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Preeclampsia and Eclampsia MCQs

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Modified Obstetric Early Warning Score (MEOWS)?

a)

A. Respiratory rate

b)

B. Urine output

c)

C. Fundal height

d)

D. Oxygen saturation

2.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the obstetric shock index?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Systolic blood pressure

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Shock index calculation (HR/SBP)

3.

Which is the most specific indicator of end-organ perfusion in shock?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Pulse rate

c)

Urine output

d)

Capillary refill time

4.

What is the most likely consequence of untreated prolonged hypovolemic shock in pregnancy?

a)

Polyhydramnios

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Acute tubular necrosis

d)

Pulmonary embolism

5.

Which of the following is the best method for early recognition of impending septic shock in obstetrics?

a)

Serum lactate >2 mmol/L

b)

Blood pressure <90/60 mmHg

c)

Platelet count <100,000

d)

WBC >15,000/mm³

6.

The Swansea criteria for diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Hyperbilirubinemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

7.

The pathophysiological mechanism of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is primarily due to:

a)

Autoimmune destruction of bile ducts

b)

Genetic variants affecting bile salt export pump (BSEP) and multidrug resistance protein 3 (MDR3)

c)

Viral hepatitis

d)

Microvascular thrombosis

8.

Which of the following statements about ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) use in intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is CORRECT?

a)

UDCA has been proven to reduce the incidence of stillbirth

b)

UDCA primarily improves pruritus and biochemical markers but impact on fetal outcomes is uncertain

c)

UDCA is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity

d)

UDCA increases serum bile acids

9.

The primary mechanism of hepatic injury in acute viral hepatitis E infection during pregnancy is thought to be:

a)

Direct viral cytopathic effect

b)

Immune-mediated hepatocyte injury

c)

Ischemic injury due to shock

d)

Autoimmune antibody-mediated injury

10.

Which of the following is the most sensitive test for detecting hemolysis in HELLP syndrome?

a)

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

b)

Total bilirubin

c)

Haptoglobin

d)

Reticulocyte count

11.

In the pathogenesis of preeclampsia, what role does endothelial dysfunction play?

a)

Increased vascular permeability and hypertension

b)

Decreased blood pressure and hypovolemia

c)

Enhanced placental perfusion

d)

Reduced coagulation and bleeding tendency

12.

A woman with preeclampsia with severe features develops acute pulmonary edema. Which of the following is the best immediate management?

a)

IV fluids bolus

b)

IV furosemide and oxygen supplementation

c)

Continue magnesium sulfate without modification

d)

Start oral nifedipine

13.

When should low-dose aspirin be started for preeclampsia prevention in high-risk women?

a)

After 20 weeks gestation

b)

Before 16 weeks gestation

c)

At 28 weeks gestation

d)

Only after preeclampsia develops

14.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for expectant management in severe preeclampsia?

a)

Uncontrolled severe hypertension

b)

Oliguria (<500 mL/day)

c)

Stable maternal and fetal condition at 32 weeks

d)

Eclampsia

15.

Which of the following findings mandates urgent delivery in a patient with hypertensive disorder of pregnancy?

a)

Mild proteinuria and controlled BP

b)

Severe thrombocytopenia with evidence of DIC

c)

Controlled severe hypertension without symptoms

d)

Stable maternal and fetal monitoring

16.

The main cause of convulsions in eclampsia is:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Cerebral edema and vasospasm

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypoglycemia

17.

Pritchard regimen for MgSO₄ includes loading dose:

a)

4 g IV + 10 g IM (5 g each buttock)

b)

4 g IM + 10 g IV

c)

5 g IV + 5 g IM

d)

10 g IV only

18.

Toxic level of serum magnesium is above:

a)

2 mEq/L

b)

5 mEq/L

c)

8 mEq/L

d)

10 mEq/L

19.

Antidote for magnesium toxicity is:

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Calcium chloride

d)

Potassium chloride

20.

PPH is defined as blood loss more than:

a)

300 mL after delivery

b)

400 mL after delivery

c)

1000 mL after delivery

d)

500 mL after delivery

21.

Most common cause of PPH is:

a)

Trauma to genital tract

b)

Retained placenta

c)

Uterine atony

d)

Coagulopathy

22.

Secondary (late) PPH occurs:

a)

Within 6 hours of delivery

b)

Within 12 hours of delivery

c)

after 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery

23.

Ergometrine is contraindicated in:

a)

Diabetes

b)

Preeclampsia

c)

Heart disease

d)

Asthma

24.

Tranexamic acid should be given within:

a)

1 hour

b)

3 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

12 hours

25.

Antepartum hemorrhage is defined as:

a)

Bleeding before 20 weeks of pregnancy

b)

Bleeding after 20 weeks and before onset of labor

c)

Bleeding during labor

d)

Bleeding within 24 hours after delivery

26.

Most common cause of APH is:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Local cervical causes

d)

Vasa previa

27.

Painless, bright red bleeding in third trimester is characteristic of:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Vasa previa

d)

Cervical polyp

28.

Painful, tense uterus with dark blood and fetal distress suggests:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Cervical erosion

d)

Vasa previa

29.

Couvelaire uterus is seen in-

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Cervical erosion

d)

Vasa previa

30.

The maternal mortality ratio (MMR) is defined as:

a)

Number of maternal deaths per 1000 live births

b)

Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births

c)

Number of neonatal deaths per 100,000 live births

d)

Number of maternal deaths per 10,000 pregnancies

31.

Which of the following is a common indirect cause of maternal mortality?

a)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

b)

Placenta accreta

c)

Abruptio placentae

d)

Retained placenta

32.

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks with Hb 6.8 g/dL and signs of cardiac failure. Best management according to FOGSI/GoI guidelines:

a)

Oral iron therapy

b)

Parenteral iron sucrose

c)

Packed cell transfusion

d)

Intravenous ferric carboxymaltose

33.

A 26-year-old G2P1 presents with Hb 8.5 g/dL, MCV 72 fL, peripheral smear shows microcytic hypochromic anemia. Serum ferritin is normal, HbA2 is 5.8%. Diagnosis?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Thalassemia trait

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Sideroblastic anemia

34.

Under Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy, which of the following is NOT one of the “6x6x6” interventions?

a)

Weekly IFA supplementation for adolescents

b)

Deworming for pregnant women

c)

Screening and treatment of fluorosis

d)

Intensified behavior change communication

35.

Which of the following iron-folic acid (IFA) supplementation regimens is recommended by the Government of India for prophylaxis in pregnancy?

a)

60 mg elemental iron + 0.5 mg folic acid daily for 100 days after first trimester

b)

100 mg elemental iron + 1 mg folic acid daily throughout pregnancy

c)

60 mg elemental iron + 500 µg folic acid daily from 14–16 weeks till 6 months postpartum

d)

100 mg elemental iron + 500 µg folic acid weekly throughout pregnancy

36.

A 22-year-old primigravida at 26 weeks presents with Hb 8.2 g/dL, MCV 70 fL, and serum ferritin 15 µg/L. She is compliant with oral IFA for 3 weeks, but her Hb has not improved. What is the next best step according to FOGSI/GoI guidelines?

a)

Continue oral IFA for 1 month more

b)

Switch to intravenous iron sucrose therapy

c)

Add vitamin B12 injections

d)

Advise blood transfusion

37.

Which is the most common benign uterine tumor causing AUB?

a)

Endometrial polyp

b)

Adenomyoma

c)

Leiomyoma

d)

Nabothian cyst

38.

Which laboratory test is essential in the initial evaluation of AUB in all reproductive-aged women?

a)

Prolactin

b)

TSH

c)

Serum FSH

d)

Urine pregnancy test

39.

A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding. First investigation?

a)

Pap smear

b)

Hysteroscopy

c)

Transvaginal ultrasound

d)

Endometrial sampling

40.

The most effective long-term medical therapy for AUB in women not desiring fertility is:

a)

Oral contraceptive pills

b)

Tranexamic acid

c)

Levonorgestrel IUD

d)

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

41.

Which of the following investigations is mandatory in all women >45 years with AUB?

a)

Transvaginal sonography

b)

Hormonal assay

c)

Endometrial biopsy

d)

Pap smear

42.

The definitive treatment for AUB due to endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is:

a)

LNG-IUS

b)

Hysteroscopic polypectomy

c)

Endometrial ablation

d)

Hysterectomy

43.

A 40-year-old woman with heavy menstrual bleeding has a 4 cm submucosal fibroid. Best management is:

a)

Observation

b)

Tranexamic acid

c)

Hysteroscopic myomectomy

d)

Hysterectomy

44.

Which of the following is not a recommended use of endometrial ablation?

a)

Completed family

b)

Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia

c)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

d)

Failure of medical therapy

45.

The best time to perform HSG is:

a)

Day 1–3 of cycle

b)

Day 6–10 of cycle

c)

Day 14 (ovulation)

d)

Day 21 (luteal phase)

46.

Which of the following best defines infertility?

a)

Inability to conceive after 6 months of unprotected intercourse

b)

Inability to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse

c)

Inability to conceive after 18 months regardless of contraception

d)

Inability to conceive with irregular cycles

47.

In women >35 years, infertility evaluation should begin after:

a)

6 months of unprotected intercourse

b)

12 months of unprotected intercourse

c)

3 months of trying to conceive

d)

18 months regardless of age

48.

Which hormone is the most reliable indicator of ovarian reserve?

a)

Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

c)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

d)

Estradiol

49.

First-line ovulation induction drug for PCOS-related infertility is:

a)

Clomiphene citrate

b)

Letrozole

c)

Gonadotropins

d)

Metformin

50.

What is the WHO lower reference limit for normal sperm motility (progressive)?

a)

20%

b)

32%

c)

50%

d)

60%

51.

Which test is considered gold standard for assessing tubal patency?

a)

HSG

b)

Saline infusion sonography

c)

Laparoscopy with chromopertubation

d)

MRI pelvis

52.

Endometriosis most commonly causes infertility by:

a)

Endometrial atrophy

b)

Tubal blockage

c)

Ovulatory suppression

d)

Uterine anomalies

53.

Which of the following abnormalities can be detected using hysteroscopy?

a)

uterine polyp

b)

uterine septum

c)

asherman's syndrome

d)

all of the above

54.

What is the recommended flow rate for insufflation during laparoscopy?

a)

1-2 l/min

b)

2-5 l/min

c)

5-10 l/min

d)

10-15 l/min

55.

Hysteroscopic fluid overload can lead to?

a)
hypovolemia
b)

Hyponateremia

c)

hypernateremia

d)

dehydration

56.

What is the recommended angle for inserting a laparoscope during abdominal entry?

a)

0-30 degrees

b)

30-45 degrees

c)

45-60 degrees

d)

60-90 degrees

57.

What intra-abdominal pressure should be maintained while operating in laparoscopy?

a)

8-10 mmhg

b)

12-14 mmhg

c)

16-18 mmhg

d)

20-22 mmhg

58.

Which of the following is NOT considered a component of Emergency Obstetric Care (EmOC)?

a)

Administration of parenteral antibiotics

b)

Cesarean section

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Routine ultrasound scan

59.

Which intervention has shown the greatest impact on reducing deaths due to postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL)

b)

Routine cesarean section

c)

Early epidural analgesia

d)

Prolonged bed rest postpartum