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V Sem BBA POM MCQ Assessment-All modules

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Production refers to:

a)

Selling goods

b)

Converting inputs into outputs

c)

Advertising products

d)

Inventory storage

2.

Operations Management deals with:

a)

Only manufacturing

b)

Both goods and services

c)

Only sales

d)

Marketing functions

3.

Which of the following is a scope of Production Management?

a)

Product design

b)

Advertising

c)

Accounting

d)

Human resource hiring

4.

A system where resources are converted into finished goods is called:

a)

Planning system

b)

Production system

c)

Inventory system

d)

Control system

5.

Mass production is also called:

a)

Continuous production

b)

Job production

c)

Batch production

d)

Project production

6.

Job production involves:

a)

One-time customized items

b)

Large-scale identical products

c)

Seasonal products

d)

Daily consumables

7.

Which of the following is a responsibility of a Production Manager?

a)

Forecasting demand

b)

Planning plant layout

c)

Scheduling production

d)

All of the above

8.

Strategic production decisions include:

a)

Plant location

b)

Day-to-day maintenance

c)

Shift scheduling

d)

Machine assignment

9.

Operations management ensures:

a)

Only profit maximization

b)

Efficiency and customer satisfaction

c)

Just controlling workers

d)

None of the above

10.

Which of the following is not an objective of Production Management?

a)

Cost reduction

b)

Ensuring product quality

c)

Smooth production flow

d)

Increasing taxes

11.

In service industries, operations management involves:

a)

Marketing

b)

Delivering customer experience

c)

HR hiring

d)

Bookkeeping

12.

Decisions on shift scheduling fall under:

a)

Strategic decisions

b)

Tactical decisions

c)

Operational decisions

d)

None

13.

Which is an advantage of Production Management?

a)

High wastage

b)

Low resource utilization

c)

Increased profitability

d)

Unplanned processes

14.

A production system includes:

a)

Inputs → Process → Outputs

b)

Profits → Sales → Marketing

c)

Planning → Accounting → HR

d)

None

15.

Which type of production is used in construction projects?

4 lines
16.

Plant location refers to:

a)

Advertising site

b)

Choosing a place for factory setup

c)

Storage of goods

d)

Designing buildings

17.

A major factor affecting location is:

a)

Climate

b)

Cost of land

c)

Market proximity

d)

All of the above

18.

Which theory emphasizes minimizing transport cost?

a)

Weber’s theory

b)

Maslow’s theory

c)

Herzberg’s theory

d)

Fayol’s theory

19.

A rural location is often chosen for:

a)

High-tech software

b)

Heavy industries

c)

IT companies

d)

None

20.

A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) offers:

a)

Tax benefits

b)

Restricted imports

c)

No transport facilities

d)

None

21.

A good plant layout ensures:

a)

Smooth material flow

b)

Wastage increase

c)

Employee discomfort

d)

High accidents

22.

Space requirements depend on:

a)

Nature of product

b)

Process type

c)

Safety norms

d)

All of the above

23.

Which is a principle of plant layout?

a)

Integration

b)

Minimum movement

c)

Safety

d)

All of the above

24.

Line layout is suitable for:

a)

Job production

b)

Mass production

c)

Customized items

d)

Unique projects

25.

Which layout type suits hospitals?

a)

Process layout

b)

Product layout

c)

Project layout

d)

Cellular layout

26.

Proper sanitation in plant design ensures:

a)

Reduced absenteeism

b)

Healthy workforce

c)

Compliance with law

d)

All of the above

27.

Lighting in plant layout affects:

a)

Worker productivity

b)

Accident reduction

c)

Quality inspection

d)

All of the above

28.

Air conditioning in a factory mainly helps:

a)

Better employee comfort

b)

Improved machine life

c)

Reduced product defects

d)

All of the above

29.

Organization of facilities includes:

(a)  

30.

Cost factor in location decisions includes:

a)

Land cost

b)

Transport cost

c)

Labor cost

d)

All of the above

31.

Production Planning and Control (PPC) means:

a)

Controlling only machines

b)

Planning and regulating production processes

c)

Only quality management

d)

Only worker hiring

32.

A characteristic of PPC is:

a)

Reducing uncertainty

b)

Increasing chaos

c)

Random processes

d)

Ignoring schedules

33.

Objective of PPC includes:

a)

Efficient use of resources

b)

Smooth workflow

c)

Customer satisfaction

d)

All of the above

34.

Which is the first stage of PPC?

a)

Routing

b)

Scheduling

c)

Dispatching

d)

Follow-up

35.

Scheduling refers to:

a)

Ordering raw material

b)

Timing production activities

c)

Recruiting workers

d)

None

36.

Follow-up in PPC means:

a)

Checking progress

b)

Correcting deviations

c)

Ensuring targets met

d)

All of the above

37.

Scope of PPC includes:

a)

Forecasting demand

b)

Plant utilization

c)

Cost control

d)

All of the above

38.

Factor affecting PPC:

a)

Nature of product

b)

Production volume

c)

Market demand

d)

All of the above

39.

A system where planning and control is integrated:

a)

PPC system

b)

HR system

c)

Accounting system

d)

None

40.

Process planning involves:

a)

Deciding sequence of operations

b)

Hiring workers

c)

Advertising products

d)

Designing office layout

41.

Role of PPC in industry:

a)

Efficiency

b)

Timely delivery

c)

Resource utilization

d)

All of the above

42.

Manufacturing Planning involves:

a)

Forecasting production needs

b)

Designing process flows

c)

Scheduling capacity

d)

All of the above

43.

Dispatching refers to:

4 lines
44.

Which of these is NOT a PPC objective?

a)

High downtime

b)

On-time delivery

c)

Cost efficiency

d)

Better coordination

45.

PPC ensures:

a)

Random production

b)

Continuous workflow

c)

Increased wastage

d)

None

46.

Inventory includes:

a)

Raw material

b)

WIP

c)

Finished goods

d)

All of the above

47.

Objective of Inventory Management:

a)

Stock-out minimization

b)

Reduce carrying cost

c)

Smooth production

d)

All of the above

48.

EOQ balances:

a)

Demand and supply

b)

Ordering cost and holding cost

c)

Cost and profit

d)

None

49.

Re-order level depends on:

a)

Lead time and demand

b)

Product price

c)

Advertising

d)

Supplier goodwill

50.

ABC analysis is based on:

a)

Consumption value

b)

Movement speed

c)

Product size

d)

None

51.

VED stands for:

a)

Value, Efficiency, Demand

b)

Vital, Essential, Desirable

c)

Variable, Economic, Durable

d)

None

52.

FSN stands for:

a)

Fast, Slow, Non-moving

b)

Fixed, Stock, Normal

c)

Finished, Surplus, Needed

d)

None

53.

Store ledger records:

a)

Receipt, issue, balance of stock

b)

Employee details

c)

Accounts payable

d)

None

54.

Quality means:

a)

Meeting customer needs

b)

Lower cost only

c)

High advertising

d)

None

55.

Inspection is focused on:

a)

Preventing defects

b)

Detecting defects

c)

Promoting goods

d)

None

56.

QC focuses on:

a)

Eliminating defects during production

b)

Detecting after sales

c)

Only repairing

d)

None

57.

QA ensures:

4 lines
58.

TQM means:

a)

Total Quality Management

b)

Timely Quality Management

c)

Temporary Quality Method

d)

None

59.

Control charts are used in:

a)

Statistical quality control

b)

Marketing control

c)

HR planning

d)

None

60.

Acceptance sampling means:

a)

Inspecting all products

b)

Inspecting samples only

c)

Rejecting all lots

d)

None

61.

Maintenance means:

a)

Keeping equipment in working condition

b)

Advertising products

c)

Selling goods

d)

None

62.

Objective of maintenance:

a)

Ensure reliability

b)

Reduce downtime

c)

Improve safety

d)

All of the above

63.

Breakdown maintenance is also called:

a)

Reactive maintenance

b)

Preventive maintenance

c)

Predictive maintenance

d)

None

64.

Preventive maintenance is done:

a)

After failure

b)

At regular intervals

c)

Randomly

d)

Never

65.

Predictive maintenance is based on:

a)

Condition monitoring

b)

Breakdowns

c)

Employee guesswork

d)

None

66.

Spare parts planning helps:

a)

Reduce downtime

b)

Ensure critical spares available

c)

Avoid emergency buying

d)

All of the above

67.

Maintenance scheduling ensures:

a)

Minimum downtime

b)

High wastage

c)

Random work

d)

None

68.

Reliability means:

a)

Probability equipment works without failure

b)

Equipment always fails

c)

Random usage

d)

None

69.

TPM involves:

a)

All employees in maintenance

b)

Only engineers

c)

Only managers

d)

None

70.

Condition-based maintenance is:

a)

Modern scientific method

b)

Random checks

c)

Only inspection

d)

None

71.

Waste management includes:

(a)  

72.

Scrap is:

a)

Low-value production waste

b)

Excess stock

c)

Recycled product

d)

None

73.

Surplus means:

a)

Extra unused items

b)

Damaged items

c)

Scrap items

d)

None

74.

Salvage means:

a)

Recovering usable parts

b)

Dumping waste

c)

Selling raw material

d)

None

75.

Recovery means:

a)

Extracting useful material from waste

b)

Hiring workers

c)

Buying raw materials

d)

None