
Inhale slowly through the device.
11.

A patient’s ABG results show pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. What condition does this represent? 

a)
Compensated metabolic acidosis
b)
Respiratory alkalosis
c)
Respiratory acidosis.
d)
Metabolic acidosis
12.

The nurse identifies “barrel chest” and “clubbing” in a client. What condition does this suggest? 

a)
Pneumonia
b)
Lung cancer
c)
Asthma
d)
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
13.

A nurse auscultates stridor in a patient with throat swelling. What is the priority action? 

a)
Provide reassurance and wait for symptoms to resolve.
b)
Perform a throat examination to assess swelling.
c)
Call a rapid response; prepare for airway management.
d)
Administer oxygen and monitor vital signs.
14.

A patient with sinusitis reports facial pain that worsens when bending forward. What should the nurse do? 

a)
Suggest using ice packs on the face.
b)
Advise the patient to avoid all fluids.
c)
Apply warm compresses and encourage fluids.
d)
Prescribe antibiotics immediately.
15.

A nurse caring for a patient with influenza should implement which infection-control precaution? 

a)
Contact precautions.
b)
Standard precautions.
c)
Airborne precautions.
d)
Droplet precautions.
16.

What is the nurse’s first action when a patient with asthma suddenly stops wheezing and becomes drowsy? 

a)
Reassure the patient and monitor their breathing.
b)
Notify the provider immediately.
c)
Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
d)
Check the patient's oxygen saturation levels.
17.

A patient on an ACE inhibitor presents with tongue swelling and difficulty breathing. What should the nurse do first? 

a)
Administer antihistamines and monitor the patient.
b)
Encourage the patient to drink water.
c)
Wait for the physician to arrive before taking action.
d)
Administer oxygen and call a rapid response.
18.

What diagnostic test confirms tuberculosis infection? 

a)
Positive PPD test result.
b)
Negative chest x-ray findings.
c)
Positive blood test for HIV.
d)
Positive sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli.
19.

A patient with strep pharyngitis asks why antibiotics are necessary. What is the correct response? 

a)
Antibiotics are used to relieve pain and fever.
b)
Antibiotics will cure the strep throat immediately.
c)
Antibiotics are only needed for viral infections.
d)
Antibiotics prevent complications such as rheumatic fever.
20.

What should a nurse teach a patient using a corticosteroid inhaler? 

a)
Use the inhaler only when symptoms worsen.
b)
Store the inhaler in a humid place.
c)
Rinse mouth after each use.
d)
Take the inhaler with food for better absorption.
21.

What finding in a pneumonia patient suggests effective treatment? 

a)
Decreased crackles and improved oxygen saturation.
b)
Worsening crackles and improved chest pain.
c)
Stable crackles with unchanged oxygen levels.
d)
Increased crackles and decreased oxygen saturation.
22.

A patient with COPD eats only half of their meals due to dyspnea. What should the nurse recommend? 

a)
Large, infrequent, low-calorie meals.
b)
High-fat snacks between meals.
c)
Liquid diets only for hydration.
d)
Small, frequent, high-protein meals.
23.

The nurse notes a D-Dimer test ordered for a patient with shortness of breath. What condition is being ruled out? 

a)
Pulmonary embolism.
b)
Heart failure
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Asthma
24.

Which intervention helps prevent pneumonia in postoperative patients?

a)
Administer antibiotics immediately after surgery.
b)
Encourage early ambulation and use of incentive spirometer.
c)
Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of aspiration.
d)
Encourage patients to remain in bed for 48 hours.
25.

The nurse observes the patient’s trachea is deviated to the left after trauma. What does this indicate? 

a)
Normal tracheal position
b)
Possible pneumothorax.
c)
Possible lung contusion
d)
Tracheal stenosis
26.

What is the first sign of hypoxia a nurse may observe? 

a)
Cyanosis or bluish skin
b)
Increased heart rate
c)
Restlessness or agitation.
d)
Shortness of breath
27.

A patient with TB is being discharged. What is the most important teaching point? 

a)
Continue all prescribed medications for the full treatment period.
b)
Switch to over-the-counter medications after a month.
c)
Stop medications if side effects occur.
d)
Take medications only when symptoms are present.
28.

What nursing intervention is essential for patients receiving warfarin for PE? 

a)
Administer vitamin K as needed.
b)
Perform routine blood pressure checks.
c)
Increase dietary vitamin D intake.
d)
Monitor INR levels.
29.

What nursing action supports airway clearance in bronchitis? 

a)
Administer bronchodilators immediately.
b)
Encourage fluid intake of 2–3 L/day.
c)
Encourage bed rest for the patient.
d)
Limit fluid intake to 1 L/day.
30.

A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia who is confused and disoriented. What is the likely cause? 

a)
Dehydration
b)
Hypoxia.
c)
Medication side effects
d)
Anxiety
31.

Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention in a respiratory patient? 

a)
Wheezing with good air movement.
b)
Coughing with clear lung sounds.
c)
Increased respiratory rate with normal oxygen levels.
d)
Silent chest with no air movement.
32.

A patient with rhinitis asks for antibiotics. What should the nurse explain? 

a)
Antibiotics don’t treat viral infections like the common cold.
b)
Antibiotics can cure all types of infections.
c)
Rhinitis is always caused by bacteria.
d)
You should take antibiotics to prevent future colds.
33.

The nurse hears low-pitched snoring sounds in a COPD patient. What are these called? 

a)
Rhonchi.
b)
Stridor
c)
Crackles
d)
Wheezes
34.

What is the priority action for a patient with suspected epiglottitis? 

a)
Insert a breathing tube immediately.
b)
Administer antibiotics right away.
c)
Do not insert anything into the throat; call for emergency help.
d)
Perform a throat examination to assess the airway.
35.

A patient with pneumonia has a temperature of 102°F and thick sputum. What is the best nursing intervention? 

a)
Encourage bed rest only.
b)
Increase oral fluids.
c)
Administer antibiotics immediately.
d)
Provide a cool compress for fever.
36.

Why should a nurse avoid using nasal spray decongestants for more than three days? 

a)
To prevent rebound congestion.
b)
To improve overall respiratory function.
c)
To reduce nasal dryness.
d)
To enhance nasal airflow.
37.

What finding is characteristic of chronic bronchitis? 

a)
Productive cough lasting at least three months for two consecutive years.
b)
Cough with clear mucus for one month.
c)
Shortness of breath without cough.
d)
Dry cough lasting less than three months.
38.

A nurse caring for a TB patient should use which isolation precaution? 

a)
Contact precautions with gloves and gown.
b)
Droplet precautions with surgical mask.
c)
Standard precautions without any mask.
d)
Airborne precautions with N95 respirator.
39.

Which vaccine should an older adult with COPD receive to prevent respiratory complications? 

a)
Tetanus vaccine
b)
COVID-19 vaccine
c)
Influenza vaccine
d)
Pneumococcal vaccine.
40.

A nurse teaching smoking cessation uses the “Ask–Assess–Assist–Arrange” model. What is the first step? 

a)
Assist with finding a support group.
b)
Arrange follow-up appointments immediately.
c)
Ask about tobacco use.
d)
Assess the patient's readiness to quit.
41.

The nurse notes rust-colored sputum in a patient with fever and cough. What does this suggest? 

 

a)
Viral bronchitis
b)
Tuberculosis
c)
Lung cancer
d)
Streptococcus pneumoniae infection.
42.

What is the correct nursing action for a patient showing signs of pulmonary embolism? 

a)
Start intravenous antibiotics immediately.
b)
Elevate the head of bed and administer oxygen.
c)
Place the patient in a prone position and restrict movement.
d)
Administer a diuretic and monitor fluid intake.
43.

Why must a nurse avoid giving high-flow oxygen to a COPD patient? 

a)
It can improve their lung function.
b)
It is necessary for all patients with breathing difficulties.
c)
It helps prevent respiratory infections.
d)
It can suppress their respiratory drive.
44.

A patient reports facial tenderness and congestion after a dental infection. What condition is suspected? 

a)
Tooth abscess
b)
Allergic rhinitis
c)
Temporomandibular joint disorder
d)
Sinusitis
45.

Which assessment finding is a classic sign of pulmonary edema? 

a)
Frothy pink sputum.
b)
Dry cough without sputum.
c)
Clear yellow sputum.
d)
Thick green mucus.
46.

A nurse notes prolonged expiration in a patient with emphysema. What does this indicate? 

a)
Air trapping due to alveolar damage.
b)
Normal respiratory function without any abnormalities.
c)
Improved gas exchange efficiency in the alveoli.
d)
Increased lung capacity due to hyperinflation.
47.

What is the best nursing action when caring for a patient with a productive cough and green sputum? 

a)
Obtain a sputum sample for culture.
b)
Perform chest physiotherapy without further assessment.
c)
Encourage the patient to drink more fluids only.
d)
Administer cough suppressants immediately.
48.

A nurse observes a patient sitting forward, resting elbows on knees, and breathing rapidly. What position is this? 

a)
Orthopneic position.
b)
Lateral position
c)
Fowler's position
d)
Supine position
49.

What is the nurse’s next action if a patient with asthma reports increased shortness of breath despite using their rescue inhaler? 

a)
Suggest using a spacer with the inhaler.
b)
Advise the patient to rest and wait.
c)
Notify the provider immediately.
d)
Increase the dose of the rescue inhaler.
50.

The nurse hears a “death rattle” pattern of breathing in a hospice patient. What is this called? 

a)
Biot's respirations
b)
Apneustic breathing
c)
Death rattle
d)
Kussmaul respirations
51.

Which condition is associated with sudden shortness of breath after long travel or immobility? 

 

a)
Anxiety disorder
b)
Pulmonary embolism.
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Asthma attack
52.

A patient with pneumonia reports chest pain that worsens with deep breathing. What is the cause? 

a)
Muscle strain from coughing.
b)
Acid reflux irritation.
c)
Costochondritis due to inflammation.
d)
Pleuritic inflammation.
53.

Which statement indicates understanding of flu prevention teaching? 

a)
I will avoid crowded places during flu season.
b)
I’ll get the flu shot every year.
c)
I don’t think the flu shot is necessary every year.
d)
I believe washing hands is enough to prevent the flu.
54.

What is the main function of the respiratory system? 

a)
Breathing in and out air.
b)
Regulating body temperature.
c)
Producing sound for communication.
d)
Gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
55.

Why should nurses perform oral care daily for respiratory patients? 

a)
To improve taste sensation for patients.
b)
To enhance the patient's appetite.
c)
To provide comfort during meals.
d)
To reduce bacterial colonization and prevent infection.
56.

A nurse notes a patient with COPD using pursed-lip breathing. What is the purpose? 

a)
Prevents airway collapse during exhalation.
b)
Increases oxygen intake during inhalation.
c)
Reduces the work of breathing during rest.
d)
Enhances lung capacity during physical activity.
57.

What complication can result if pharyngitis caused by strep is untreated? 

a)
Rheumatic fever or glomerulonephritis.
b)
Bronchitis
c)
Ear infection
d)
Sinusitis
58.

What intervention helps reduce fatigue in patients with chronic respiratory disorders? 

a)
Increase physical activity levels.
b)
Use supplemental oxygen continuously.
c)
Avoid all forms of exercise.
d)
Space activities and allow rest periods.
59.

The nurse is caring for a patient with lung cancer. What symptom most strongly suggests disease progression? 

a)
Persistent dry cough and fatigue.
b)
Shortness of breath and chest pain.
c)
Frequent headaches and nausea.
d)
Hemoptysis and weight loss.
60.

A nurse notes a patient coughing up thick, sticky mucus. What nursing intervention is most appropriate? 

a)
Administer a cough suppressant.
b)
Encourage deep breathing exercises.
c)
Provide a humidifier for the room.
d)
Increase fluid intake.
61.

A patient’s ABG results are: 

pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. 

What condition does this indicate? 

a)
Metabolic acidosis.
b)
Respiratory alkalosis.
c)
Respiratory acidosis.
d)
Compensated metabolic alkalosis.
62.

A patient’s ABG results are: 

pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L. 

What condition does this show? 

a)
Respiratory acidosis.
b)
Metabolic alkalosis.
c)
Respiratory alkalosis.
d)
Metabolic acidosis.
63.

ABG results show: 

pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 44 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L. 

What is the interpretation? 

a)
Respiratory acidosis.
b)
Metabolic acidosis.
c)
Respiratory alkalosis.
d)
Metabolic alkalosis.
64.

A patient’s ABG shows: 

pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 29 mEq/L. 

What does this result suggest? 

a)
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
b)
Metabolic acidosis.
c)
Respiratory alkalosis.
d)
Compensated respiratory acidosis.
65.

A nurse reviews ABG results: 

pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L. 

What disorder is present? 

a)
Compensated respiratory alkalosis.
b)
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
c)
Metabolic alkalosis.
d)
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
66.

A COPD patient has ABG results: 

pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 31 mEq/L. 

How should this be interpreted? 

a)
Partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
b)
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
c)
Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis.
d)
Fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
67.

During a respiratory assessment, the nurse evaluates a patient’s breathing pattern, lung sounds, and chest symmetry. What is the main goal of this assessment? 

a)
To evaluate the patient's nutritional status.
b)
To identify any changes in respiratory function that may affect oxygenation.
c)
To assess the patient's heart rate and rhythm.
d)
To determine the patient's level of consciousness.
68.

A nurse performs a respiratory assessment and notes increased work of breathing and use of accessory muscles. What does this finding indicate? 

a)
The patient is experiencing difficulty maintaining adequate oxygenation.
b)
The patient is experiencing improved oxygenation.
c)
The patient is in a state of relaxation and comfort.
d)
The patient has normal respiratory function.
69.

Why is it important for a nurse to perform a thorough respiratory assessment during each patient encounter? 

 

a)
It helps identify breathing difficulties early and prevents further deterioration of respiratory status.
b)
It helps nurses avoid patient interactions.
c)
It allows for quicker discharge from the hospital.
d)
It ensures patients receive more medication.
70.

During a respiratory assessment, the nurse observes the patient’s breathing pattern, skin color, and effort. Which assessment technique is being used? 

 

a)
Inspection.
b)
Percussion.
c)
Auscultation.
d)
Palpation.
71.

The nurse palpates a patient’s chest and notices the trachea is deviated to one side. What might this finding indicate? 

 

a)
Normal tracheal position
b)
A possible pneumothorax or mediastinal shift.
c)
Increased lung capacity
d)
Bronchial obstruction
72.

A nurse places a stethoscope on a patient’s chest to listen to lung sounds. What assessment technique is this? 

a)
Auscultation.
b)
Percussion
c)
Palpation
d)
Inspection
73.

Why should an LPN focus on “look, feel, and listen” when assessing the lungs rather than percussion? 

 

a)
LPNs are trained to perform percussion for lung assessment.
b)
Auscultation is not a method used by LPNs for lung evaluation.
c)
LPNs use inspection, palpation, and auscultation to evaluate respiratory status instead of percussion.
d)
LPNs primarily rely on X-rays to assess lung conditions.
74.

During inspection, the nurse notes that a patient becomes short of breath while speaking and has bluish lips. What should the nurse conclude? 

a)
The patient is suffering from a cold with no respiratory issues.
b)
The patient is experiencing respiratory distress with decreased oxygenation.
c)
The patient is experiencing a panic attack with normal oxygenation.
d)
The patient is dehydrated and needs fluids.
75.

What is the primary function of the larynx in the respiratory system? 

a)
To produce hormones for the respiratory system.
b)
To facilitate gas exchange in the lungs.
c)
To protect the lower respiratory tract from aspiration of food or fluids while eating.
d)
To filter and humidify incoming air.
76.

The nurse explains to a student that one respiration consists of which components? 

 

a)
One exhalation only.
b)
One inhalation only.
c)
One inhalation and one exhalation.
d)
Two inhalations and one exhalation.
77.

Which two vital signs are most critical indicators of respiratory system function? 

 

a)
Body temperature and respiratory depth.
b)
Heart rate and blood pressure.
c)
Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
d)
Pulse oximetry and lung capacity.
78.

A nurse is monitoring a client’s oxygen saturation using a pulse oximeter. Which of the following best describes the function of this device? 

a)
Measures the total blood volume in the body
b)
Calculates the heart rate based on oxygen levels
c)

Continuously monitors oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood 

d)
Evaluates the carbon dioxide levels in the blood
79.

A nurse is teaching a client about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following statements is accurate regarding this condition? 

a)
COPD only affects the elderly population.
b)
COPD is primarily caused by viral infections.
c)
COPD is a group of diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing-related problems, with emphysema and chronic bronchitis being the most common types.
d)
COPD is a curable condition with proper medication.
80.

 A nurse is reviewing a client’s history and physical assessment. The client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect in a client with emphysema compared to chronic bronchitis? 

a)
Cyanosis, productive cough, and normal chest shape
b)
Wheezing, frequent respiratory infections, and shortness of breath only at rest
c)
Pursed lip breathing, clubbing of fingers, and decreased respiratory rate
d)
Barrel-shaped chest, dyspnea on exertion, and prolonged expiratory phase
81.

A nurse is auscultating a client’s lungs. Which of the following correctly matches the normal lung sound with its characteristics? 

a)
Bronchial – high pitch, hollow quality, expiration longer than inspiration
b)
Tracheal – harsh sound, inspiration and expiration equal in duration
c)
Vesicular – low to medium pitch, soft whooshing quality, inspiration 2–3 times longer than expiration
d)
Adventitious – crackling sound, equal inspiration and expiration
82.

 A nurse is auscultating a client’s lungs. Which of the following best describes adventitious lung sounds? 

a)
Abnormal breath sounds that indicate underlying respiratory conditions
b)
Breath sounds that are always rhythmic and regular
c)
Sounds produced by a stethoscope malfunction
d)
Normal breath sounds indicating healthy lungs
83.

A nurse is auscultating a client’s lungs. Which of the following best describes adventitious lung sounds? 

a)
Breath sounds that are always present in all individuals
b)
Normal breath sounds indicating good lung function
c)
Sounds produced by a healthy respiratory system
d)
Abnormal breath sounds that indicate underlying respiratory conditions
84.

 A nurse is auscultating a client’s lungs and hears high-pitched, brief popping or crackling sounds in the small airways, similar to the sound of Rice Krispies. Which adventitious lung sound is the nurse hearing? 

a)
Crackles (rales)
b)
Stridor
c)
Wheezes
d)
Rhonchi
85.

 A nurse is assessing a client and notes a pattern of breathing with gradual increases and decreases in the depth and rate of respirations, followed by periods of apnea. Which of the following best describes this type of breathing pattern? 

a)
Kussmaul respirations
b)
Biot's respirations
c)
Hyperventilation
d)
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
86.

A nurse is reviewing lung anatomy with a nursing student. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the lobes of the lungs? 

a)
The right lung has 3 lobes, and the left lung has 2 lobes.
b)
The right lung has 4 lobes, and the left lung has 2 lobes.
c)
Both lungs have 3 lobes each.
d)
The right lung has 2 lobes, and the left lung has 3 lobes.
87.

A nurse is assessing a client who reports shortness of breath. Which of the following is an appropriate method to evaluate the severity of dyspnea?

a)
Measure the client's blood pressure
b)
Check the client's temperature
c)
Assess the client’s ability to speak in full sentences
d)
Perform a chest X-ray
88.

A nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas (ABG) results. Which of the following best describes hypercapnia and hypocapnia?

a)
Hypercapnia – low oxygen in the blood; Hypocapnia – high oxygen in the blood
b)
Hypercapnia – normal CO₂ levels; Hypocapnia – elevated CO₂ levels
c)
Hypercapnia – low CO₂ in the blood; Hypocapnia – high CO₂ in the blood
d)
Hypercapnia – high CO₂ in the blood; Hypocapnia – low CO₂ in the blood
89.

A nurse is teaching a client about the body’s response to low oxygen levels. Which of the following best describes respiratory stimulation?

a)
It is triggered by increased blood pressure
b)
It happens during physical exercise
c)
It occurs when oxygen levels in the blood are low
d)
It occurs when carbon dioxide levels are high
90.

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypoxemia. Which of the following are common clinical manifestations?

a)
Hypotension, fever, and confusion
b)
Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
c)
Bradycardia, hypertension, and lethargy
d)
Tachypnea, cyanosis, and restlessness
91.

A nurse is teaching a client about infection prevention. Which of the following statements about oral hygiene is accurate?

a)
Good oral hygiene is only necessary for patients with dental issues.
b)
Oral hygiene has no impact on overall health or infection risk.
c)
Brushing teeth twice a week is sufficient for preventing infections.
d)
Good oral hygiene helps prevent infection by reducing bacteria in the mouth, which can enter the bloodstream.
92.

A nurse is caring for a client with severe respiratory distress who is unable to eat or speak, has neck muscle tension, and visible retractions. What is the priority intervention?

a)
Administer a bronchodilator to relieve symptoms
b)
Provide supplemental oxygen and monitor vital signs
c)
Encourage the client to take deep breaths and cough
d)
Prepare for intubation to secure the airway and allow the client to rest
93.

A nurse is assessing a client’s fingernails and notes nail clubbing. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

a)
Nail trauma from frequent manicures or artificial nails
b)
Chronic low oxygen levels in the blood, often associated with lung disease
c)
Increased calcium levels in the blood, often due to hyperparathyroidism
d)
Nutritional deficiencies, such as lack of biotin or zinc
94.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. What is the first action the nurse should take?

a)
Assess the client’s nose, mouth, and throat for airway obstruction
b)
Administer oxygen to the client
c)
Call for a physician immediately
d)
Perform chest compressions on the client
95.

A nurse is caring for a client with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes bacterial strep from viral strep?

a)
Bacterial strep is diagnosed using a culture and sensitivity, which identifies the bacteria and guides antibiotic choice; results take 5–7 days.
b)
Bacterial strep is diagnosed with a rapid antigen test, providing results in 1-2 hours.
c)
Viral strep is treated with antibiotics to eliminate the infection.
d)
Bacterial strep requires no laboratory tests for diagnosis.
96.

A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis (TB) skin test. Which of the following is another name for this test?

a)
BCG Test
b)
QuantiFERON Test
c)
Mantoux
d)
Xpert MTB/RIF Test
97.

A nurse is teaching a client about diagnostic tests for lung function. Which of the following best describes a pulmonary function test (PFT)?

a)
Evaluates how well the lungs are working by assessing airflow, lung volumes, and gas exchange
b)
Assesses the risk of lung cancer
c)
Measures blood pressure and heart rate
d)
Evaluates the effectiveness of asthma medications
98.

A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about home monitoring of lung function. Which of the following devices measures the client’s ability to push air out of the lungs?

a)
Spirometer
b)
Oximeter
c)
Nebulizer
d)
Peak flow meter
99.

A nurse is caring for a client with hemoptysis and suspected lung cancer. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding lung biopsy?

a)
Lung biopsy is a non-invasive procedure.
b)
Lung biopsy is only used for staging lung cancer.
c)
Lung biopsy can be performed without imaging guidance.
d)
Lung biopsy is the definitive method to diagnose lung cancer.
100.

A nurse is preparing a client for a lung biopsy via bronchoscopy. Which of the following best describes this procedure?

a)
A rigid tube is inserted through the nose into the lungs to remove fluid from the pleural space.
b)
A flexible tube is inserted through the mouth into the lungs to visually inspect and obtain tissue from suspicious areas.
c)
A flexible tube is inserted through the chest wall to drain air from the pleural cavity.
d)
A needle is used to extract blood from the lungs for testing purposes.
101.

A nurse is preparing a client for a lung biopsy via bronchoscopy. Which of the following best describes this procedure?

a)
A rigid tube is inserted through the nose into the stomach to collect fluid samples.
b)
A needle is inserted through the chest wall to extract air from the lungs.
c)
A flexible tube is inserted through the mouth into the lungs to visually inspect and obtain tissue from suspicious areas.
d)
A small camera is swallowed to view the digestive tract for lung issues.
102.

A nurse is caring for a client after a lung biopsy. Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for due to pain-related hypoventilation?

a)
Hypercapnia
b)
Pulmonary Edema
c)
Hypoxemia
d)
Atelectasis
103.

A nurse is teaching a client to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding its use?

a)
The client should hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling.
b)
The client should inhale quickly and shallowly.
c)
The client should inhale slowly and deeply, gradually increasing volume over several sessions.
d)
The client should exhale forcefully into the spirometer.