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Chapter 25 & Chapter 26 - Antiarrhythmic Drugs and Nursing Care

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action?

a)

Blocking slow calcium channels

b)

Prolonging action potential duration

c)

Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0

d)

Decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4

2.

A patient is taking procainamide (Pronestyl) for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse will monitor the patient for which possible adverse effect?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Shortened QT interval

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Diarrhea

3.

Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics?

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Deficient knowledge

c)

Deficient fluid volume

d)

Urinary retention

4.

A patient will be discharged on quinidine sulfate (Quinidex) extended-release tablets for the treatment of ventricular ectopy. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?

a)

The medication should be stopped once the cardiac symptoms subside.

b)

Signs of cinchonism, such as tinnitus, loss of hearing, or slight blurring of vision, may occur.

c)

It is important to use sunscreen products when outside because of increased photosensitivity.

d)

If any tablet or capsule is visible in the stool, contact the prescriber immediately.

5.

A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia?

a)

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

b)

Verapamil (Calan)

c)

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

d)

Adenosine (Adenocard)

6.

The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine (Adenocard) to a patient who is experiencing an acute episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. When giving this medication, which action is important to remember?

a)

The onset of action occurs in 5 minutes.

b)

The medication must be given as a slow intravenous (IV) push.

c)

Asystole may occur for a few seconds after administration.

d)

The medication has a long half-life, and therefore duration of action is very long.

7.

A 62-year-old man is to receive lidocaine as treatment for a symptomatic dysrhythmia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that he has a history of alcoholism and has late-stage liver failure. The nurse will expect which adjustments to his drug therapy?

a)

The dosage will be reduced by 50%.

b)

A diuretic will be added to the lidocaine.

c)

The lidocaine will be changed to an oral dosage form.

d)

An increased dosage of lidocaine will be prescribed so as to obtain adequate blood levels.

8.

A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Nystagmus

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Convulsions

9.

When starting a patient on antidysrhythmic therapy, the nurse will remember that which problem is a potential adverse effect of any antidysrhythmic drug?

a)

Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Heart failure

d)

Dysrhythmias

10.

A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?

a)

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

b)

Atenolol (Tenormin)

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Adenosine (Adenocard)

11.

The nurse notes in the patient’s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?

a)

Ventricular ectopy

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Supraventricular tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

12.

A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse’s response is based on which rationale?

a)

Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic effect.

b)

Both medications are needed to prevent bleeding complications.

c)

Warfarin is used to reverse the effects of heparin.

d)

Heparin and warfarin work together to increase platelet production.

13.

A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?

a)

Dysrhythmias

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Anaphylactic reactions

d)

Internal and superficial bleeding

14.

A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Potassium chloride

15.

When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?

a)

Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication

b)

Massaging the site after injection

c)

Applying heat to the injection site

d)

Using a - to -inch 25- to 28-gauge needle

16.

A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication?

a)

Aspirin needs to be taken on an empty stomach to ensure maximal absorption.

b)

Low-dose aspirin therapy rarely causes problems with bleeding.

c)

Take the medication with 6 to 8 ounces of water and with food.

d)

Coated tablets may be crushed if necessary for easier swallowing.

17.

A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose?

a)

To relieve chest pain

b)

To prevent further clot formation

c)

To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery

d)

To control bleeding in the coronary vessels

18.

A patient is receiving heparin therapy for treatment of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug’s effectiveness?

a)

Bleeding times

b)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

c)

Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)

d)

Vitamin K levels

19.

The nurse notes in the patient’s medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?

a)

Stabilizing an existing thrombus

b)

Dissolving an existing thrombus

c)

Preventing thrombus formation

d)

Dilating the vessel around a clot

20.

A patient is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. The nurse will include in the patient education conversation that it is important to avoid herbal products that contain which substance?

a)

Valerian

b)

Ginkgo

c)

Soy

d)

Saw palmetto

21.

A patient has had recent mechanical heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient’s laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that:

a)

the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to have a therapeutic effect.

b)

the patient’s warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels.

c)

the patient’s intravenous heparin dose is dangerously high.

d)

the patient’s intravenous heparin dose is at therapeutic levels.

22.

A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Potassium chloride

23.

The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for a patient who has an epidural catheter for pain relief. One of the orders is for enoxaparin (Lovenox), a low–molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Give the LMWH as ordered.

b)

Double-check the LMWH order with another nurse, and then administer as ordered.

c)

Stop the epidural pain medication, and then administer the LMWH.

d)

Contact the prescriber because the LMWH cannot be given if the patient has an epidural catheter

24.

When reviewing the health history of a patient, the nurse will note that a potential contraindication to potassium supplements exists if the patient has which problem?

a)

Burns

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Renal disease

d)

Cardiac tachydysrhythmias

25.

During a blood transfusion, the patient begins to have chills and back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Observe for other symptoms.

b)

Slow the infusion rate of the blood.

c)

Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriber.

d)

Tell the patient that these symptoms are a normal reaction to the blood product.

26.

The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?

a)

We will need to monitor this infusion closely.

b)

The infusion rate should not go over 10 mEq/hr.

c)

The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we give it.

d)

The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted.

27.

A patient is in an urgent care center and is receiving treatment for mild hyponatremia after spending several hours doing gardening work in the heat of the day. The nurse expects that which drug therapy will be used to treat this condition?

a)

Oral supplementation of fluids

b)

Intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer’s solution

c)

Normal saline infusion, administered slowly

d)

Oral administration of sodium chloride tablets

28.

When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?

a)

Seizures

b)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Muscle weakness

29.

During an infusion of albumin, the nurse monitors the patient closely for the development of which adverse effect?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Fluid volume deficit

c)

Fluid volume overload

d)

Transfusion reaction

30.

A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Anemia

c)

Coagulation disorder

d)

Previous transfusion reaction

31.

The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which intravenous solution is correct for use with the PRBC transfusion?

a)

5% dextrose in water (D5W)

b)

0.9% sodium chloride (NS)

c)

5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride (D5NS)

d)

5% dextrose in lactated Ringer’s solution (D5LR)

32.

The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion?

a)

A patient with a coagulation disorder

b)

A patient with severe anemia

c)

A patient who has lost a massive amount of blood after an accident

d)

A patient who has a clotting-factor deficiency

33.

After a severe auto accident, a patient has been taken to the trauma unit and has an estimated blood loss of more than 30% of his blood volume. The nurse prepares to administer which product?

a)

Albumin

b)

Whole blood

c)

Packed red blood cells

d)

Fresh frozen plasma

34.

A patient who is severely anemic also has acute heart failure with severe edema due to fluid overload. The prescriber wants to raise the patient’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which blood product?

a)

Fresh frozen plasma

b)

Albumin

c)

Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

d)

Whole blood

35.

The nurse is preparing to give a potassium supplement. Which laboratory test should be

a)

Serum potassium level

b)

Serum sodium level

c)

Serum calcium level

d)

Serum magnesium level

36.

When giving dextromethorphan, the nurse understands that this drug suppresses the cough reflex by which mechanism of action?

a)

Causing depression of the central nervous system

b)

Anesthetizing the stretch receptors

c)

Having direct action on the cough center

d)

Decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions

37.

During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?

a)

Constipation

b)

Abdominal cramps

c)

Drowsiness

d)

Decreased libido

38.

A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants?

a)

Immediate onset

b)

A more potent effect

c)

Lack of rebound congestion

d)

Shorter duration

39.

A patient is taking guaifenesin (Humibid) as part of treatment for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include during patient teaching?

a)

Force fluids to help loosen and liquefy secretions.

b)

Report clear-colored sputum to the prescriber.

c)

Avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery because of the sedating effects.

d)

Report symptoms that last longer than 2 days.

40.

The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect will the nurse include?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Drowsiness

d)

Palpitations

41.

A patient with a tracheostomy has difficulty removing excessive, thick mucus from the respiratory tract. The nurse expects that which drug will be ordered to aid in the removal of mucus?

a)

Guaifenesin (Humibid)

b)

Benzonatate (Tessalon Perles)

c)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

d)

Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)

42.

A patient has been advised to add a nasal spray (an adrenergic decongestant) to treat a cold. The nurse will include which instruction?

a)

You won't see effects for at least 1 week.

b)

Limit use of this spray to 3 to 5 days.

c)

Continue the spray until nasal stuffiness has resolved.

d)

Avoid use of this spray if a fever develops.

43.

A patient asks the nurse about the uses of echinacea. Which use will the nurse include in the response?

a)

Memory enhancement

b)

Boosting the immune system

c)

Improving mood

d)

Promoting relaxation

44.

A patient is taking intravenous aminophylline for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will assess for which therapeutic response?

a)

Increased sputum production

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Increased respiratory rate

d)

Increased ease of breathing

45.

A patient is taking a xanthine derivative as part of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Increased respiratory rate

c)

Increased urination

d)

Increased sleepiness

46.

A patient is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used for initial treatment?

a)

An anticholinergic such as ipratropium (Atrovent)

b)

A short-acting beta2 agonist such as albuterol (Proventil)

c)

A long-acting beta2 agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent)

d)

A corticosteroid such as fluticasone (Flovent)

47.

The prescriber has changed the patient’s medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) montelukast (Singulair) to treat asthma. The nurse will emphasize which point about this medication?

a)

The proper technique for inhalation must be followed.

b)

The patient needs to keep it close by at all times to treat acute asthma attacks.

c)

It needs to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve.

d)

When the asthma symptoms improve, the dosage schedule can be tapered and eventually discontinued.

48.

After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a beta agonist, the patient complains of feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse’s best response?

a)

This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse.

b)

The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped.

c)

I will notify the physician about this adverse effect.

d)

We will hold the treatment for 24 hours.

49.

A patient has prescriptions for two inhalers. One inhaler is a bronchodilator, and the other is a corticosteroid. Which instruction regarding these inhalers will the nurse give to the patient?

a)

Take the corticosteroid inhaler first.

b)

Take the bronchodilator inhaler first.

c)

Take these two drugs at least 2 hours apart.

d)

It does not matter which inhaler you use first.

50.

When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects?

a)

Fatigue and depression

b)

Anxiety and palpitations

c)

Headache and rapid heart rate

d)

Oral candidiasis and dry mouth

51.

The nurse is monitoring drug levels for a patient who is receiving theophylline. The most recent theophylline level was 22 mcg/mL, and the nurse evaluates this level to be:

a)

below the therapeutic level

b)

at a therapeutic level

c)

above the therapeutic level

d)

at a toxic level

52.

When evaluating a patient’s use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?

a)

Notify the doctor that the patient is unable to use the MDI.

b)

Obtain an order for a peak flow meter.

c)

Obtain an order for a spacer device.

d)

Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally

53.

The nurse is providing instructions about the Advair inhaler (fluticasone propionate and salmeterol). Which statement about this inhaler is accurate?

a)

It is indicated for the treatment of acute bronchospasms.

b)

It needs to be used with a spacer for best results.

c)

Patients need to avoid drinking water for 1 hour after taking this drug.

d)

It is used for the prevention of bronchospasms.

54.

One patient has cancer of the bone; another has cancer in the connective tissues of the thigh muscles; a third patient has cancer in the vascular tissues. Which of these is the correct term for these tumors?

a)

Sarcoma

b)

Leukemia

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Lymphoma

55.

A patient is receiving her third course of 5-fluorouracil therapy and knows that stomatitis is a potential adverse effect of antineoplastic therapy. What will the nurse teach her about managing this problem?

a)

You can take aspirin to prevent stomatitis.

b)

Be sure to watch for and report black, tarry stools immediately.

c)

You need to increase your intake of foods containing fiber and citric acid.

d)

Be sure to examine your mouth daily for bleeding, painful areas, and ulcerations.

56.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient who is experiencing gastrointestinal adverse effects, including anorexia and nausea, after the first course of antineoplastic therapy. What is an appropriate outcome for this patient when dealing with this problem?

a)

The patient will eat three balanced meals a day within 2 days.

b)

The patient will return to normal eating pattern within 4 weeks.

c)

The patient will maintain normal weight by consuming healthy snacks as tolerated.

d)

The patient will maintain a diet of small, frequent feedings with nutrition supplements within 2 weeks.

57.

A patient is receiving high doses of methotrexate and is experiencing severe bone marrow suppression. The nurse expects which intervention to be ordered with this drug to reduce the risk?

a)

A transfusion of whole blood

b)

Leucovorin rescue

c)

Therapy with filgrastim (Neupogen)

d)

Administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim)

58.

A patient who has been on methotrexate therapy is experiencing mild pain. The patient is asking for aspirin for the pain. The nurse recognizes that which of these is true in this situation?

a)

The aspirin will aggravate diarrhea.

b)

The aspirin will mask signs of infection.

c)

Aspirin can lead to methotrexate toxicity.

d)

The aspirin will cause no problems for the patient on methotrexate.

59.

The nurse is reviewing infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination.

b)

I will eat only fresh fruits and vegetables.

c)

I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature.

d)

It is important for both my family and me to practice good hand washing.

60.

The nurse is administering a combination of three different antineoplastic drugs to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which statement best describes the rationale for combination therapy?

a)

There will be less nausea and vomiting.

b)

Increased cancer-cell killing will occur.

c)

The drugs will prevent metastasis.

d)

Combination therapy reduces the need for radiation therapy.

61.

What is the most likely adverse effect that is associated with this drug?

a)

Severe stomatitis

b)

Bone marrow suppression

c)

Delayed-onset cholinergic diarrhea

d)

Immediate and severe nausea and vomiting

62.

The nurse is monitoring a patient who has severe bone marrow suppression following antineoplastic drug therapy. Which is considered a principal early sign of infection?

a)

Fever

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Elevated white blood cell count

63.

A patient, diagnosed with lymphoma, has an allergy to one of the proposed chemotherapy drugs. The tumor has not responded to other types of treatment. The nurse expects the oncologist to follow which course of treatment?

a)

The physician will choose another drug to use.

b)

The chemotherapy will be given along with supportive measures to treat a possible allergic reaction.

c)

The patient will receive reduced doses of chemotherapy for a longer period of time.

d)

The chemotherapy cannot be given because of the patient's allergy.

64.

During treatment of a patient who has brain cancer, the nurse hears the oncologist mention that the patient has reached the "nadir." The nurse knows that this term means which of these?

a)

The lowest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.

b)

The highest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.

c)

The point at which the adverse effects of chemotherapy will stop.

d)

The point at which the cytotoxic action against cancer cells is the highest.

65.

A patient is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) as part of treatment for ovarian cancer. Which nursing diagnosis is related to this antineoplastic drug?

a)

Decreased cardiac output related to the adverse effect of cardiotoxicity

b)

Ineffective breathing pattern related to the adverse effect of pulmonary toxicity

c)

Risk for injury related to the effects of neurotoxicity (ataxia, numbness of hands and feet)

d)

Impaired urinary elimination pattern related to hyperuricemia

66.

When a patient is receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), the nurse is aware that the major dose-limiting effect of this drug is which condition?

a)

Alopecia

b)

Kidney damage

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

Stomatitis

67.

The nurse is teaching a class about the various chemotherapy drugs. Which of these statements explains why alkylating drugs are also called "cell cycle–nonspecific drugs"?

a)

They are cytotoxic during a specific cell cycle.

b)

They are cytotoxic in any phase of the cell cycle.

c)

They are effective against several types of neoplasms.

d)

They are more highly differentiated than cell cycle–specific drugs.

68.

What is the nurse's priority action if extravasation of an antineoplastic drug occurs during intravenous (IV) administration?

a)

Reduce the infusion rate.

b)

Discontinue the IV, and apply warm compresses.

c)

Stop the infusion immediately, but leave the IV catheter in place.

d)

Change the infusion to normal saline, and inject the area with hydrocortisone.

69.

A patient is receiving a third session of chemotherapy with daunorubicin (Cerubidine). The nurse will assess the patient for which signs of a potential severe toxic effect of this drug?

a)

Tinnitus and hearing loss

b)

Numbness and tingling in the fingers

c)

A weight gain of 2 pounds or more in 24 hours

d)

Decreased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

70.

When hanging a new infusion bag of a chemotherapy drug, the nurse accidentally spills a small amount of the solution onto the floor. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

a)

Let it dry, and then mop the floor.

b)

Wipe the area with a disposable paper towel.

c)

Use a spill kit to clean the area.

d)

Ask the housekeeping department to clean the floor.

71.

Just before the second course of chemotherapy, the laboratory calls to report that the patient's neutrophil count is 450 cells/mm3. The nurse expects that the oncologist will follow which course of treatment?

a)

Chemotherapy will continue as scheduled.

b)

Chemotherapy will resume with a lowered dosage.

c)

Chemotherapy will resume after a transfusion of neutrophils.

d)

Chemotherapy will be withheld until the neutrophil count returns toward normal.

72.

The nurse will discuss with the patient which potential body image changes that may occur as adverse effects?

a)

Hirsutism and acne

b)

Weight gain

c)

Flushing and hot flashes

d)

Alopecia and body odor

73.

During chemotherapy, a patient develops severe diarrhea caused by a vasoactive intestinal peptide–secreting tumor (VIPoma). The nurse expects to administer which drug for this problem?

a)

Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)

b)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

c)

Octreotide (Sandostatin)

d)

Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

74.

A patient is receiving an aluminum-containing antacid. The nurse will inform the patient to watch for which possible adverse effect?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Nausea

d)

Abdominal cramping

75.

When reviewing the health history of a patient who will be receiving antacids, the nurse recalls that antacids containing magnesium need to be used cautiously in patients with which condition?

a)

Peptic ulcer disease

b)

Renal failure

c)

Hypertension

d)

Heart failure

76.

The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be taking an H2 antagonist. Which drug may have an interaction if taken along with the H2 antagonist?

a)

Ibuprofen (Motrin)

b)

Ranitidine (Zantac)

c)

Tetracycline (Doryx)

d)

Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

77.

A patient who has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet) for hyperacidity calls the clinic to say that the medication has not been effective. The nurse reviews his history and notes that which factor may be influencing the effectiveness of this drug?

a)

He drinks coffee with meals.

b)

He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day.

c)

He drinks a glass of water with each dose.

d)

He takes an antacid 3 hours after the cimetidine dose.

78.

A patient is taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse will include which statement in the teaching plan about this medication?

a)

Take this medication once a day after breakfast.

b)

You'll be on this medication for only 2 weeks for treatment of the reflux disease.

c)

The medication may be dissolved in a liquid for better absorption.

d)

The entire capsule must be taken whole, not crushed, chewed, or opened.

79.

A patient is complaining of excessive and painful gas. The nurse checks the patient's medication orders and prepares to administer which drug for this problem?

a)

Famotidine (Pepcid)

b)

Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta)

c)

Calcium carbonate (Tums)

d)

Simethicone (Mylicon)

80.

A 75-year-old woman comes into the clinic with complaints of muscle twitching, nausea, and headache. She tells the nurse that she has been taking sodium bicarbonate five or six times a day for the past 3 weeks. The nurse will assess for which potential problem that may occur with overuse of sodium bicarbonate?

a)

Constipation

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Excessive gastric mucus

81.

A patient will be taking a 2-week course of combination therapy with omeprazole (Prilosec) and another drug for a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori. The nurse expects a drug from which class to be ordered with the omeprazole?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

c)

Antacid

d)

Antiemetic

82.

A patient is asking advice about which over-the-counter antacid is considered the most safe.

a)

Calcium carbonate (Tums)

b)

Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)

c)

Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

83.

The nurse explains that the reason that calcium antacids are not used as frequently as other antacids is for which of these reasons?

a)

Their use may result in kidney stones.

b)

They cause decreased gastric acid production.

c)

They cause severe diarrhea.

d)

Their use may result in fluid retention and edema.

84.

At 0900, the nurse is about to give morning medications, and the patient has asked for a dose of antacid for severe heartburn. Which schedule for the antacid and medications is correct?

a)

Give both the antacid and medications at 0900.

b)

Give the antacid at 0900, and then the medications at 0930.

c)

Give the medications at 0900, and then the antacid at 1000.

d)

Give the medications at 0900, and then the antacid at 0915.

85.

During an admission assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he has been self-treating his heartburn for 1 year with over-the-counter Prilosec OTC (omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor). The nurse is aware that this self-treatment may have which result?

a)

No serious consequences

b)

Prevention of more serious problems, such as an ulcer

c)

Chronic constipation

d)

Masked symptoms of serious underlying diseases

86.

An older adult patient had gastric surgery due to a gastrointestinal bleed 3 days ago, and he has been stable since the surgery. This evening, his daughter tells the nurse, "He seems to be more confused this afternoon. He's never been like this. What could be the problem?" The nurse reviews the patient's medication record and suspects that which drug could be the cause of the patient's confusion?

a)

Cimetidine (Tagamet)

b)

Pantoprazole (Protonix)

c)

Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

d)

Sucralfate (Carafate)

87.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be taking a proton pump inhibitor as long-term therapy about potential adverse effects. Which statement is correct?

a)

Proton pump inhibitors can cause diarrhea.

b)

These drugs can cause nausea and vomiting.

c)

Proton pump inhibitors can cause drowsiness.

d)

Long-term use of these drugs may contribute to osteoporosis.

88.

A patient in the intensive care unit has a nasogastric tube and is also receiving a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). The nurse recognizes that the purpose of the PPI is which effect?

a)

Prevent stress ulcers

b)

Reduce bacteria levels in the stomach

c)

Reduce gas formation (flatulence)

d)

Promote gastric motility

89.

The nurse is giving oral mineral oil as an ordered laxative dose. The nurse will take measures to prevent which potential problem that may occur with mineral oil?

a)

Fecal impaction

b)

Electrolyte imbalances

c)

Lipid pneumonia

d)

Esophageal blockage

90.

When administering a bulk-forming laxative, the nurse instructs the patient to drink the medication mixed in a full 8-ounce glass of water. Which statement best explains the rationale for this instruction?

a)

The water acts to stimulate bowel movements.

b)

The water will help to reduce the bulk of the intestinal contents.

c)

These laxatives may cause esophageal obstruction if taken with insufficient water.

d)

The water acts as a lubricant to produce bowel movements.

91.

A patient will be taking bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to control diarrhea. When reviewing the patient's other ordered medications, the nurse recognizes that which medication or medication class will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?

a)

Hypoglycemic drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

d)

Antidepressants

92.

A patient is about to undergo a diagnostic bowel procedure. The nurse expects which drug to be used to induce total cleansing of the bowel?

a)

Docusate sodium (Colace)

b)

Lactulose (Enulose)

c)

Mineral oil

d)

Polyethylene glycol 3350 (GoLYTELY)

93.

While recovering from surgery, a 74-year-old woman started taking a stimulant laxative, senna (Senokot), to relieve constipation caused by the pain medications. Two weeks later, at her follow-up appointment, she tells the nurse that she likes how "regular" her bowel movements are now that she is taking the laxative. Which teaching principle is appropriate for this patient?

a)

Long-term use of stimulant laxatives can lead to dependence and should be avoided.

b)

Stimulant laxatives are safe for daily use without any risks.

c)

Increasing the dose of senna will further improve bowel regularity.

d)

Pain medications do not affect bowel movements.

94.

A patient asks the nurse about the difference between diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) and the over-the-counter drug loperamide (Imodium). Which response by the nurse is correct?

a)

Lomotil acts faster than Imodium.

b)

Imodium does not cause physical dependence.

c)

Lomotil is available in suppository form.

d)

Imodium is a natural antidiarrheal drug.

95.

A patient wants to prevent problems with constipation and asks the nurse for advice about which type of laxative is safe to use for this purpose. Which class of laxative is considered safe to use on a long-term basis?

a)

Emollient laxatives

b)

Bulk-forming laxatives

c)

Hyperosmotic laxatives

d)

Stimulant laxatives

96.

When administering mineral oil, the nurse recognizes that it can interfere with the absorption of which substance?

a)

Fat-soluble vitamins

b)

Water-soluble vitamins

c)

Minerals

d)

Electrolytes

97.

The nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of antidiarrheal drugs. Which type of antidiarrheal medication works by decreasing the intestinal muscle tone and peristalsis of the intestines?

a)

Adsorbents such as Pepto-Bismol

b)

Anticholinergics such as belladonna alkaloids

c)

Probiotics such as Lactinex

d)

Lubricants such as mineral oil

98.

The nurse is discussing the use of adsorbents such as bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) with a patient who has diarrhea. The nurse will warn the patient about which possible adverse effects?

a)

Dark stools and blue gums

b)

Urinary incontinence

c)

Drowsiness and dizziness

d)

Blurred vision and headache

99.

A patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks has developed persistent diarrhea. The nurse expects which medication class to be ordered to treat this diarrhea?

a)

Lubricants

b)

Adsorbents

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Probiotics

100.

A patient will be taking bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to control diarrhea. When reviewing the patient's other ordered medications, the nurse recognizes that which medication will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?

a)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol), an analgesic

b)

Levothyroxine (Synthroid), a thyroid replacement drug

c)

Warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant

d)

Fluoxetine (Prozac), an antidepressant