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WorksheetsSIMULATION TEP 2025
Total questions: 46
Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins
Listening Comprehension
In the Listening Comprehension section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand spoken English. There are 3 parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test.
Directions:
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between 2 people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers on the screen and select the best answer by clicking on it.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
On the screen, you read:
A. He does not like the painting either.
B. He does not know how to paint.
C. He does not have any paintings.
D. He does not know what to do.
You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best answer to the question "What does the man mean?" is A, "He does not like the painting either." Therefore, the correct choice is A.
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
PART A
A. He does not like the painting either.
B. He does not know how to paint.
C. He does not have any paintings.
D. He does not know what to do.
1
A. The coffee is much better this morning.
B. He’s feeling bitter this morning.
C. The coffee isn’t very good.
D. He cannot taste the butter.
2
A. The two classes meet in an hour and a half.
B. The class meets three hours per week.
C. Each half of the class is an hour long.
D. Two times a week the class meets for an hour
3.
A. A few minutes ago, the flight departed.
B. The flight will start in a while.
C. They are frightened about the departure.
D. The plane is going to take off soon.
4.
A. He hasn’t yet begun his project.
B. He’s supposed to do his science project next week.
C. He needs to start working on changing the due date.
D. He’s been working steadily on his science project.
5.
A. At the post office.
B. In a florist shop.
C. In a restaurant.
D. In a hospital delivery room.
6.
A. The professor drowned the cells in a lab.
B. The topic was presented in a boring way.
C. The professor divided the lecture into parts.
D. The biologist tried to sell the results of the experiment.
7.
A. She needs to get a driver’s license.
B. It is impossible to cash a check without two pieces of identification.
C. The man should check to see if he needs credit.
D. A credit card can be used to get a driver’s license.
8.
A. Housing within his budget is hard to locate.
B. It’s hard to find his house in New York.
C. He can’t afford to move his house to New York.
D. Housing in New York is unavailable.
9.
A. The boss was working on the reports.
B. He would have to finish the reports before the end of next month.
C. He was directed to stay late and finish some work.
D. He could finish the reports at home.
10.
A. The boisterous students made the teacher mad.
B. The teacher angered the students with the exam results.
C. The students were angry that the teacher was around.
D. The angered students complained to the teacher.
11.
A. The prices are reasonable.
B. The store is too far out of town.
C. He would like the woman to repeat what she said.
D. He agrees with the woman.
12.
A. It has rarely rained this much.
B. It hardly rained this year.
C. It is barely raining this year.
D. It seldom rains so little.
13.
A. He needs to do a better job writing questions.
B. His writing must certainly be improved.
C. Without the questions, he cannot write the answers.
D. He needs to understand the written questions better.
14.
A. The agent was standing in line with his passport.
B. The line to get new passports is very long.
C. The woman must wait her turn to get her passport checked.
D. He can check her passport instead of the agent.
15.
A. He couldn’t finish closing the library book.
B. He hadn’t finished the library assignment, but he was close.
C. He was working on the assignment when the library closed.
D. His homework was incomplete because the library wasn’t open.
16.
A. All the lawyer’s preparation did no good.
B. The lawyer prepared nothing for the case.
C. It wasn’t work for the lawyer to prepare for the case.
D. The lawyer didn’t work to prepare for the case.
17.
A. The history class begins next week.
B. He thinks the papers should be turned in next week.
C. He has already done the paper for next week.
D. The papers are not due next week.
18.
A. He studied last night because he had to.
B. He tried to study last night, but the material was too hard.
C. He couldn’t study last night because he was very tired.
D. He studied last night because he was bored.
19.
A. She goes to a movie every year.
B. She hasn’t gone to a movie yet this year, but last year she did.
C. She doesn’t go to a movie unless she has the time.
D. She hasn’t seen a movie for a long time
20.
A. He turned around to answer the teacher’s questions.
B. He is an intelligent student.
C. He must have been embarrassed.
D. He looked in the red book for the answer to the questions.
Directions:
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers on the screen and select the best answer by clicking on it.
LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART B
AUDIO FOR NO. 1 - 5
1.
A. To discuss the student's research topic
B. To schedule a meeting with the professor
C. To request an extension on an assignment
D. To ask about a class lecture
2.
A. She does not understand the topic
B. She is struggling to find primary sources
C. She has too many sources to choose from
D. She is worried about the deadline
3.
A. In the textbook
B. In online blogs
C. In the university library's digital archives
D. In interviews with experts
4.
A. By listing all sources first
B. By organizing it randomly
C. By following a chronological or thematic structure
D. By using only secondary sources
5.
A. To email the professor again
B. To ask the librarians for assistance
C. To change the topic
D. To look for sources on social media
Directions:
In Part C of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers on the screen and select the best answer by clicking on it.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
Now listen to a sample question.
On the screen, you read:
A. To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics
B. To discuss the possibility of an economic depression
C. To explain the workings of the brain
D. To dramatize a famous mystery story
The best answer to the question "What is the main purpose of the program?" is C, "To explain the workings of the brain." Therefore, the correct choice is answer C.
Now listen to another sample question.
On the screen, you read:
A. It is required of all science majors.
B. It will feature the professor's research.
C. It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
D. It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question "Why does the speaker recommend watching the program?" is D, "It will help with course work." Therefore, the correct answer is D.
SAMPLE QUESTION LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART C
1
A. To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics
B. To discuss the possibility of an economic depression
C. To explain the workings of the brain
D. To dramatize a famous mystery story
SAMPLE QUESTION LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART C
2
A. It is required of all science majors.
B. It will feature the professor's research.
C. It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
D. It will help with course work.
LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART C
AUDIO FOR NO. 1 - 5
1.
A. It reduces energy consumption
B. It decreases greenhouse gas emissions
C. It creates jobs in the energy sector
D. It provides cheaper energy
2.
A. Solar power
B. Wind energy
C. Nuclear power
D. Geothermal heat
3.
A. Renewable energy is not efficient enough
B. Renewable energy sources are unpredictable
C. Renewable energy does not create jobs
D. Renewable energy is more expensive in the long term
4.
A. The cost of renewable energy infrastructure
B. Energy storage solutions
C. The number of renewable energy workers
D. Government subsidies
5.
A. Renewable energy will replace fossil fuels immediately
B. The transition to renewable energy is easy and affordable
C. Renewable energy is essential for a sustainable future but has challenges
D. Renewable energy sources are unreliable and inefficient
STRUCTURE
Directions
Questions 1–10 are incomplete sentences. Below each sentence you will see 4 words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Choose the 1 word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Example:
> In the past, lions _______ common in many parts of the world.
were
once
when
only
The correct choice is A.
1. Mike is the only one of those students who _________ passed the exam.
A. have
B. Has
C. Are
D. Is
2. John, along with his friends, ________ going to the party.
A. are
B. is
C. have
D. has
3. She _____ a letter when I came.
A. wrote
B. has written
C. was writing
D. writes
4. The number of girls in school and women in parliaments________ and improved their overall access to contraception in the past decade.
A. has risen
B. rose
C. rises
D. had been
5. Most carnivores have relatively large brains, high levels of intelligence, and ______complicated digestive systems than herbivores.
A. Less than
B. More or less
C. lesser
D. less
6. Her grades have improved, but only _______
A. in a small amount
B. very slightly
C. minimum
D. some
7. The Sun, the Moon, and Earth have magnetic fields, and _________ evidence that the stellar that extend through vast regions galaxies have fields of space.
A. which is
B. is
C. because
D. There is
8. Like Jupiter, Saturn is a large, gaseous planet composed_____of hydrogen and helium.
A. it is mostly
B. mostly
C. almost
D. both are almost
9. About 42 million bushels of oats are used annually ______ manufacture of breakfast foods in the United States.
A. the
B. is the
C. in the
D. to
10. Nylon was ___the human-made fibers.
A. the first of which
B. what the first of
C. it the first of
D. the first of
WRITTEN
Directions
In questions 11-20, each sentence has 4 highlighted words or phrases. The 4 highlighted parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C and D. Identify the 1 highlighted word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Example:
A large (A) number of automobile (B) part are now (C) made of plastic (D) instead of steel.
The correct choice is B.
11.
A
B
C
D
No. 12
A
B
C
D
No. 13
A
B
C
D
No. 14
A
B
C
D
No. 15
A
B
C
D
No. 16
A
B
C
D
No. 17
A
B
C
D
No. 18
A
B
C
D
No. 19
A
B
C
D
No. 20
A
B
C
D
Questions 1-5 refer to the following passage!
The Benefits of Outdoor Exercise
Engaging in outdoor exercise offers numerous benefits for both physical and mental well-being. One advantage is the exposure to natural sunlight, which helps the body produce vitamin D, necessary for bone health. Additionally, being outdoors provides a change of scenery and fresh air, creating a more enjoyable workout experience.
Regular outdoor exercise also offers various physical benefits. Activities such as walking, jogging, or cycling in natural environments can help improve cardiovascular health, strengthen muscles, and enhance overall fitness levels. The uneven terrain and varying resistance in outdoor settings engage different muscle groups, leading to a more well-rounded workout.
Moreover, outdoor exercise has positive effects on mental health. Research suggests that being in nature and green spaces can reduce stress, anxiety, and depression. The calming and rejuvenating effects of nature contribute to improved mood and increased feelings of happiness. Outdoor exercise also provides a break from technology and screens, allowing individuals to disconnect and recharge mentally.
Incorporating outdoor exercise into one’s routine can have long-lasting benefits for physical and mental well-being. It offers a holistic approach to fitness, combining the advantages of nature with the positive effects of physical activity. the gap.
1. What is one advantage of engaging in outdoor exercise?
A. Increased screen time
B. Exposure to natural sunlight
C. Limited access to fresh air
D. Decreased physical fitness
2. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned as a form of outdoor exercise in the passage?
A. Walking
B. Jogging
C. Cycling
D. Weightlifting
3. How does outdoor exercise benefit cardiovascular health?
A. By increasing screen time
B. By strengthening muscles
C. By improving bone health
D. By reducing stress
4. According to the passage, what positive effects does outdoor exercise have on mental health?
A. Increased stress and anxiety
B. Improved mood and happiness
C. Decreased exposure to fresh air
D. Limited access to natural sunlight
5. Why is outdoor exercise considered a holistic approach to fitness?
A. It combines physical and mental well-being
B. It focuses solely on cardiovascular health
C. It limits exposure to natural sunlight
D. It excludes activities like walking and jogging
6. What would be the best title for the story?
A. Preparing for the Music Recital
B. Emily’s Music Performance
C. Sarah’s Piano Skill
D. Practice Make Perfect
7. In line 1, the word aspiring is closest in meaning to _______.
A. dedicated
B. promising
C. experienced
D. accomplished
8. What are Sarah and Emily discussing?
A. Their favorite books
B. Their upcoming music recital
C. Their favorite sports
D. Their weekend plans
9. Why does Emily get nervous during the recitals?
A. She forgets her music pieces
B. She doesn’t practice enough
C. She doesn’t enjoy performing
D. She gets stage fright
10. What does Sarah suggest to Emily?
A. To find a new hobby
B. To perform without any practice
C. To rehearse together more often
D. To give up on the recital
11. Why does Emily struggle to play well when people are watching?
A. She lacks talent
B. She hasn’t practiced enough
C. She doesn’t like performing
D. She gets stage fright
12. According to Sarah, when does Emily play well?
A. When she practices alone
B. When she performs with Sarah
C. When she has a big audience
D. When she is not nervous
13. What does Sarah do during their practice session the next day?
A. She leaves Emily alone on the stage
B. She joins Emily in performing a duet
C. She invites more friends to watch
D. She cancels the practice session
14. Who does Sarah gather to listen to Emily’s performance?
A. Two musicians, a janitor, and a teacher
B. Two students, a math teacher, and a janitor
C. Two secretaries, a janitor, and a teacher
D. Two musicians, two secretaries, and a janitor
15. How does Emily perform during the practice session?
A. She makes several mistakes
B. She refuses to play without Sarah
C. She plays flawlessly
D. She gets nervous and stops playing
16 Where will the community service event be held?
A. Oakville High School
B. School Office
C. Community Center
D. Oakville Park
17. On the announcement above, the word “beautify” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. clean
B. improve
C. organize
D. decorate
18. What is the purpose of the community service event?
A. To earn money
B. To meet new people
C. To beautify Oakville Park
D. To organize games and activities
19. How can students sign up for the event?
A. By contacting Ms. Johnson
B. By attending the school office
C. By registering online
D. By visiting Oakville Park
20. What time will the gardening and landscaping task take place?
A. 9 A.M – 11 A.M
B. 11 A.M – 1 P.M
C. 10 A.M – 2 P.M
D. 9 A.M – 2 P.M
Questions 20-25 refer to the following story!
Horse owners who plan to breed one or more mares should have a working knowledge of heredity and know how to care for breeding animals and foals. The number of mares bred that conceive varies from about 40 to 85 percent, with the average running less than 50 percent. Some mares that do conceive fail to produce living foals. This means that, on average, two mares are kept a whole year to produce one foal, and even then, some foals are disappointments from the standpoint of quality.
By careful selection, breeders throughout history have developed various kinds of horses with a wide variety of characteristics to suit many different needs. The Great Horse of the Middle Ages, for example, was bred for size and strength to carry a heavily armored knight. The massive horses of such breeds are often called "cold blooded." The Arabs bred lithe desert horses that were small and swift. These animals are often referred to as "hot blooded". Cross-breeding of hot-blooded and cold-bloodedhorses for certain characteristics produced breeds ranging from riding horses to draft horses.
The Thoroughbred is considered by many to be the highpoint of elegance and fine selective breeding. Many persons mistakenly apply the name Thoroughbred to any purebred horse. But a Thoroughbred is a distinct breed of running horses that traces its ancestry through the male line directly back to three Eastern stallions as the Byerly Turk, the Darley Arabian, and the Godolphin Barb. For convenience the breeds of horses are often divided into three major groups: first is ponies; second is heavy, or draft horses; and the last is light horses.
21. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Horse breading
B. Horse farming
C. Animal breeders
D. Breeding knowledge
22. What percent is the average amount of mares bred conceive?
A. About 45%
B. Arround 85%
C. More than 70%
D. Up to 50%
23. The word “conceive” in line 3 can be replaced by …
A. Become sick
B. Become pregnanT
C. Die
D. Be born
24. Which of the following was NOT owned by Great Horse of the Middle Ages?
A. Large size
B. Beauty
C. Strength
D. Swiftness
25. The words “These” in line 9 refers to …
A. Arabs
B. Desert horses
C. Breeds
D. Animals
