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Nursing and Medical Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following finding is suggestive of a pneumothorax in a patient with chest trauma:

a)

Absent breath sounds

b)

Inspiratory wheezing

c)

Dullness on chest percussion

d)

Pronounced crackles

2.

The primary reason for administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient is to:

a)

Relax the walls of the heart’s arteries

b)

Improve the strength of the heartbeat

c)

Prevent irregularities in ventricular contractions

d)

Decrease inflammation of the heart wall

3.

The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with heart failure and pulmonary oedema is:

a)

Risk for infection related to stasis of alveolar secretions

b)

Impaired skin integrity related to pressure

c)

Activity intolerance related to pump failure

d)

Constipation related to immobility

4.

When preparing a patient for a colonoscopy procedure, the nurse should:

a)

Perform a high colonic washout procedure the night before

b)

Ensure the patient takes a high-roughage diet with a laxative

c)

Educate the patient to report any “needle prick” sensations within 12 hrs after

d)

Advise the patient to take a low-fiber diet for 1 week before the procedure

5.

Characteristics of a “Cushingoid” appearance in Cushing’s disease include:

a)

Hypotension, Kussmaul’s breathing, hunchback & diaphoresis

b)

Moon face, buffalo hump, central obesity & thin musculature

c)

Mood swings, slow wound healing, hypertension & tunnel vision

d)

Flushing, brittle skin, abdominal pain, and encephalopathy

6.

The sensitivity part of a culture & sensitivity test is for:

a)

Identifying the causative organism for the infection diagnosed

b)

Identifying the most effective antibiotics against the causative organism

c)

Identifying antibiotics that the patient is resistant to

d)

Testing the concentration of the antibiotic required to cure an infection

7.

A client with a cataract would most likely complain of:

a)

Halos and rainbows around lights

b)

Eye pain and irritation that worsens at night

c)

Blurred and hazy vision

d)

Eye strain and headache when doing close work

8.

Indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F): a) Acute angle closure glaucoma is a medical emergency b) In spinal injury, there is complete anesthesia below the level of injury

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The primary rationale for tube feeding post-total laryngectomy is to:

a)

Meet dietary needs and prevent fistula formation

b)

Maintain an open airway and prevent aspiration

c)

Meet fluid & dietary needs and prevent aspiration

d)

Prevent fistula formation and reduce aspiration

10.

When a burn occurs in an adult:

a)

Using rule of nine, right arm = 18%, right leg = 9%

b)

Capillaries & small vessels dilate, renal blood flow reduces

c)

Fluid shifts from ICF to ECF with potassium

d)

Permeability of kidney tubules increases with oliguria

11.

The following technique should be avoided when changing a hemiparalysis client’s position:

a)

Sliding the client to move up in bed

b)

Rolling the client onto her side

c)

Lifting the client when moving up in bed

d)

Having the client lift herself using a trapeze

12.

When a BP reading is abnormal upon initial assessment, it is best to check BP:

a)

On the other arm

b)

On both arms, sitting and standing

c)

With the patient standing

d)

After a 5-minute wait

13.

Swabs, instruments, and sharps count during surgery are carried out by:

a)

Circulating and anaesthetic nurses

b)

Anaesthetic and scrub nurses

c)

Circulating and scrub nurses

d)

Recovery room and scrub nurses

14.

When nursing a patient with COPD, the nurse should:

a)

Ensure high-flow oxygen at 100%

b)

Advise influenza and pneumococcal vaccines

c)

Avoid prophylactic bronchodilators

d)

Position in dorsal recumbent position

15.

After nasogastric tube removal, the nurse should:

a)

Offer liquids to drink

b)

Provide oral hygiene

c)

Encourage coughing and deep breathing

d)

Auscultate bowel sounds

16.

Neurovascular assessment of the lower limb post-cast involves:

a)

Color, sensation, and pulses

b)

LOC, limb symmetry, and muscle strength

c)

Capillary refill, sensation, and muscle power

d)

Color, warmth, and muscle power

17.

The risk for macrovascular complications in diabetes mellitus may be reduced by:

a)

Lowering BP, avoiding nephrotoxics, and reducing exercise

b)

Weight reduction, lowering fat/triglycerides, quitting smoking

c)

Foot care, early retinal detachment diagnosis, daily U/Es

d)

High-fiber, low-fat diet, prompt infection treatment

18.

Priority indicator of increasing intracranial pressure:

a)

Unequal pupil size

b)

Decreasing systolic pressure

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Decreasing body temperature

19.

Foods that may predispose me to megaloblastic anemia include:

a)

Meat, eggs, beans

b)

Beans, peas, rice

c)

Capsicum, sorghum, millet

d)

Meat, maize, sorghum

20.

In pyloric stenosis, there is:

a)

Projectile vomiting & olive-sized mass in upper right abdomen

b)

Blood-tinged vomitus, reduced peristalsis

c)

Severe abdominal pain and irregular bowels

d)

Normal appetite and loose bowels

21.

In cases of brain injury, temporary loss of consciousness followed by alertness with equal pupils indicates:

a)

Subdural hematoma

b)

Brain contusion

c)

Brain concussion

d)

Intracranial hematoma

22.

While counselling a patient, the nurse should:

a)

Make good decisions for the patient

b)

Keep the confidentiality of the patient’s problems

c)

Be judgmental throughout the session

d)

Hide certain harmful information from the patient

23.

According to IMCI guidelines, the criteria to refer a child with an ear problem from a health centre are:

a)

Acute ear infection, pus discharge for less than 14 days

b)

Chronic ear infection, pus discharge for more than 14 days

c)

Tender swelling behind the ear

d)

Ear pain

24.

The only movable bone of the human skull is the:

a)

Maxilla

b)

Temporal

c)

Mandible

d)

Zygomatic

25.

The involuntary expulsion of urine that occurs during coughing is referred to as:

a)

Urgency incontinence

b)

Stress incontinence

c)

Overflow incontinence

d)

Urge incontinence

26.

Management of osteoporosis includes:

a)

Increased calcium intake, decreased coffee intake

b)

Performing weight-bearing exercises and increasing calcium intake

c)

Decreased calcium intake, engaging in regular moderate activity

d)

Cessation of smoking, avoiding weight-bearing exercises

27.

Maximum growth of head circumference is attained at the age of:

a)

1–3 years

b)

4–5 years

c)

7–8 years

d)

10–15 years

28.

Sensation indicators of peripheral neuromuscular dysfunction are:

a)

Cyanosis and paralysis

b)

Weakness and unrelenting pain

c)

Absence of feeling and pallor

d)

Absence of feeling and pain on passive stretch

29.

Following gastrectomy, dumping syndrome occurs as a result of:

a)

Reduced gastric motility resulting from vagus nerve stimulation

b)

Removal of acid-producing cells, thus resulting in reduced absorption of vitamin B12

c)

Rapid gastric emptying of hyperosmolar fluid and substances into the duodenum

d)

Damage to the vagus nerve and cardiac sphincter

30.

Priority nursing intervention for a patient with a peritoneal abscess is to:

a)

Administer analgesic for pain relief

b)

Administer intravenous fluid

c)

Reassure the patient

d)

Administer parenteral nutrition

31.

When estimating the size of burns, the palm of the patient’s hand represents the total body surface area of:

a)

3%

b)

1%

c)

4.5%

d)

9%

32.

The health message given to a patient following tympanoplasty is:

a)

Drink fluids using a straw

b)

Avoid blowing the nose and sneeze through the mouth

c)

Administer saline water into the ear to aid healing

d)

Avoid noisy places up to two weeks postoperatively

33.

The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a skin disorder is:

a)

Patient teaching

b)

Prevention of secondary infection

c)

Application of medication

d)

Counselling because of altered body image

34.

Prothrombin and fibrinogen are produced by the:

a)

Gall bladder

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Bone marrow

35.

The most appropriate nursing intervention to decrease postoperative edema and pain following an inguinal herniorrhaphy is:

a)

Applying a truss to the hernia site

b)

Allowing the patient to stand to void

c)

Elevating the scrotum with a support

d)

Supporting the incision during coughing and deep breathing

36.

A patient with common bile duct obstruction related to cancer of the pancreas is likely to present with:

a)

Brown faeces, dark coloured urine

b)

Scleral icterus, melena stool

c)

Dark coloured urine, scleral icterus

d)

Jaundice, brown faeces

37.

In addition to the general symptoms of anaemia, a patient with pernicious anaemia also manifests with:

a)

Coagulation deficiencies

b)

Low immunity

c)

Neurological symptoms

d)

Cardiovascular disturbances

38.

Nursing interventions for a patient with acute infective endocarditis include:

a)

Early ambulation and activity progression

b)

Restricted activity for several weeks

c)

Low-calorie diet

d)

Increased fluid intake

39.

Rapid and deeper respirations are stimulated by the respiratory centre of the brain when:

a)

Oxygen saturation levels are greater than 90%

b)

Carbon dioxide levels increase

c)

Alveoli contract

d)

The diaphragm contracts and lowers its dome

40.

Addison’s disease results from:

a)

Decreased production of parathyroid hormone

b)

Excessive secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

c)

Inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids

d)

Overactivity of parathyroid glands

41.

A child on long-term use of corticosteroids is at risk of;

a)

Growth retardation

b)

Peripheral neuropathy

c)

Muscular degeneration

d)

Hyperkalemia

42.

Pleural effusion is a complication of;

a)

Heart failure, nephritic syndrome, pulmonary tuberculosis

b)

Pneumonia, upper respiratory infections, post-thoracotomy

c)

Penetrating chest trauma, bronchitis, haematogenous infection of the pleural space

d)

Pulmonary embolism, lung cancer, post-thoracentesis

43.

Indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F): a) Asthma is a form of chronic obstructive disease (COPD).

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F): b) In chronic bronchitis, there is coughing & sputum production for at least 3 months.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

When measuring central venous pressure (CVP), the nurse should;

a)

Mark the location of the right atrium.

b)

Identify the location of the left atrium.

c)

Always ensure the patient lies in the supine position.

d)

Allow normal saline to drip rapidly into the client for 5 min before taking a CVP reading.

46.

Furuncles (boils) are commonly caused by;

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Clostridium tetani

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Bacillus aureus

47.

The appropriate health message to a patient who develops stomatitis secondary to radiotherapy is;

a)

Gargle with mouthwash and rinse thoroughly after each meal.

b)

Use ice-cold liquids such as tea or cola to relieve discomfort.

c)

Use a toothbrush soaked in saline to clean the mouth.

d)

Drink citrus juices.

48.

Sympathetic stimulation of the cardiovascular system causes;

a)

Increased heart rate and constriction of the coronary arteries.

b)

Constriction of the GIT secretory gland vessels with increased flow of digestive juices.

c)

Increased peripheral resistance and dilatation of coronary arteries.

d)

Increased force of heart contraction & reduced peripheral resistance.

49.

The immediate effects of burns on body fluids and electrolytes include;

a)

Hypokalemia & Hyponatremia.

b)

Reduced circulatory blood volume and hypernatremia.

c)

Hyponatremia and Hyperkalemia.

d)

Reduced urine output and hypokalemia.

50.

When caring for an unconscious patient, progressive dilatation of the pupils indicates;

a)

Injury at the level of the midbrain.

b)

Increasing intracranial pressure (ICP).

c)

Coma is toxic or metabolic in origin.

d)

Paralysis of cranial nerves V and VII.

51.

“Talk and die syndrome” is commonly associated with;

a)

Epidural haemorrhage.

b)

Intracerebral bleeding.

c)

Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage.

d)

Cardiac tamponade.

52.

The major cause of death following kidney transplantation is;

a)

Transplant rejection.

b)

Acute immunosuppressant.

c)

Post-transplantation infections.

d)

Post-transplantation haemorrhage.

53.

Early complications of fractures include;

a)

Shock, vascular necrosis.

b)

Reaction to internal fixation device, deep venous thrombosis.

c)

Compartment syndrome, fat embolism.

d)

Complex regional pain syndrome, infection.

54.

The primary causes of acute otitis media are;

a)

Escherichia coli and Proteus spp.

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

c)

Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae.

d)

Proteus spp. and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

55.

When suctioning a laryngeal tube;

a)

It should take about 10 seconds.

b)

A clean and not aseptic technique should be used.

c)

Suction is applied while inserting the catheter into the tube.

d)

Suctioning should be done continuously till secretions clear.

56.

Orem’s self-care model depicts nursing as;

a)

Assisting individuals to their optimal level of self-care.

b)

Promoting environment–client interactivity to enhance healing.

c)

Performing self-care activities for a patient to enhance recovery.

d)

A profession that is centred on client self-care activities.

57.

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors;

a)

Inhibit conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

b)

Block receptors from binding angiotensin II.

c)

Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

d)

Block angiotensin I receptor sites.

58.

The disadvantages of perineal prostatectomy include;

a)

Retrograde ejaculation, urethral trauma, and stricture development.

b)

Haemorrhage that is difficult to control, prolonged recovery, and discomfort.

c)

Requires a highly trained surgeon, impotence, and seizures.

d)

Higher post-operative incidence of impotence, greater potential for infection.

59.

In myocardial infarction, Nitroglycerin is administered to;

a)

Dilate arteries in small doses.

b)

Decrease ischemia by reducing myocardial oxygen consumption.

c)

Increase the preload.

d)

Enable the patient to achieve muscle relaxation.

60.

The characteristic signs and symptoms of laryngotracheobronchitis are;

a)

Stridor, subglottic edema.

b)

Wheeze, vomiting.

c)

Chest pain, pyrexia.

d)

Spasmodic cough, copious vomiting.

61.

A 2-year-old child brought to a health facility with a respiratory rate of 42 breaths/min, cough, and chest indrawing will be classified as;

a)

Pneumonia.

b)

Severe pneumonia.

c)

Laryngotracheobronchitis.

d)

Status asthmaticus.

62.

The signs of blood incompatibility during transfusion include;

a)

Flushing, tenesmus, and tremors.

b)

Shivering, chest tightness, and wheezing.

c)

Diaphoresis, headache, and stridor.

d)

Fever, oliguria, and tinnitus.

63.

To administer Normal saline 500mls for 6hrs using an IV administration set with a drop factor of 20, the flow rate will be regulated to;

a)

26 drops per minute.

b)

25 drops per minute.

c)

28 drops per minute.

d)

27 drops per minute.

64.

When administering an enema;

a)

The client should lie in the right lateral position.

b)

The enema tube should be inserted 8 inches into the client’s rectum.

c)

The client should be advised to retain the enema for 30 minutes.

d)

The nurse should position the client in the left lateral position.

65.

In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between the.

a)

Sclera and ciliary body.

b)

Retina and choroid.

c)

Pupil and suspensory ligament.

d)

Lens and pupil.

66.

The following chemical can be used for sterilization;

a)

Chlorhexidine.

b)

Chlorhexidine with cetrimide.

c)

Sodium hypochlorite.

d)

Glutaraldehyde.

67.

The expected outcomes for a patient who has “potential for impaired gas exchange related to fluid overload” include:

a)

No shortness of breath, scaphoid abdomen.

b)

Chest X-ray normal, improved gas exchange.

c)

Respiratory rate less than 20 breaths/min, skin colour normal.

d)

Heart rate less than 100 beats/min, increased urine output.

68.

Anaphylactic shock is;

a)

Associated with excessive blood loss.

b)

Caused by systemic antigen-antibody reaction.

c)

Associated with effects of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.

d)

Usually common in patients on antibiotics.

69.

Appropriate nursing interventions for a patient with “Risk for infection related to altered immunity response” include;

a)

Barrier nursing, avoiding invasive procedures and inspection of entry port sites for pathogens.

b)

Reverse barrier nursing, monitor SPO2 hourly, and serve high high-protein diet.

c)

Isolation nursing, obtaining cultures & sensitivities daily, and administration of antibiotics.

d)

Reverse barrier nursing, avoiding invasive procedures & daily assessment of intravenous sites.

70.

The three primary symptoms of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) are;

a)

Chronic cough, sputum production, and dyspnoea on exertion.

b)

Barrel chest, clubbed fingers, and dyspnoea on exertion.

c)

Peripheral oedema, dyspnoea, chronic coughing.

d)

Rhinitis, wheezing, and chronic cough.

71.

Cardiac output is equal to;

a)

Peripheral resistance × stroke volume.

b)

Heart rate × patient body weight.

c)

Stroke volume × heart rate.

d)

Venous return × peripheral resistance.

72.

The primary causes of acute otitis media are;

a)

Escherichia coli and Proteus spp.

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

c)

Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae.

d)

Proteus spp. and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

73.

Post-intracranial surgery, a patient is mainly at risk of;

a)

Hypoxia, paralytic ileus, and hypostatic pneumonia.

b)

Cerebral oedema, hypoxia, and seizures.

c)

CSF leakage, urine retention, and hyperthermia.

d)

Hypotension, septicaemia, and sensory deprivation.

74.

Russell’s traction is indicated in;

a)

Femur, knee, and hip fractures.

b)

Minor fractures of the lower spine, sciatica, and muscle spasms.

c)

Degenerative disc disease of the cervical spine, shoulder dislocation, and muscle spasm.

d)

Femur, acetabulum, and lower leg fracture.

75.

Joints usually affected by osteoarthritis are;

a)

Thoracic spine, knees, wrist.

b)

Acromioclavicular, sacral spine, lower cervical spine.

c)

Ankle, sacro-iliac, hip.

d)

Thoracic spine, hip, and temporal mandibular.

76.

Status asthmaticus can be precipitated by;

a)

Infection, tranquilizer overdose, emphysema, anxiety.

b)

Tranquilizer overdose, nebulizer abuse, anxiety, infection.

c)

Tranquilizer overdose, anxiety, blebs, and aspirin overdose.

d)

Emphysema, infection, nebulizer abuse, and bullae.

77.

Broncho-pneumonia presents with;

a)

Stabbing chest pain, low-grade fever, dry cough, and low pulse.

b)

Nasal flaring, fever, cyanosis, and stabbing chest pain.

c)

Rapid pulse, nasal flaring, barrel chest, and low-grade fever.

d)

Low-grade fever, nasal flaring, stabbing chest pain, and low pulse.

78.

The main role played by the anaesthetic nurse is;

a)

Intubating patient.

b)

Extubating the patient.

c)

Observing the patient.

d)

Supporting the scrub nurse.

79.

The following information about a patient is classified as objective data;

a)

Feels tired, blood pressure 130/70 mmHg, leg hurts.

b)

Dry skin, nocturia, anorexia.

c)

Seems nervous, temperature 37°C, pale.

d)

Allergic to sulphur drugs, skin rash, lethargic.

80.

A patient is to receive 500 mL of Normal saline over a period of 6 hrs. Using a fluid giving set with a drop factor of 20dpm, the nurse should regulate the flow rate to;

a)

27 drops/minute.

b)

28 drops/minute.

c)

43 drops/minute.

d)

44 drops/minute.

81.

The micro-organisms that are minimized through hand-washing include;

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes.

b)

Staphylococcus albus.

c)

Escherichia coli.

d)

Entamoeba histolytica.

82.

A deteriorating condition for a patient with a head injury will be indicated by;

a)

Widening pulse pressure and irregular respiratory pattern.

b)

Narrowing pulse pressure and escalation of discomfort.

c)

Bradycardia and Kussmaul breathing.

d)

Oliguria and narrow pulse pressure.

83.

The substances that are completely reabsorbed by renal tubules after filtration (high-threshold materials) include;

a)

Creatinine, urea, uric acid.

b)

Water, urine, plasma proteins.

c)

Bicarbonate, glucose, amino acids.

d)

Sodium, potassium, phosphate.

84.

Late symptoms of cervical cancer include;

a)

Painful micturition, haematuria.

b)

Rectal bleeding, referred flank pain.

c)

Painless bleeding, menorrhagia.

d)

Oedema of extremities, thin watery vaginal discharge.

85.

The motor abilities observed in a 5-month-old infant include;

a)

Able to sit when supported, turns over front to back.

b)

Able to sit unsupported, cruises easily around furniture.

c)

Able to pull self to standing position, transfers objects hand to hand.

d)

Can hold small objects, holds hands tightly closed.

86.

In non-communicating forms of hydrocephalus;

a)

CSF formation is normal, but reabsorption is abnormal.

b)

CSF reabsorption is normal, but formation is abnormal.

c)

The obstruction exists between the choroid plexi and the subarachnoid space.

d)

The obstruction exists between the foramen magnum and the central canal.

87.

The diet implemented for a patient in acute renal failure is;

a)

High protein, high calorie, low sodium, low potassium.

b)

Low fat, low protein, high potassium, low sodium.

c)

High calorie, low protein, low sodium, low potassium.

d)

Bland, low-calorie, low-sodium, low potassium.

88.

In right-sided (diastolic) heart failure;

a)

Patients present with a distended jugular vein.

b)

There is compensatory tachycardia.

c)

There is production of frothy sputum.

d)

Patients complain of light-headedness.

89.

The priority interventions for a patient who has suffered a cardiac arrest are;

a)

High-quality CPR and early defibrillation.

b)

Establishing IV access, history taking.

c)

Early defibrillation, administration of hydrocortisone.

d)

Taking a 12-lead ECG, administration of Atropine.

90.

When nursing a patient on steroids, the nurse should;

a)

Observe for oedema, weigh daily, and monitor blood counts.

b)

Maintain infection control, monitor blood sugar, and maintain hydration.

c)

Observe for bone marrow suppression, minimise exposure to heat, encourage bed rest.

d)

Encourage increased fluid intake, administer antiemetics, and monitor RBC count.

91.

The indications for terminal cleaning of an isolation room include;

a)

Infective hepatitis, meningococcal hepatitis, malaria, HIV infection.

b)

Chicken pox, malaria, measles, and pneumonia.

c)

Measles, chicken pox, infectious hepatitis.

d)

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), liver cirrhosis, measles & hepatitis.

92.

The following are causes of functional intestinal obstruction;

a)

Intussusception, volvulus.

b)

Hyperkalemia, faecal impaction.

c)

Peritonitis, paralytic ileus.

d)

Peritonitis, hyperkalemia.

93.

Indicate whether the following statement is True (T) or False (F): Central venous pressure (CVP) assesses pressure within the superior vena cava and competency of the right side of the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Indicate whether the following statement is True (T) or False (F): In hyperkalemia cases, a nurse should intravenously administer 10% glucose with regular insulin.

a)

True

b)

False