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Chapter 4: Sale of Goods Law - Introduction and Implied Terms

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the notes, a contract of sale of goods is a contract where the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in the goods to the buyer for a price. Which statute section is cited for this definition?

a)

Section 2 of SOGA

b)

Section 4(1) of SOGA

c)

Section 13 of SOGA

d)

Section 16(1)(a) of SOGA

2.

Which of the following best defines goods under Section 2 of SOGA as written in the notes?

a)

All immovable property including land and buildings

b)

Every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money; includes stocks and shares; growing crops, grass and things attached to land agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale

c)

Tangible items only, excluding things attached to land

d)

Only items produced by manufacturing processes

3.

Under the differences between sale and agreement to sell, when does ownership or property in the goods pass from seller to buyer?

a)

Only after full payment is made

b)

At the time of delivery regardless of price

c)

In a sale, at once; while in an agreement to sell, at a future time or subject to some condition to be fulfilled

d)

Only when the buyer examines the goods

4.

Which implied term ensures that goods correspond with their description?

a)

Implied condition as to time

b)

Implied condition as to description

c)

Implied warranty as to quiet possession

d)

Implied condition as to merchantable quality

5.

Which implied term protects the buyer’s right to enjoy the goods without disturbance from the seller or third parties with better title?

a)

Implied warranty as to quiet possession

b)

Implied condition as to fitness for particular purpose

c)

Implied condition as to title

d)

Implied condition as to time

6.

Identify the case that illustrates the implied condition that goods must correspond with description when sold by sample and description (bulk of the goods did not correspond).

a)

Varley v Whipp

b)

Moore & Co v Landauer & Co

c)

Grant v Australian Knitting Mills

d)

David Jones v Willis

7.

In Varley v Whipp, what key misdescription led to the buyer’s remedy?

a)

The machine was brand new but priced as used

b)

The machine had only cut 50 acres and was in perfect condition

c)

The machine was said to have only cut 30 acres but proved much older and in bad condition

d)

The machine’s parts were missing and weight was misstated

8.

What was the buyer entitled to do in Moore & Co v Landauer & Co when the cases contained only 24 tins instead of 30 tins as described?

a)

Claim damages but had to accept the goods

b)

Reject the contract because the goods did not correspond with the description

c)

Pay a reduced price proportional to the shortage

d)

Seek specific performance to repack the tins

9.

Which principle is highlighted under implied condition as to fitness for particular purpose where the buyer must state the purpose of the goods to the seller when making the contract?

a)

Caveat venditor

b)

Caveat emptor

c)

Res ipsa loquitur

d)

Uberrimae fidei

10.

According to Section 16(1)(a) of SOGA (as summarized), which of the following is NOT one of the four conditions for fitness for particular purpose?

a)

The buyer must state the purpose to the seller

b)

The goods must be those the seller usually deals with

c)

The buyer must be relying on the seller’s skill and judgment

d)

The goods must be purchased by their brand or trade name

11.

In Griffiths v Peter Conway Ltd, why did the woman fail in her claim regarding fitness for particular purpose?

a)

She did not pay the price in full

b)

She failed to inform the seller that she had sensitive skin and the coat would not harm a normal person

c)

The coat was not described at all

d)

She examined the goods and accepted them

12.

Which section states that when goods are bought by description there is an implied condition that they must be of merchantable quality, subject to examination exceptions?

a)

Section 13 of SOGA

b)

Section 16(1)(a) of SOGA

c)

Section 16(1)(b) of SOGA

d)

Section 4(1) of SOGA

13.

Under the merchantable quality rule in the notes, when does the implied condition NOT apply?

a)

When the seller is a private individual

b)

When the buyer has examined the goods and the defect should have been discovered during the examination

c)

When the goods are second-hand

d)

When goods are bought by description from a dealer

14.

In David Jones v Willis, what defect led the court to find the goods were unmerchantable?

a)

The shoes were the wrong color

b)

The shoes caused an allergic reaction

c)

The heels came off when walking down stairs, causing injury

d)

The shoes were delivered late

15.

Which implied term ensures that the goods are free from encumbrances?

a)

Implied condition as to title

b)

Implied warranty as to quiet possession

c)

Implied condition as to merchantable quality

d)

Implied condition as to correspondence with description

16.

Under the principle Nemo Dat Quad Non Habet, what is the core rule regarding transfer of title to goods?

a)

Only the original owner can transfer title through registration

b)

No one can transfer a better title than they have themselves

c)

Title always passes to the first buyer irrespective of defects

d)

A buyer in good faith always obtains good title

17.

What is the stated purpose of the Nemo Dat rule in the Sale of Goods context?

a)

To promote market efficiency

b)

To protect the right of ownership so the right of the original owner is retained

c)

To ensure all contracts are voidable

d)

To encourage credit purchases

18.

Which of the following is listed as an exception to the Nemo Dat rule in the notes?

a)

Sale by a minor

b)

Sale by a mercantile agent

c)

Sale by auctioneer without reserve

d)

Sale by court order

19.

Estoppel may operate as an exception to Nemo Dat when which situation occurs?

a)

The buyer pays in installments

b)

The owner’s conduct precludes them from denying the seller’s authority to sell

c)

The goods are perishable

d)

The contract is void for illegality

20.

Under Section 24, sale under a voidable contract can pass good title to a buyer if which requirement is met at the time of sale?

a)

The contract has already been rescinded

b)

The buyer purchases in good faith without knowledge of the seller’s defective title

c)

The buyer pays a higher price than market value

d)

The seller is a mercantile agent

21.

According to Section 20(1) SGA, which statement best describes sale by a seller in possession after sale?

a)

A seller who has retained title but not possession cannot pass title

b)

A seller who has parted with title but remains in possession can pass a good title to a bona fide buyer of the goods or documents of title

c)

A seller can pass title only with original buyer’s consent

d)

A seller in possession after sale can never pass title

22.

Sale by a buyer in possession under Section 50(a) allows good title to pass to whom?

a)

Any subsequent buyer regardless of consent

b)

An innocent third-party buyer when the buyer in possession acts with the seller’s consent

c)

Only another joint-owner

d)

Only a mercantile agent

23.

Who qualifies as an unpaid seller under the notes?

a)

A seller who delivers late

b)

A seller whose goods are damaged in transit

c)

A seller when the whole price has not been paid, or when a bill of exchange or negotiable instrument has been dishonoured

d)

Any seller awaiting buyer’s inspection

24.

What does the right of lien allow the seller to do under Section 46(1)(a)?

a)

Seize the buyer’s assets

b)

Retain possession of the goods until the buyer has paid the price

c)

Sue for conversion

d)

Cancel the contract automatically

25.

Under Section 46(1)(a) and related notes on resell, when may the seller resell the goods?

a)

At any time, even if payment is current

b)

Only after giving the buyer reasonable notice and under certain conditions when the buyer fails to pay or the seller’s lien is valid

c)

Only with court approval

d)

Only if the goods are perishable

26.

If there is only a breach of warranty (Section 54), what is the buyer’s position?

a)

Buyer may reject the goods and rescind the contract

b)

Buyer cannot reject the goods but can claim damages

c)

Buyer must accept reduced price only

d)

Buyer has no remedy

27.

What tort action is noted as available when the seller wilfully refuses to hand over goods belonging to the buyer?

a)

Detinue

b)

Conversion

c)

Negligence

d)

Trespass to goods

28.

Which of the following is listed as covered goods under the First Schedule?

a)

Residential apartments

b)

Motor vehicles and motorcycles

c)

Office furniture only

d)

Petroleum products

29.

What happens to the property (ownership) of the goods under a hire purchase until the hirer completes payment?

a)

Ownership passes to the hirer immediately

b)

Ownership passes halfway through instalments

c)

Property in the goods does not pass to the hirer until the payment is completed

d)

The hirer owns the goods but not possession

30.

Before entering into a hire purchase agreement, what must the owner give the intending hirer according to Section 46A(1)?

a)

A signed delivery note

b)

A written statement of ownership of the goods

c)

A written statement that is explained and signed by the hirer

d)

A verbal briefing witnessed by an agent

31.

If the requirement under Section 46A(1) is not fulfilled, what is the status of the hire purchase agreement under Section 46A(2)?

a)

Voidable at the owner’s option

b)

Valid but unenforceable

c)

Void

d)

Requires court approval to proceed

32.

Under Section 46A(3) and 46A(7), failure by the owner to comply with the pre-agreement requirement results in which consequence?

a)

A civil penalty only

b)

It is an offence by the owner

c)

No consequence if the hirer signs later

d)

Automatic transfer of ownership to the hirer

33.

For a body corporate, what is the maximum fine for a first offence under Section 46?

a)

RM50,000

b)

RM100,000

c)

RM150,000

d)

RM500,000

34.

For an individual (not a body corporate), what is the possible penalty for a first offence under Section 46(1A)?

a)

Fine up to RM50,000 only

b)

Fine up to RM95,000 or imprisonment up to 3 years, or both

c)

Mandatory imprisonment for 5 years

d)

Community service only

35.

Which statement about the requirement for written agreements under Section 4A(1) is correct?

a)

Hire purchase agreements may be oral if witnessed

b)

They must be in writing for goods in the First Schedule

c)

They are optional for amounts below RM10,000

d)

They are required only if the hirer requests

36.

Under Section 4A(1A), in what language(s) must hire purchase agreements be made?

a)

Only in English

b)

In the national language or English

c)

In any language chosen by the owner

d)

In bilingual format including Mandarin

37.

What is required regarding signatures under Section 4B(1)?

a)

Only the hirer must sign the agreement

b)

Only the owner must sign the agreement

c)

Both parties must sign the hire purchase agreement

d)

Signatures are not necessary if witnessed by an agent

38.

According to Section 4C(1)(a), which item must be clearly stated in the agreement’s content?

a)

The color of the goods’ packaging

b)

The date hire begins

c)

The hirer's monthly income

d)

The seller’s marketing plan

39.

Under Section 4C(1)(c)(vii), which amount must be present in the table of cash price?

a)

Any insurance charges

b)

The value of trade-in only

c)

Interest rate expressed as APR only

d)

Late payment penalties

40.

Under the Hire Purchase Act, what is required by Section 4D(1) regarding the structure of hire-purchase agreements?

a)

One agreement can cover all goods purchased together

b)

A separate hire-purchase agreement must be made for each item of goods purchased

c)

An agreement is optional if goods are inexpensive

d)

A single agreement must be used only when goods are not complementary

41.

If Section 4D(1) is not followed when entering a hire-purchase agreement, what is the legal effect stated in Section 4D(2)?

a)

The agreement becomes voidable at the hirer’s option

b)

The agreement is void

c)

The agreement remains valid but unenforceable against the guarantor

d)

The agreement is valid if later ratified

42.

According to Section 4D(3), what happens to the owner if the requirement for separate agreements is not followed?

a)

The owner commits an offence even if the agreement is void

b)

The owner may rescind the contract

c)

No consequence follows for the owner

d)

The hirer must pay a penalty to the owner

43.

Which statement reflects Section 4D(4) on items sold together?

a)

Goods sold as a set are always treated as separate items

b)

Similar or complementary goods sold as a set are considered one single item for this purpose

c)

Only identical goods can be grouped as one item

d)

Complementary goods must have separate agreements

44.

What does Section 5(1) require regarding service of documents in hire-purchase?

a)

The hirer must serve the owner within 7 days of signing

b)

The owner must serve the hirer and the guarantor a copy of the hire-purchase agreement within 21 days after it is made

c)

The guarantor must collect the agreement within 30 days

d)

Service is only required upon default

45.

Under Section 31(1), what minimum deposit must the owner collect and when?

a)

At least 5% of the cash price, at delivery

b)

At least 10% of the cash price, paid in cash or goods at the time of signing

c)

Exactly 20% of the cash price, paid by cheque within 14 days

d)

A negotiable deposit agreed later by the parties

46.

What is the consequence under Section 31(4) if the owner or dealer fails to deliver the goods after receiving the deposit?

a)

The hirer forfeits the deposit

b)

The deposit converts to an advance on future installments

c)

They must refund the full deposit to the hirer

d)

The guarantor must pay the balance

47.

Which action constitutes an offence under Section 31(5)?

a)

Collecting a deposit by bank transfer

b)

Anyone who breaches Section 31(1) or 31(4)

c)

Delivering goods before taking a deposit

d)

Refusing to appoint a guarantor

48.

Under Section 7 HPA 1967, implied terms in hire-purchase agreements primarily protect whom?

a)

The owner and dealer

b)

The interest of the hirers and their guarantors

c)

The manufacturer

d)

The finance company alone

49.

What is the effect when there is a breach of an implied condition versus an implied warranty under Section 7 HPA?

a)

Condition: damages only; Warranty: terminate the contract

b)

Condition: the hirer can terminate the contract; Warranty: the hirer can’t rescind the contract but can claim for damages

c)

Both allow termination only

d)

Both only allow price reduction

50.

Section 7(a)(i) implies which condition regarding title?

a)

The hirer has a right to sell the goods

b)

The owner has a right to sell the goods

c)

The dealer guarantees profit

d)

The guarantor owns the goods jointly

51.

In Ahmad Ismail v Malaysian Motor Co Bhd, what was the court’s holding regarding the implied condition of title?

a)

There was a breach because the car was proven stolen

b)

There was no breach of implied condition

c)

The contract was void for uncertainty

d)

Damages were awarded for misdescription

52.

Section 7(a) implies a condition about quality. Which is correct?

a)

Goods shall be of merchantable quality, subject to exceptions

b)

Goods must be new to be merchantable

c)

Merchantable quality applies only to vehicles

d)

Quality requirements apply only if stated in writing

53.

Which scenario defeats the implied condition of merchantable quality according to the notes?

a)

Hirer buys goods sight unseen

b)

Hirer examined the goods and the defect was clear

c)

Defect appears after one year

d)

Goods are imported

54.

What additional factor can negate the implied condition of merchantable quality?

a)

If the goods are second-hand goods

b)

If the buyer pays in cash

c)

If a guarantor is involved

d)

If delivery is late by one day

55.

In the case of Tractors & Farmco Corp Ltd v Ranur & Anor, what key principle was emphasized about second-hand goods?

a)

Second-hand status is irrelevant to quality

b)

Knowing goods are second-hand is not enough; it must be clearly stated in the agreement to exclude the implied condition of merchantable quality

c)

Second-hand goods can never be merchantable

d)

Oral statements override written terms

56.

Which implied warranty is stated in Section 7(b)?

a)

Fitness for a particular purpose

b)

Quiet possession of goods—hirer shall have and enjoy it

c)

Availability of spare parts

d)

Price reasonableness

57.

Section 7(c) provides which implied warranty regarding encumbrances?

a)

Goods are insured

b)

Goods are free from encumbrance, tax, or seizure

c)

Goods have manufacturer’s warranty

d)

Goods are free from wear and tear

58.

According to Section 8(1)(a), if the owner made misrepresentation, what right does the hirer have?

a)

Only to claim damages

b)

To rescind the contract and sue for damages

c)

To keep the goods without paying

d)

To compel specific performance

59.

Under Section 8(1)(b), dealer misrepresentation gives the hirer what right?

a)

To rescind only

b)

To sue for damages

c)

To demand replacement goods only

d)

To waive all payments

60.

What is the legal status of any term attempting to limit Section 8(1) liability, as per Section 8(2)?

a)

Valid if agreed by all parties

b)

Void

c)

Enforceable against the guarantor only

d)

Effective only with court approval

61.

Under the hirer's right to appropriation of payment, when a hirer has multiple hire-purchase agreements with the same owner, what may the hirer choose?

a)

Which agreement the payment is to be applied to

b)

To cancel any agreement without notice

c)

To transfer ownership immediately

d)

To change the owner of the goods

62.

If a hire-purchase agreement requires the hirer to keep the goods at a specific place or not to remove them, what must the hirer do to move the goods to another place?

a)

Notify the police

b)

Apply to a Magistrate’s Court for permission

c)

Obtain verbal consent from the owner

d)

Wait 30 days and then move them

63.

Which statement best describes the hirer's right by operation of law?

a)

A hirer has a right to pass his rights, title, and interest to his personal representative if he dies or is bankrupt

b)

A hirer may sell the goods at any time

c)

A hirer can stop paying installments after 50% is paid

d)

A hirer can demand a refund of all installments

64.

What must a hirer do to exercise the right to early completion of an agreement?

a)

Skip the last two installments

b)

Give written notice to the owner and pay the remaining balance of the agreement on or before the specified date

c)

Return the goods to the owner

d)

Apply to the High Court for discharge

65.

Regarding the duty to keep and notify location of goods, what can the owner do under the law?

a)

Demand the goods be sold

b)

At any time require in writing that the hirer state the location of the goods

c)

Increase the installment amount

d)

Terminate the agreement without reason

66.

If the hirer moves the goods from the original address, what is the hirer required to do?

a)

Inform the owner in writing of the new location

b)

Pay a relocation fee

c)

Seek court approval

d)

Obtain a valuation report

67.

Under the duty to pay installments, if the hirer fails to pay two consecutive installments and less than 75% of the contract price has been paid, what right does the owner have?

a)

Increase the interest rate

b)

Repossess the goods

c)

Charge a late fee only

d)

Terminate all other agreements

68.

Which of the following constitutes an offence under the duty not to dispose of goods?

a)

Temporarily storing the goods at a friend’s house with notice to the owner

b)

Removing, selling, or disposing of the goods with intention to defraud the owner

c)

Requesting early completion

d)

Changing the payment schedule with written agreement

69.

What is the penalty for breaching the duty not to dispose of goods with intent to defraud the owner under the HPA?

a)

Community service only

b)

Fine up to RM50,000 or imprisonment up to 3 years or both

c)

License suspension for 6 months

d)

Mandatory return of the goods without fines

70.

Which statement best defines an electronic contract (e-contract)?

a)

An oral agreement made in person without any written record

b)

An agreement created and executed in digital form, typically over the internet

c)

A handwritten agreement signed with wet ink and delivered by mail

d)

A government-issued policy regulating online behavior

71.

Which is NOT listed as an advantage of e-contracts?

a)

Convenience due to digitization

b)

Speedy communication

c)

Advanced searchability

d)

Greater security because of physical paper use

72.

Which principle governs the formation of e-contracts according to the notes?

a)

They require special rules unique to the internet

b)

Traditional contract formation principles still apply

c)

Consideration is not required online

d)

Only verbal acceptance is valid

73.

What is the effect of a digital signature under the Digital Signature Act 1997 as noted?

a)

It is not legally recognized

b)

It is recognized as the equivalent of a handwritten signature

c)

It makes a contract void by default

d)

It is only valid for government contracts

74.

Which item is included in the authentication and electronic signatures list?

a)

Oral affirmation

b)

Digital signature with encryption certified by a licensed certification authority

c)

Ink stamp approval

d)

Witness testimony only

75.

According to the notes, when a contract is signed digitally by digital signature, what is the validity status?

a)

The contract is void

b)

The contract is valid because the digital signature is recognized as authentic

c)

The contract is voidable only with court permission

d)

The contract is valid only if also printed and signed

76.

Which statement about the enforceability of e-contracts is correct?

a)

They are unenforceable under the Contracts Act 1950

b)

They are enforceable if they comply with general principles of the Contracts Act 1950

c)

They require approval from the central bank

d)

They are enforceable only if notarized

77.

Which factor do courts evaluate for e-contracts according to the notes?

a)

Server location of the website

b)

Intent of parties, clarity of terms, and method of acceptance

c)

Number of website visitors

d)

Length of the privacy policy

78.

Which type of e-contract is formed when terms are visible via a link and no explicit agreement is required?

a)

Clickwrap agreement

b)

Shrinkwrap agreement

c)

Browsewrap agreement

d)

Email contract

79.

In a shrinkwrap agreement, acceptance is implied at what point according to the notes?

a)

When the user downloads the software

b)

When the product is opened or used

c)

When the website is visited

d)

When an email is sent

80.

Which option correctly contrasts data privacy and data protection as described?

a)

Data privacy is about practical security measures; data protection is about individual control

b)

Data privacy is the individual’s right to control personal information; data protection focuses on measures and technologies to secure data

c)

Both terms mean the same in law

d)

Data protection is only about consent while privacy is about encryption

81.

Which PDPA principle states that personal data should not be disclosed without consent?

a)

General principle

b)

Disclosure principle

c)

Security principle

d)

Retention principle

82.

Which PDPA principle requires that reasonable measures be taken to protect personal data integrity?

a)

Security principle

b)

Data integrity principle

c)

Disclosure principle

d)

Retention principle

83.

According to the notes, what does the General principle under Section 6(1) of the PDPA 2010 require?

a)

Data must be destroyed after collection

b)

Data must be processed lawfully and with the data subject’s consent

c)

Data may be shared freely within an organization

d)

Data processing requires encryption