wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

RESP 150 Exam 3 Chapters 13-17 Review Quiz

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pentamidine is:

a)

a bactericidal agent

b)

an antiprotozoal agent

c)

an antiviral agent

d)

an antibiotic

2.

Inhaled pentamidine is indicated for:

a)

treatment of bronchospasm.

b)

bacterial pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients.

c)

prevention of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP).

d)

treatment of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

3.

Local airway side effects of aerosolized pentamidine include which of the following?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Coughing

c)

Shortness of breath

d)

Sweating

4.

Ribavirin is active against which of the following?

a)

Tuberculosis organisms

b)

Influenza virus

c)

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

d)

Pneumocystis jiroveci organisms

5.

The normal dosage schedule of ribavirin is:

a)

20 mg/ml nebulized for 12 to 18 hr per day for 3 to 7 days.

b)

20 mg/ml nebulized for 24 hr per day for 5 days.

c)

40 mg/ml nebulized for 3 to 6 hr per day for 3 to 7 days.

d)

30 mg/ml nebulized for 12 to 18 hr per day for 14 days.

6.

On what principle does the small particle aerosol generator (SPAG) unit operate?

a)

Venturi

b)

Hydrodynamic

c)

Jet shearing

d)

Ultrasonic

7.

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) can cause which of the following?

a)

Asthma

b)

Bronchiolitis

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pneumonia

8.

A physician asked you to suggest an aerosolized antiinfective for a cystic fibrosis patient with chronic Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. Which is the most appropriate medication?

a)

Levalbuterol

b)

Pentamidine

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Tobramycin

9.

Tobramycin is a member of which antibiotic group?

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Antifungals

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

First-generation cephalosporins

10.

After reviewing your patient’s chart, you notice he experiences wheezing during his NebuPent treatments. What should you suggest to his physician?

a)

Stop this medication immediately because it is causing respiratory side effects.

b)

Keep giving the medication as prescribed; wheezing does not cause any problems.

c)

Have the patient use a β-adrenergic bronchodilator before inhaling aerosolized NebuPent.

d)

Explain to the other therapists they should not chart adverse side effects.

11.

The most common pathogens responsible for community-acquired pneumonia include which of the following?

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Chlamydrophila pneumoniae

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

12.

Penicillins are:

a)

bactericidal.

b)

bacteriostatic.

c)

virucidal.

d)

fungicidal.

13.

The most common adverse reaction to penicillin is:

a)

headache.

b)

nausea.

c)

allergic reaction.

d)

seizures.

14.

The treatment of choice for pulmonary infections such as aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, and coccidioidomycosis is:

a)

rifampin.

b)

ciprofloxacin.

c)

ampicillin.

d)

amphotericin B.

15.

A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis jiroveci. You are asked to recommend an antibiotic that is active against Pneumocystis jiroveci. Your recommendation would be:

a)

pentamidine.

b)

TMP-SMX.

c)

levofloxacin.

d)

tetracycline.

16.

An important mediator of local inflammatory responses is:

a)

histamine.

b)

epinephrine.

c)

acetylcholine.

d)

Tylenol.

17.

A wheal and flare reaction is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Welt formation

b)

Local redness

c)

Fever

d)

Local swelling

18.

Receptors located on nerve endings, smooth muscle, and glandular cells that are involved in inflammation and allergic reactions are:

a)

adrenergic receptors.

b)

cholinergic receptors.

c)

H1 receptors.

d)

H2 receptors.

19.

Cough suppressants act by:

a)

numbing the upper airway.

b)

depressing the cough center in the medulla.

c)

reducing bronchospasm.

d)

decreasing mucus production.

20.

Which of the following may be prescribed as an antitussive?

a)

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)

b)

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)

c)

Guaifenesin (Robitussin)

d)

Benzonatate (Tessalon)

21.

What is the primary function of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) in the body?

a)

Stimulate red blood cell production

b)

Inhibit neutrophil elastase to protect tissues

c)

Promote liver enzyme activity

d)

Transport oxygen in the blood

22.

Which organs are primarily affected by A1AT deficiency?

a)

Heart and kidneys

b)

Brain and pancreas

c)

Lungs and liver

d)

Skin and intestines

23.

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of A1AT deficiency?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Mitochondrial inheritance

24.

How does A1AT deficiency lead to emphysema?

a)

By increasing mucus production in the lungs

b)

By allowing neutrophil elastase to break down alveolar walls

c)

By causing bronchial constriction

d)

By reducing surfactant production

25.

Which liver condition is commonly associated with A1AT deficiency?

a)

Cirrhosis due to alcohol

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Neonatal hepatitis and liver fibrosis

d)

Hemochromatosis

26.

What is the most common defective allele associated with severe A1AT deficiency?

a)

M allele

b)

Z allele

c)

S allele

d)

A allele

27.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm A1AT deficiency?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Liver biopsy

c)

Serum A1AT level and phenotype/genotype testing

d)

Pulmonary function test

28.

What treatment options are available for patients with A1AT deficiency?

a)

Antibiotics and antihistamines

b)

A1AT replacement therapy and lifestyle modifications

c)

Chemotherapy and radiation

d)

Antiviral medications

29.

Why might liver transplantation be considered in some A1AT deficiency cases?

a)

To treat lung infections

b)

To correct genetic mutations

c)

To address severe liver damage or failure

d)

To improve oxygen delivery

30.

What lifestyle change is especially important for individuals with A1AT deficiency to prevent lung damage?

a)

Avoiding dairy products

b)

Quitting smoking

c)

Increasing protein intake

d)

Reducing salt consumption

31.

What is the primary role of alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) in the lungs?

a)

Stimulate mucus production

b)

Transport oxygen to alveoli

c)

Inhibit neutrophil elastase to protect lung tissue

d)

Promote surfactant secretion

32.

How does AAT deficiency lead to emphysema?

a)

It causes bronchial constriction

b)

It allows neutrophil elastase to destroy alveolar walls

c)

It increases mucus viscosity

d)

It reduces oxygen diffusion

33.

Which type of emphysema is most commonly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency?

a)

Centriacinar

b)

Panacinar

c)

Bullous

d)

Interstitial

34.

Which genotypes are associated with severe AAT deficiency?

a)

MM

b)

MS

c)

ZZ

d)

SS

35.

What symptoms might indicate liver involvement in AAT deficiency?

a)

Hematuria and flank pain

b)

Jaundice and hepatomegaly

c)

Bradycardia and hypotension

d)

Cyanosis and clubbing

36.

Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of AAT deficiency?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Liver biopsy

c)

Serum AAT level and genetic testing

d)

Pulmonary function test

37.

What is the purpose of augmentation therapy in AAT deficiency?

a)

Cure the genetic mutation

b)

Restore protective levels of AAT in the lungs

c)

Reduce liver inflammation

d)

Increase surfactant production

38.

Why is smoking especially harmful in patients with AAT deficiency?

a)

It increases mucus clearance

b)

It accelerates elastin breakdown and lung damage

c)

It boosts AAT production

d)

It reduces liver enzyme activity

39.

What is the difference between panacinar and centriacinar emphysema?

a)

Panacinar affects upper lobes; centriacinar affects lower lobes

b)

Panacinar involves uniform alveolar destruction; centriacinar is patchy

c)

Panacinar is caused by smoking; centriacinar by genetics

d)

Panacinar is reversible; centriacinar is not

40.

Which population should be screened more aggressively for AAT deficiency?

a)

Children with asthma

b)

Adults with early-onset COPD or unexplained liver disease

c)

Smokers over age 65

d)

Patients with frequent sinus infections

41.

The recommended dosage of Prolastin-C is:

a)

30 mg/kg once daily.

b)

40 mg/kg once weekly.

c)

50 mg/kg once weekly.

d)

60 mg/kg once weekly.

42.

Potential adverse effects of Prolastin-C administration include which of the following?

a)

Fever

b)

Exacerbation

c)

Arrhythmias

d)

Flu-like symptoms

43.

Physical symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include which of the following?

a)

Irritability

b)

Weight gain

c)

Craving for nicotine

d)

Anxiety

e)

Sleep disturbances

44.

The nicotine replacement method that provides the most consistent level of nicotine and that is easy and convenient is:

a)

the transdermal patch

b)

gum

c)

a nasal spray

d)

an inhaler

45.

The drug used to treat hypoxic respiratory failure in newborns with pulmonary hypertension is:

a)

ribavirin.

b)

Xopenex.

c)

Survanta.

d)

nitric oxide.

46.

Which of the following affect penetration and deposition of an aerosol in neonatal and pediatric patients?

a)

Inertial impaction

b)

Particle size

c)

Velocity

d)

Sedimentation

47.

A dry powder inhaler (DPI) is not recommended for children younger than age:

a)

5 yr

b)

7 yr

c)

8 yr

d)

12 yr

48.

A respiratory therapist is administering a nebulizer treatment to an intubated pediatric patient and notices an increase in the patient’s airway pressure. What could be the cause?

a)

The nebulizer.

b)

The medication is working.

c)

PEEP has decreased.

d)

Decrease in volume delivered by the ventilator.

49.

A patient is considered a child if he or she is:

a)

less than 37 wk of gestational age

b)

in the first month of postnatal life

c)

12 to 18 yr

d)

1 to 12 yr

50.

Patients with a history of __________ should not use Afrezza.

a)

hypertension

b)

lung disorders

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

gout

51.

Match the brand name to the generic name.

a)

Pentamidine isethionate

1.

NebuPent

b)

Ribavirin

2.

Virazole

c)

Tobramycin

3.

TOBI

d)

Aztreonam

4.

Cayston

e)

Zanamivir

5.

Relenza

52.

Match the brand name to the generic name.

a)

Oseltamivir

1.

Tamiflu

b)

Amphotericin B

2.

Fungizone

c)

Fluconazole

3.

Diflucan

d)

Oxymetazoline

4.

Afrin

e)

Phenylephrine

5.

Sudafed PE

53.

Match the brand name to the generic name.

a)

Pseudoephedrine Hydrochloride

1.

Sudafed

b)

Chlorpheniramine

2.

Chlor-Trimeton

c)

Diphenhydramine HCL

3.

Benadryl

d)

Cetirizine

4.

Zyrtec

e)

Loratadine

5.

Claritin

54.

Match the brand name to the generic name.

a)

Fexofenadine

1.

Allegra

b)

Guaifenesin

2.

Mucinex

c)

Benzonatate

3.

Tessalon

d)

Dextromethorphan

4.

Robitussin

e)

Varenicline

5.

Chantix

55.

Match the brand name to the generic name

a)

Clinidine

1.

Catapres

b)

Bupropion

2.

Zyban

c)

Nortriptyline

3.

Pamelor

56.

Match the brand name to the generic name.

a)

Iloprost

1.

Ventavis

b)

Treprostinil

2.

Tyvaso

c)

Inhaled Insulin

3.

Afrezza

57.

What is the trade name for Pentamidine?

a)

Virazole

b)

NebuPent

c)

TOBI

d)

Pulmozyme

58.

How is Pentamidine administered?

a)

Oral tablet

b)

IV infusion

c)

Inhalation via Respirgard II

d)

Nasal spray

59.

What is a side effect of Pentamidine?

a)

Rash

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

60.

What is the trade name for Ribavirin?

a)

Relenza

b)

Virazole

c)

Prolastin

d)

Mucomyst

61.

What device is used to deliver Ribavirin?

a)

DPI

b)

SPAG

c)

MDI

d)

Nebulizer

62.

What type of drug is Ribavirin?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Antifungal

c)

Antiviral

d)

Bronchodilator

63.

What is the drug class of Relenza?

a)

Beta agonist

b)

Neuraminidase inhibitor

c)

Corticosteroid

d)

Antihistamine

64.

What does Relenza treat?

a)

RSV

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Influenza A and B

d)

COPD

65.

What is Isoniazid used for?

a)

RSV

b)

Influenza

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Asthma

66.

How are bacteria identified?

a)

CT scan

b)

Gram stain and culture

c)

MRI

d)

Ultrasound

67.

What does bacteriostatic mean?

a)

Kills bacteria

b)

Inhibits bacterial growth

c)

Enhances bacterial replication

d)

Neutralizes toxins

68.

What do MRSA and VRE have in common?

a)

Viral origin

b)

Antibiotic resistance

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Airborne transmission

69.

How does penicillin work?

a)

Inhibits protein synthesis

b)

Disrupts DNA replication

c)

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

d)

Blocks folic acid

70.

Cephalosporins are classified by:

a)

Route of administration

b)

Spectrum of activity

c)

Cost

d)

Manufacturer

71.

What drug treats Pseudomonas aeruginosa in CF?

a)

Ribavirin

b)

TOBI

c)

Relenza

d)

Mucomyst

72.

A side effect of Amphotericin B is:

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Bradycardia

73.

What does sympathomimetic mean?

a)

Blocks sympathetic activity

b)

Mimics parasympathetic system

c)

Mimics sympathetic system

d)

Inhibits neurotransmitters

74.

Repeated use of adrenergic nose spray may cause:

a)

Bronchospasm

b)

Rebound congestion

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Fever

75.

Acetylcysteine works by:

a)

Cleaving DNA

b)

Hydrating mucus

c)

Breaking disulfide bonds

d)

Stimulating cilia

76.

Dornase alfa is used for:

a)

Asthma

b)

CF

c)

COPD

d)

Tuberculosis

77.

Hypertonic saline helps by:

a)

Suppressing cough

b)

Hydrating airway surface

c)

Blocking receptors

d)

Reducing inflammation

78.

A common expectorant is:

a)

Codeine

b)

Guaifenesin

c)

Dextromethorphan

d)

Albuterol

79.

What treats a dry hacking cough?

a)

Expectorant

b)

Antitussive

c)

Mucolytic

d)

Antibiotic

80.

Risk of OTC cold meds includes:

a)

Enhanced immunity

b)

Masking serious conditions

c)

Improved sleep

d)

Weight loss

81.

Side effects of OTC cold meds may include:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Rash

d)

Constipation

82.

Drugs for α1-antitrypsin deficiency include:

a)

TOBI

b)

Prolastin

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Dornase alfa

83.

Mechanism of α1-antitrypsin therapy:

a)

Stimulates mucus clearance

b)

Inhibits neutrophil elastase

c)

Blocks viral replication

84.

Diagnosis of α1-antitrypsin deficiency includes:

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Serum AAT level and genetic testing

c)

Sputum culture

d)

Skin test

85.

Smoking cessation drugs include:

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Varenicline

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Amphotericin B

86.

Signs of nicotine addiction:

a)

Rash

b)

Cravings and irritability

c)

Fever

d)

Cough

87.

When to recommend nicotine replacement?

a)

When patient has asthma

b)

When patient expresses desire to quit

c)

When patient has pneumonia

d)

When patient is hospitalized

88.

Nitric oxide is a:

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Pulmonary vasodilator

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Antiviral

89.

Toxic effect of nitric oxide:

a)
Hyperkalemia
b)

Methemoglobinemia

c)

Rash

d)

Bradycardia

90.

Drug used in diabetic patients:

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Afrezza

c)

Ribavirin

d)

TOBI

91.

Aerosol delivery in infants is affected by:

a)

Age only

b)

Mask fit and breathing pattern

c)

Drug type

d)

Temperature

92.

Age range of premature neonate:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1-12 months

d)

12-18 years

93.

Age range of neonate:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1-12 months

d)

12-18 years

94.

Age range of infant:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

95.

Age range of adolescent:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

96.

Which is a nicotine replacement therapy?

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Nicotine patch

c)

Ribavirin

d)

TOBI

97.

What is Zyban?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Antiviral

c)

Bupropion

d)

Corticosteroid

98.

What is Chantix?

a)

Varenicline

b)

Codeine

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Ribavirin

99.

What improves success in smoking cessation?

a)

Single therapy

b)

Combination therapy

c)

Avoidance

d)

Cold turkey

100.

What is the route for Prolastin?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

101.

What is the route for Afrezza?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

102.

What is the route for Dornase alfa?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

103.

What is the route for Ribavirin?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Inhalation via SPAG unit

d)

Subcutaneous

Similar Resources on Wayground

LATIHAN UTM MODUL 5.2 ( 100 SOAL )

100 questions

LATIHAN UTM MODUL 5.2 ( 100 SOAL )

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Sağlık ve Engellilik Kelime Eşleştirme (Çalışma Sayfası)

99 questions

Sağlık ve Engellilik Kelime Eşleştirme (Çalışma Sayfası)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Medical Terminology Semester 1 Exam

100 questions

Medical Terminology Semester 1 Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Maternity Final

100 questions

Maternity Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

UNIT 2_ʙ (Menstrual Cycle)

98 questions

UNIT 2_ʙ (Menstrual Cycle)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

2121 Exam 1 OT pt.2

99 questions

2121 Exam 1 OT pt.2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

2121 Exam 1 OT pt.3

100 questions

2121 Exam 1 OT pt.3

quiz

Worksheet

•

University