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Maternity and Newborn Care Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse documents that a patient is a G3P2.

a)

Three pregnancies, two births after 20 weeks

b)

Three pregnancies, three births after 20 weeks

c)

Two pregnancies, two births after 20 weeks

d)

Two pregnancies, one birth after 20 weeks

2.

A patient’s LMP was January 10, 2025. Using Nägele’s Rule, what is her EDD?

a)

October 10, 2025

b)

October 17, 2025

c)

October 24, 2025

d)

October 31, 2025

3.

A woman hires a doula. What is the doula’s primary role?

a)

Provide medical care

b)

Offer emotional and physical labor support

c)

Deliver the baby

d)

Administer medications

4.

The nurse is caring for a woman being followed by a perinatologist. Which best describes this provider’s expertise?

a)

General obstetrics

b)

Pediatric care

c)

High-risk obstetrics specialist

d)

Neonatal care

5.

A pregnant woman lives in a rural area and delivers at a Level II hospital. What does this indicate?

a)

Can manage only healthy neonates

b)

Can manage moderately ill neonates

c)

Can manage critically ill neonates

d)

Can perform surgeries

6.

The nurse admits a client in preterm labor at 34 weeks. Which term best describes this gestation?

a)

Term

b)

Post-term

c)

Preterm

d)

Full-term

7.

The nurse uses a Doptone to assess fetal heart tones. Which action is correct?

a)

Apply conductive gel before use

b)

Use without gel

c)

Place directly on the abdomen

d)

Use only in the third trimester

8.

Which fetal heart rate pattern is considered normal at term?

a)

90–110 bpm

b)

110–160 bpm

c)

160–180 bpm

d)

180–200 bpm

9.

A nurse sees early decelerations on a fetal monitor strip. What is the best interpretation?

a)

Umbilical cord compression

b)

Head compression during contraction

c)

Fetal distress

d)

Placental insufficiency

10.

A fetal scalp electrode is applied during labor. What does this measure?

a)

Fetal heart rate

b)

Fetal electrocardiogram directly

c)

Maternal heart rate

d)

Uterine contractions

11.

Which test uses Pitocin to evaluate fetal tolerance to contractions?

a)

Non-stress test

b)

Biophysical profile

c)

Contraction stress test

d)

Amniocentesis

12.

A woman’s “bag of waters” ruptures on its own at home. How should this be documented?

a)

AROM

b)

SROM

c)

PROM

d)

PPROM

13.

The nurse notes PROM in a 30-week pregnant patient. What is the main risk?

a)

Preterm labor

b)

Fetal infection

c)

Maternal infection

d)

Placental abruption

14.

A laboring patient is 5 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. How should the nurse interpret these findings?

a)

False labor

b)

True labor progressing normally

c)

Labor not progressing

d)

Cervical insufficiency

15.

The nurse explains that effacement refers to:

a)

Dilation of the cervix

b)

Thinning of the cervix

c)

Descent of the baby

d)

Position of the baby

16.

The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. The nurse records this as:

a)

-1 station

b)

0 station

c)

+1 station

d)

+2 station

17.

A client with placenta previa presents to triage. What symptom is expected?

a)

Severe abdominal pain

b)

Painless, bright red bleeding

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Contractions

18.

Which finding is most characteristic of placental abruption?

a)

Painless bleeding

b)

Hard, board-like abdomen and distress

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Increased fetal movement

19.

During the third stage of labor, the nurse’s priority is to monitor for:

a)

Fetal distress

b)

Maternal blood pressure

c)

Maternal hemorrhage

d)

Uterine contractions

20.

Which complication results from uterine atony?

a)

Infection

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Preterm labor

d)

Placental abruption

21.

A fetus in a complete breech position presents how?

a)

Buttocks first

b)

Head first

c)

Feet first

d)

Shoulder first

22.

Which cesarean incision carries the highest risk for uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies?

a)

Low transverse

b)

Classic vertical

c)

Low vertical

d)

High transverse

23.

A newborn’s Apgar score at 1 minute is 4. What does this indicate?

a)

Normal condition

b)

Mild distress

c)

Severe distress, needs immediate intervention

d)

Ready for discharge

24.

A nurse observes swelling on a newborn’s scalp that resolves in 24 hours. What is this finding?

a)

Cephalohematoma

b)

Caput succedaneum

c)

Subgaleal hemorrhage

d)

Molding

25.

A woman in labor has been pushing for 3 hours with little descent. The provider diagnoses “failure to progress.” What does this mean?

a)

Cervical dilation is complete

b)

Baby is in distress

c)

No further cervical dilation or descent

d)

Labor is progressing normally

26.

A nurse identifies a fetal heart rate of 130 bpm at term. What does this indicate?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Normal range

d)

Fetal distress

27.

The provider orders an IUPC. What will this measure?

a)

Fetal heart rate

b)

Contraction intensity

c)

Maternal blood pressure

d)

Amniotic fluid index

28.

A woman has a prolapsed umbilical cord. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer oxygen

b)

Place client in knee-chest position

c)

Call the provider

d)

Monitor fetal heart rate

29.

The nurse notes BOW intact. What does this mean?

a)

Bag of waters ruptured

b)

Bag of waters still intact

c)

Bag of waters leaking

d)

Bag of waters absent

30.

The provider performs AROM. Which finding should the nurse expect?

a)

Fluid gush

b)

No fluid

c)

Blood

d)

Meconium

31.

Which situation requires sterile glove precautions after membrane rupture?

a)

Vaginal exam

b)

Catheter insertion

c)

Perineal care

d)

All of the above

32.

The nurse charts “patient 2 cm dilated and 60% effaced.” Interpretation?

a)

Early labor

b)

Active labor

c)

Transition phase

d)

Second stage

33.

The fetal station is +2. What does this mean?

a)

Above ischial spines

b)

At ischial spines

c)

Below ischial spines

d)

At pelvic inlet

34.

A placenta previa client begins bleeding. The nurse should avoid which action?

a)

Administering oxygen

b)

Monitoring vital signs

c)

Perform vaginal exam

d)

Starting IV fluids

35.

Which maternal finding suggests placental abruption?

a)

Painless bleeding

b)

Board-hard abdomen

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Increased fetal movement

36.

What is the priority after placenta delivery?

a)

Fundal massage

b)

Administering oxytocin

c)

Monitoring vital signs

d)

Checking for tears

37.

Uterine atony is most likely to occur during which period?

a)

First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Fourth stage

38.

Which presentation poses risk for cord prolapse?

a)

Vertex

b)

Breech

c)

Transverse or footling

d)

Occiput posterior

39.

The term “VBAC” indicates a woman planning to:

a)

Have a cesarean delivery

b)

Have vaginal delivery after C-section

c)

Avoid labor induction

d)

Use epidural anesthesia

40.

During a “crash C-section,” priority nursing action is:

a)

Monitor fetal heart rate

b)

Start IV and prepare for rapid anesthesia

c)

Call the provider

d)

Administer oxygen

41.

The nurse notes the C-section incision is horizontal and low. Interpretation?

a)

Classic vertical

b)

Low transverse “bikini cut”

c)

High transverse

d)

Low vertical

42.

A newborn scores 8 on Apgar at 1 minute. What should the nurse do?

a)

Provide immediate resuscitation

b)

Monitor closely

c)

Provide routine care

d)

Prepare for NICU transfer

43.

A newborn with “cone head” swelling on scalp has:

a)

Cephalohematoma

b)

Caput succedaneum

c)

Subgaleal hemorrhage

d)

Molding

44.

Which fetal heart pattern is benign and caused by head compression?

a)

Late decelerations

b)

Variable decelerations

c)

Early decelerations

d)

Sinusoidal pattern

45.

“Failure to progress” most commonly relates to:

a)

Loss of uterine power

b)

Fetal distress

c)

Cervical insufficiency

d)

Placental abruption

46.

A woman with SGA infant likely experienced:

a)

Gestational diabetes

b)

Hypertension or placental insufficiency

c)

Infection

d)

Multiple gestation

47.

Which reflex change signals magnesium toxicity?

a)

Hyperactive DTR

b)

Absent DTR

c)

Clonus

d)

Babinski sign

48.

Clonus is seen in which condition?

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Eclampsia

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Placenta previa

49.

Hemorrhage is diagnosed after C-section if blood loss exceeds:

a)

500 mL

b)

750 mL

c)

1000 mL

d)

1250 mL

50.

“Laboring down” allows the woman to:

a)

Rest while uterus moves baby lower

b)

Push actively

c)

Receive pain relief

d)

Monitor fetal heart rate