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Entrepreneurial Finance

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The personal finances of the nascent entrepreneur and the finances of the start-up venture he creates are inextricably linked. One of the reasons this is true is because most new ventures are founded as _____.

a)

Pass through entities

b)

Virtual entities

c)

corporations

d)

non-profits

2.

There are two major causes of business failure that, with some effort on the part of the entrepreneur, are in many cases, avoidable. They are:

a)

poor timing and lack of proper preparation

b)

inability to find needed talent and currency fluctuations

c)

lack of resources and fierce industry competition

d)

ineffective business partners and economic downturns

3.

Working capital is

a)

equal to current assets divided by current liabilities

b)

The capital required to sustain operations and support business growth after a company's start up phase.

c)

when a customer uses a credit card to buy something and then cancels the transaction

d)

a fund that invests in a basket of assets, such as stocks or bonds and trades on a regulated exchange like the NYSE

4.

The topic of entrepreneurial finance recognizes that oftentimes entrepreneurs make decisions for the businesses they've founded with their personal financial goals clearly in mind.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

A pass through entity is a business whose profits are not taxed at the company level but instead pass through to the business owner's individual tax returns, where they are taxed.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Before starting a business, in order to increase his chances for entrepreneurial success, the aspiring entrepreneur should:

a)

quit his job

b)

work in and learn about the industry in which he intends to start the business

c)

prepare a will

d)

isolate himself from distractions like friends and family

7.

A company's business model indicates how a business concept will make a company- and ultimately the entrepreneur money

a)

True

b)

False

8.

A business plan should not be shown to individuals outside of the organization

a)

True

b)

False

9.

A feasibility analysis:

a)

should never be shown to potential investors

b)

concentrates on assessing the likelihood of economic success of business

c)

should never be over 20 pages long

d)

should be performed immediately after a business has commenced operations

10.

____ financial statements are financial statements that attempt to estimate the future financial situation of a company based upon certain identified assumptions.

a)

traditional

b)

pro forma

c)

historical

d)

comparative

11.

Bootstrapping involves utilizing strategic negotiation tactics in order to avoid, delay, or minimize the outlay of cash.

a)

true

b)

false

12.

Capital acquired by a business with the understanding that the captial will have to be repaid by the business, usually within a defined period and usually with interest is called:

a)

equity capital

b)

debt capital

c)

a grant

d)

rewards based crowdfunding

13.

Capital acquired by a business as a result of selling some form of ownership of that business is called:

a)

equity capital

b)

debt capital

c)

a grant

d)

rewards based crowdfunding

14.

The accumulation of small amounts of capital from a large number of individuals via a campaign on the internet, such individuals generally expecting nothing in return (other than a news update, a small token gift, or a promised product or service, usually of nominal value), is called:

a)

entrepreneurial crowdfunding

b)

lending-based crowdfunding

c)

equity crowdfunding

d)

rewards-based crowdfunding

15.

Once you give away or sell any ownership of your company, it is usually easy to get it back.

a)

true

b)

false

16.

The term “angel investor” originated on Broadway, where it was used to describe the individuals who provided the financing for theatrical productions.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which of the following is not true about proof of concept

a)

Proof of concept is evidence that a start-up’s business concept is feasible.

b)

Proof of concept makes obtaining financing more possible for a start-up.

c)

Proof of concept makes obtaining financing unnecessary for a start-up.

d)

Proof of concept may be in the form of sales of the start-up’s product or service to customers.

18.

Because of the high risk that venture capitalists assume by investing in small, early-stage companies, venture capitalists usually ensure that they can exert significant control over the companies, when they deem such control desirable. This control is viewed by most founders to be an advantage associated with obtaining venture capital investment.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

An accredited investor is:

a)

an individual who typically makes over $50,000 per year in income or has a net worth greater than $10 million

b)

an individual who typically makes over $500,000 per year in income and has a net worth greater than $5 million

c)

an individual who typically makes over $200,000 per year in income or has a net worth greater than $1 million, excluding her primary residence

d)

an individual who has successfully gone through Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) training and is approved to invest in start-ups

20.

Investors in start-ups

a)

are philanthropic and do not expect to make a profit on their investment

b)

take on a lot of risk and as a result expect to make a healthy profit on their investment

c)

do not expect to eventually be repaid or provided with a means to exit their investment

d)

are required to be on the business’s board of directors

21.

Which of the following is not true:

a)

Certain legal forms of business allow both a business owner and his business to avoid paying income taxes on the profits of the business.

b)

Certain legal forms of business significantly limit a business owner’s personal liability with regard to the business.

c)

Certain legal forms of business allow a business owner total control over his business.

d)

Certain legal forms of business permit a business owner to write off the initial losses suffered by a start-up on his personal income tax return.

22.

The legal form of business organization chosen by an entity’s founders is generally permanent and cannot be changed.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Preferred stock is a class of ownership of a C corporation that has a higher claim on the assets and earnings of the corporation than the corporation’s common stock.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The legal form of business organization most often utilized in the United States is the ________________.

a)

Corporation

b)

LLC

c)

Sole proprietorship

d)

partnership

25.

A characteristic of a sole proprietorship is that

a)

it can pay a salary to its owner

b)

it can sell stock in the business

c)

its owner is accountable to a board of directors

d)

its owner has unlimited liability with regard to the business

26.

The distributions received by owners of pass-through entities are not themselves taxed. The taxation of a business’s profits and the distributions to its owners may in fact occur quite independent of each other in terms of timing.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A characteristic of a C corporation is that:

(1pts)

a)

there is significant ongoing paperwork required to properly maintain a corporation

b)

its owners have unlimited liability with regard to the business

c)

its owners are personally liable for any debts of the business

d)

its owners are called “members”

28.

The problem with harvesting cash from a company via capital gain is that—while it is an option available to any legal form of business—it involves selling all or part of the company.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A characteristic of a typical limited liability company is that:

a)

its board of directors elects the officers of the corporation

b)

it is not permitted to have only one owner

c)

it can sell preferred stock in the business

d)

some venture capitalists won’t invest because LLCs are pass-through entities whose income certain limited partners of venture capital firms are legally prohibited from receiving

30.

If they desire to do so, the partners may execute a partnership agreement that allocates income to the partners based on metrics other than the partners’ respective business ownership percentages.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

__________________ is a summary of the revenue and expenses of a business over a specified period of time.

a)

A balance sheet

b)

A statement of Cash Flows

c)

An Income Statement

d)

A statement of financial condition

32.

On its income statement, an S corporation most closely resembles _______________.

a)

an LLC

b)

A C corp

c)

A partnership

d)

a sole proprietorship

33.

A balance sheet is a summary of the assets, liabilities and equity of a business over a specified period of time.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

On a balance sheet, a current asset is an item of value that is either cash or an asset that will be converted into cash within the next 30 days.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

On a balance sheet, accounts payable:

a)

is typically a noncurrent liability

b)

typically represents amounts owed to the vendors that provide essential products/services to the business so that the business can, in turn, produce the products/services it sells to its customers

c)

when sold becomes cost of goods sold

d)

is an operating expense of a product-based business

36.

The equity section of a balance sheet will vary in form and format dependent upon the legal form of the business.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The book value (equity section) indicated by the balance sheet of a business usually accurately reflects the market value of the business.

a)

true

b)

false

38.

On a balance sheet, total assets must always equal:

a)

total liabilities and debt

b)

net income minus that year’s dividend payments

c)

total liabilities and equity

d)

the total cash inflows to the business minus the total cash outflows of the business

39.

On a statement of cash flows, the net increase (decrease) in cash:

a)

is not always determinable

b)

plus the ending cash balance from the current year should equal the beginning cash balance on the current year’s balance sheet

c)

is the same amount every year

d)

represents the overall change in the company’s cash balance during the current year

40.

For most entrepreneurial start-ups, it is necessary to hire a full time accountant (as an employee of the organization) to manage the accounting information system and prepare year-end financial statements, tax documents and tax returns.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

If net income for 2019 was $316,000, owner’s equity as of 12/31/18 was $185,000, distributions during 2019 were $155,000, and the amount of equity investment during 2019 was $215,000, owner’s equity as of 12/31/19 for Airborne Enterprises, LLC was:

a)

$871,000

b)

$716,000

c)

$561,000

d)

$346,000

42.

Pro forma financial statements are a company's:

a)

historical financials

b)

projected future financials

c)

both historical and projected

d)

neither historical or projected

43.

The text covers four basic methods for financial statement analysis, including all of the following except:

a)

vertical

b)

up-side-down

c)

ratio

d)

breakeven

44.

Which method is most relevant when contemplating the addition of a new product or service, or starting a new venture?

a)

Veritcal

b)

Up-side-down

c)

Ratio

d)

Breakeven

45.

Vertical analysis:

a)

is an entrepreneur’s best attempt to predict the future operational effectiveness, profitability, and cash flows of a business, often with the goal of obtaining funding for the business

b)

is the process of using a single line item on a financial statement as a constant and determining how all the other line items relate as a percentage of that constant

c)

involves determining the percentage increase or decrease in each line of a financial statement from a base time period to a successive time period

d)

is the form of analysis most relevant to a business owner contemplating adding a new product or service to his company’s offerings or an entrepreneur contemplating starting a new venture

46.

Comparative financial statements present more than one period or date of financial statement information side-by-side in such a way the reader can easily compare the different periods or dates.

a)

true

b)

False

47.

Meaningful financial analysis will require comparisons of ratios to past company ratios and/or industry/competitor ratios.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

For a business, breakeven is the point where the business’s revenue equals zero. For a product line, breakeven is the point at which that product line’s revenue equals zero.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Unit Contribution is:

a)

the amount of sales price left over after profit per unit has been considered

b)

the amount of sales price left over after applicable variable and fixed costs have been considered

c)

the amount of sales price left over after applicable fixed costs have been considered

d)

the amount of sales price left over after applicable variable costs have been considered

50.

When calculating breakeven units, one _______________.

a)

should always round up to the next whole unit

b)

should always round down to the next whole unit

c)

should always round to the closest whole unit

d)

should never round the result

51.

A fixed cost is a cost that varies in total with a change in the volume of production or sales, but is fixed on a per unit basis.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

The amount for which an asset is expected to be sold after a business has fully depreciated the asset and ceased using it is called _______________.

a)

net fixed asset value

b)

cost

c)

accumulated depreciation

d)

salvage value

53.

A schedule of start-up costs, like many schedules the entrepreneur will create, begins with a list of words, rather than numbers

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The amount added to the cost of a good to determine its sales price is called markup.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The entrepreneur hopes to be able to show in the feasibility analysis that the expected sales units and/or the expected sales revenue for the potential business will, in short order, be _______________ the calculated breakeven sales units and breakeven revenue levels.

a)

below

b)

significantly below

c)

above

d)

equal to

56.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

All pro forma financial statements are an entrepreneur’s best guess of the future based on research and logic.

b)

If the research that underlies pro forma financial statements is poor, the financial statements will be of little value.

c)

There’s no such thing as a “correct” pro forma financial statement.

d)

The only reason an entrepreneur needs to create pro forma financial statements is if a potential investor or lender requests them.

57.

Primary market research is performed to provide insight regarding the size and complexity of an industry, the number and nature of its participants, and the economic, political, market, and other factors that affect it.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Every time the pro forma income statements (or early pro forma balance sheets) are updated with new information, every existing pro forma balance sheet, reconciliation of cash, reconciliation of equity, and statement of cash flows dated on or after that change will also have to be updated.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which of the following is true regarding estimating sales for a brand new venture?

a)

As much as reasonably possible, sales need to be estimated from the top down rather than built from the bottom up.

b)

As much as reasonably possible, sales need to be built from the bottom up rather than estimated from the top down.

c)

As much as reasonably possible, the entrepreneur should avoid estimating sales for a brand new venture.

d)

As much as reasonably possible, the entrepreneur should overestimate the sales for a brand new venture.

60.

Total fixed costs divided by gross margin equals:

a)

unit contribution

b)

breakeven units

c)

breakeven revenue

d)

breakeven price

61.

One way to determine the expected sales amount for an item or group of items is to divide the cost of the item or group of items by the expected margin for that item or group of items.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The sales price for an item that costs $10, assuming a retailer wishes to achieve a target margin of 20%, would equal:

a)

50.00

b)

12.50

c)

12.00

d)

8.00

63.

The percentage of sales method involves a 7-step process, the first step of which is:

a)

calculating or determining the expected percentage increase or decrease in sales from the previous year to the current year

b)

incorporating into the preliminary balance sheet those assumptions and expectations about the future of the company about which we are confident

c)

calculating subtotals and totals on the preliminary balance sheet

d)

creating a reconciliation of cash and a reconciliation of equity

64.

The percentage of sales method is a technique used to develop a pro forma balance sheet based on the fact that the assets and liabilities of a company typically vary with its sales.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

When preparing a pro forma balance sheet, total assets doesn’t have to equal total liabilities and equity.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which of the following statements is false regarding the preparation of a pro forma balance sheet using the percentage of sales method:

a)

Subtotals and totals should not be determined using the percentage increase or decrease in sales.

b)

Cash and equity should not be determined using the percentage increase or decrease in sales.

c)

Every balance sheet item other than subtotals, totals, cash and equity should be determined using the percentage increase or decrease in sales.

d)

The cash and equity line items should reflect the balances indicated by their respective reconciliations.

67.

The typical expectation regarding the disposal of a fixed asset when creating pro forma financial statements is that the fixed asset will be:

a)

sold for more than its cost

b)

sold for its cost

c)

assigned a salvage value of $0 and then abandoned sometime after it is fully depreciated—or that the fixed asset will be sold for its designated salvage value sometime after it is fully depreciated

d)

sold for at least $100

68.

As a business moves forward in time and becomes more mature, there will generally be more asset and liability line items included on the business’s balance sheet.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

A pro forma balance sheet should reflect the cash and equity balances determined by preparing reconciliations of cash and equity.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

After all is said and done, when preparing a pro forma balance sheet using the percentage of sales method, we only use the calculated percentage increase or decrease in sales to estimate pro forma balance sheet line items we don’t know or can’t estimate through other means.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Every increase or decrease in the noncash asset and liability accounts on a reconciliation of cash is reflected on its associated statement of cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following would be included on a pro forma statement of cash flows?

a)

an amount reclassified from short-term to long-term on a balance sheet

b)

the amount of a fully depreciated fixed asset with no salvage value disposed of for $0

c)

cash distributions to a company’s owners