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ASTR-1303 Module 3 Review

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary factor determining the type of stellar remnant (white dwarf, neutron star, black hole) a star leaves behind?

a)

Rotation speed

b)

Initial mass

c)

Chemical composition

d)

Presence in a binary system

2.

A white dwarf is primarily composed of what elements?

a)

Hydrogen and Helium

b)

Iron

c)

Carbon and Oxygen

d)

Neutrons

3.

What force supports a white dwarf against gravitational collapse?

a)

Thermal pressure

b)

Neutron degeneracy pressure

c)

Electron degeneracy pressure

d)

Magnetic pressure

4.

The Chandrasekhar Limit (~1.4 solar masses) refers to the maximum mass of which object?

a)

A main-sequence star

b)

A neutron star

c)

A white dwarf

d)

A black hole

5.

A nova occurs when what happens on the surface of a white dwarf in a binary system?

a)

Carbon fusion ignites

b)

Helium fusion ignites

c)

Hydrogen fusion ignites

d)

The star collapses into a black hole

6.

What force supports a neutron star against gravitational collapse?

a)

Thermal pressure

b)

Electron degeneracy pressure

c)

Neutron degeneracy pressure

d)

Strong nuclear force

7.

Approximately how large is a typical neutron star?

a)

The size of the Earth

b)

The size of the Sun

c)

The size of a city (~10–20 km)

d)

The size of Jupiter

8.

According to General Relativity, gravity results from which phenomenon?

a)

A fundamental force mediated by gravitons

b)

The curvature of spacetime by mass

c)

Electromagnetic interactions

d)

The strong nuclear force

9.

The boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing can escape is called the:

a)

Singularity

b)

Accretion disk

c)

Ergosphere

d)

Event horizon

10.

The process by which tidal forces stretch an object falling into a smaller black hole is called:

a)

Accretion

b)

Gravitational lensing

c)

Spaghettification

d)

Time dilation

11.

Long-duration gamma-ray bursts are thought to be associated with which events?

a)

Merging neutron stars

b)

Novae

c)

Supernovae of very massive stars forming black holes (hypernovae)

d)

Merging white dwarfs

12.

What instrument first detected gravitational waves from merging black holes and neutron stars?

a)

Hubble Space Telescope

b)

Chandra X-ray Observatory

c)

Very Large Array (VLA)

d)

LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory)

13.

What is the approximate diameter of the Milky Way's galactic disk?

a)

1,000 light-years

b)

10,000 light-years

c)

100,000 light-years

d)

1,000,000 light-years

14.

Stars in the galactic halo primarily orbit the galactic center in which manner?

a)

Circular orbits within the disk plane

b)

Randomly oriented, elliptical orbits

c)

All in the same direction, perpendicular to the disk

d)

They do not orbit the center

15.

The mass of the Milky Way inside the Sun's orbit is estimated primarily using:

a)

Counting visible stars

b)

Gravitational lensing

c)

The Sun's orbital velocity and distance via Newton's version of Kepler's third law

d)

Measuring the brightness of the central bulge

16.

By which process does the Milky Way recycle gas from stars into the interstellar medium and back into new stars?

a)

Galactic cannibalism

b)

The star-gas-star cycle

c)

Dark matter interaction

d)

Gravitational settling

17.

Hot, million-degree bubbles of gas in the interstellar medium are primarily created by:

a)

Planetary nebulae

b)

Supernova explosions and powerful stellar winds

c)

Accretion disks around black holes

d)

Molecular cloud collapse

18.

Which electromagnetic radiation is most useful for mapping atomic hydrogen gas in the Milky Way's disk?

a)

Visible light

b)

X-rays

c)

21-cm radio waves

d)

Gamma rays

19.

Where does most star formation occur in the Milky Way?

a)

In the halo

b)

In the central bulge

c)

Uniformly throughout the disk

d)

In cold, dense molecular clouds

20.

Spiral arms in galaxies like the Milky Way are best understood as:

a)

Fixed structures made of the same stars over time

b)

Jets of material from the central black hole

c)

Density waves causing gas compression and star formation

d)

Illusions caused by dust lanes

21.

Compared to stars in the disk, stars in the galactic halo are generally:

a)

Younger and more metal-rich

b)

Older and more metal-rich

c)

Younger and metal-poor

d)

Older and metal-poor

22.

Approximately how many galaxies are estimated to be in the observable universe?

a)

1 million

b)

1 billion

c)

100 billion

d)

1 trillion

23.

Which type of galaxy is characterized by a disk, bulge, spiral arms, and ongoing star formation?

a)

Elliptical galaxy

b)

Spiral galaxy

c)

Lenticular galaxy

d)

Irregular galaxy

24.

Which type of galaxy contains primarily old stars, has little gas or dust, and shows no significant star formation?

a)

Spiral galaxy

b)

Barred spiral galaxy

c)

Irregular galaxy

d)

Elliptical galaxy

25.

In the Hubble tuning fork diagram, what characteristic distinguishes Sa galaxies from Sc galaxies?

a)

Sa galaxies have smaller bulges and looser arms

b)

Sa galaxies have larger bulges and tighter arms

c)

Sa galaxies are barred, while Sc galaxies are not

d)

Sa galaxies are older than Sc galaxies

26.

The Period-Luminosity relation is crucial for using which objects as standard candles?

a)

White dwarf supernovae

b)

Neutron stars

c)

Cepheid variable stars

d)

Globular clusters

27.

Hubble's Law states that a galaxy's recessional velocity is directly proportional to its:

a)

Mass

b)

Luminosity

c)

Distance

d)

Age

28.

Mergers between two spiral galaxies are thought to commonly result in the formation of which type of galaxy?

a)

A larger spiral galaxy

b)

An irregular galaxy

c)

A lenticular galaxy

d)

An elliptical galaxy

29.

A galaxy undergoing an exceptionally high rate of star formation is called a:

a)

Quasar

b)

Radio galaxy

c)

Starburst galaxy

d)

Spiral galaxy

30.

What is believed to be the power source for Active Galactic Nuclei (AGN) and quasars?

a)

Intense star formation

b)

Accretion onto a supermassive black hole

c)

Merging neutron stars

d)

Multiple supernovae

31.

The relationship between the mass of a galaxy's central supermassive black hole and the mass of its bulge suggests what evolutionary scenario?

a)

Black holes form before galaxies

b)

Galaxies form before black holes

c)

Black holes and their host galaxies evolve together (co-evolution)

d)

There is no relationship between them

32.

Which event marks the earliest time in the universe that we can directly observe via electromagnetic radiation?

a)

The Big Bang itself

b)

The end of inflation

c)

The emission of the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB)

d)

The formation of the first stars

33.

During which era of the early universe did hydrogen and helium nuclei capture electrons to form neutral atoms?

a)

Era of Nucleosynthesis

b)

Particle Era

c)

Era of Nuclei

d)

Era of Atoms

34.

What are the two most abundant elements predicted to be formed by Big Bang Nucleosynthesis?

a)

Hydrogen and Carbon

b)

Helium and Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen and Helium

d)

Carbon and Iron

35.

The theory of inflation was proposed to solve which problem(s) with the standard Big Bang model?

a)

The flatness problem

b)

The horizon (uniformity) problem

c)

The structure problem

d)

All of the above

36.

Flat rotation curves of spiral galaxies provide strong evidence for the existence of:

a)

Supermassive black holes

b)

Dark energy

c)

Dark matter

d)

Gravitational waves

37.

Gravitational lensing occurs when:

a)

Light is bent by passing through a glass lens

b)

Mass bends spacetime, causing light rays to change direction

c)

Dark energy repels light rays

d)

Magnetic fields deflect photons

38.

Observations of distant Type Ia supernovae indicate that the expansion of the universe is:

a)

Accelerating

b)

Decelerating

c)

Constant

d)

Stopped

39.

Based on current evidence, what is the likely ultimate fate of the universe?

a)

It will recollapse in a "Big Crunch"

b)

It will expand forever at an accelerating rate

c)

It will reach a maximum size and become static

d)

It will stop expanding and remain at its current size

40.

Which type of supernova is used as a standard candle to measure cosmic distances?

a)

Type Ic supernova

b)

Type Ia supernova

c)

Type Ib supernova

d)

Type II supernova

41.

What is the main evidence for the existence of dark matter in galaxies?

a)

Flat rotation curves of galaxies

b)

Unusual star colors

c)

High rates of star formation

d)

Presence of black holes

42.

Which process is responsible for the creation of elements heavier than iron in the universe?

a)

Supernova nucleosynthesis

b)

Stellar hydrogen fusion

c)

Big Bang Nucleosynthesis

d)

Cosmic microwave background emission

43.

Which component of the Milky Way contains the oldest stars?

a)

The spiral arms

b)

The halo

c)

The bulge

d)

The disk

44.

What is the primary method used to determine the distance to nearby galaxies?

a)

Measuring their redshift

b)

Using Cepheid variable stars as standard candles

c)

Counting the number of stars

d)

Observing their rotation curves

45.

Which phenomenon provides evidence for the presence of a supermassive black hole at the center of the Milky Way?

a)

Rapid orbital motion of stars near the galactic center

b)

Abundant star formation in the halo

c)

Uniform distribution of gas in the disk

d)

Presence of planetary nebulae