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Nursing Concepts and Terminology Worksheet

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which organization was founded by Clara Barton?

a)

American Red Cross

b)

World Health Organization

c)

International Red Cross

d)

United Nations

2.

According to Maslow's hierarchy, which level includes the most basic requirements for survival such as food, water, air, and shelter?

a)

physiologic

b)

esteem

c)

self-actualization

d)

love and belonging

3.

Which level of Maslow's hierarchy focuses on security and protection such as safety, financial security, and health?

a)

Esteem

b)

Safety and security

c)

Love and belongingness

d)

Self-actualization

4.

In Maslow's hierarchy, which level addresses the human need for social connection, including friendships, family, and sense of belonging?

a)

love and belongingness

b)

physiological needs

c)

esteem needs

d)

self-actualization

5.

Which level of Maslow's hierarchy includes both self-esteem and respect from others?

a)

esteem

b)

physiological

c)

safety

d)

self-actualization

6.

What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy, representing the desire to fulfill one's full potential and live a life of morality and creativity?

a)

self-actualization

b)

esteem

c)

safety

d)

belongingness

7.

What does the ethical concept of justice mean in nursing?

a)

A) Treat everyone fairly

b)

B) Do no harm

c)

C) Accept responsibility for actions

d)

D) Telling the truth always

8.

Which ethical concept in nursing means 'doing good always'?

a)

beneficence

b)

autonomy

c)

veracity

d)

nonmaleficence

9.

What does nonmaleficence mean in nursing ethics?

a)

do no harm

b)

always tell the truth

c)

respect patient privacy

d)

promote patient autonomy

10.

Which ethical concept involves accepting responsibility for your actions?

a)

accountability

b)

indifference

c)

negligence

d)

ignorance

e)

avoidance

11.

Fidelity in nursing ethics means:

a)

Keeping your promises

b)

Doing no harm

c)

Telling the truth always

d)

Treating everyone fairly

12.

What does autonomy mean in the context of nursing ethics?

a)

The nurse accepts the client as a unique person who has the innate right to have their own opinions, perspectives, values, and beliefs.

b)

The nurse always follows the physician's orders without question.

c)

The nurse prioritizes the needs of the healthcare team over the client's wishes.

d)

The nurse makes decisions for the client based on what they believe is best, regardless of the client's preferences.

13.

Veracity in nursing ethics means telling the truth always.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?

a)

To witness patient signing consent

b)

To explain the surgical procedure in detail

c)

To provide legal advice to the patient

d)

To persuade the patient to agree to treatment

15.

Should a nurse discuss with the patient the elements of disclosure that the physician or nurse practitioner is required to do?

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What does the medical abbreviation 'dnr' stand for?

a)

do not resuscitate

b)

doctor not required

c)

diagnosis not recorded

d)

drug not recommended

17.

What does the medical abbreviation 'npo' mean?

a)

nothing by mouth

b)

take with food

c)

as needed

d)

by mouth only

18.

What does 'ad lib' mean in medical terminology?

a)

as desired

b)

after meals

c)

before bedtime

d)

with water

19.

What does 'brp' stand for in medical terminology?

a)

bathroom privileges

b)

blood pressure reading

c)

bed rest period

d)

breathing rate per minute

20.

What does 'hs' mean in medical terminology?

a)

hour of sleep/bedtime

b)

half strength

c)

heart sound

d)

hospital stay

21.

What does 'ac' mean in medical terminology?

a)

before meals

b)

after meals

c)

with food

d)

at bedtime

22.

What does 'pc' mean in medical terminology?

a)

after meals

b)

before meals

c)

by mouth

d)

as needed

23.

Which communication technique requires a nurse's full attention and gives patient feedback?

a)

Silence

b)

Touch

c)

Active listening

d)

Passive listening

24.

Which communication technique is most under-used, requires skill and timing, and can convey respect, understanding, caring, and support?

a)

silence

b)

interrupting

c)

arguing

d)

joking

25.

Touch must be used with great discretion to fit into sociocultural norms and guidelines.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following is the most basic requirement for survival according to Maslow's hierarchy?

a)

Esteem

b)

Physiologic

c)

Safety and security

d)

Self-actualization

27.

In Maslow's hierarchy, which level addresses the human need for social connection and includes friendships, family, and sense of belonging?

a)

Esteem

b)

Love and belongingness

c)

Safety and security

d)

Self-actualization

28.

Fill in the blank: The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy, representing the desire to fulfill one's full potential, is called _________.

a)

self-actualization

b)

esteem

c)

safety

d)

belongingness

29.

Which step of the nursing process involves gathering information about the client's condition?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

30.

Which of the following is NOT a standard precaution for infection control?

a)

A) Hand hygiene for at least 20 seconds

b)

B) Use of approved soap and alcohol-based hand sanitizers

c)

C) Wearing gloves when touching blood or body fluids

d)

D) Sharing contaminated items

31.

Airborne precautions require a single patient room, negative pressure airflow, closed door, and N95 mask.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Fill in the blank: Under airborne precautions, the patient must wear a ________ any time they leave the room.

a)

surgical mask

b)

face shield

c)

cloth scarf

d)

N95 respirator

33.

Which disease requires chicken pox precautions?

a)

Chicken pox

b)

Measles

c)

Mumps

d)

Influenza

34.

What does the 'D' in the infection control list stand for?

a)

diphtheria (pharyngeal)

b)

dengue fever

c)

diabetes

d)

dermatitis

35.

What does the 'E' in the infection control list stand for?

a)

epiglottis

b)

esophagus

c)

endocardium

d)

erythema

36.

What does the 'R' in the infection control list stand for?

a)

rubella

b)

rhinovirus

c)

rotavirus

d)

rabies

37.

What does the 'M' in the infection control list stand for?

a)

mumps/meningitis/mycoplasma/meningeal pneumonia

b)

measles/malaria/molluscum/mononucleosis

c)

morbillivirus/monkeypox/mumps/measles

d)

melioidosis/microsporum/mumps/meningitis

38.

What does 'An' in the infection control list stand for?

a)

adenovirus

b)

anthrax

c)

anaplasma

d)

anaerobe

39.

What are the contact precautions for infection control?

a)

gloves, gown, private room with another patient with the same infection

b)

mask, face shield, negative pressure room

c)

hand sanitizer only, no gown or gloves needed

d)

no precautions necessary for non-airborne infections

40.

C-DIFFICILE REQUIRES SOAP AND WATER.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the most effective way to prevent infection?

a)

Handwashing

b)

Wearing sandals indoors

c)

Skipping breakfast

d)

Watching television

42.

List the correct order for donning PPE: 1. perform hand hygiene, 2. gown, 3. mask, 4. goggles/face shield, 5. gloves.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

List the correct order for doffing PPE: 1. remove gloves, 2. goggles/faceshield, 3. gown, 4. mask, 5. perform hand hygiene.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is one indication for restraint application?

a)

To protect patient from hurting themselves or others, pulling IV or GT

b)

To encourage patient mobility

c)

To increase patient comfort during sleep

d)

To reduce the need for patient monitoring

45.

What is the normal range for BP (blood pressure) according to the notes?

a)

80-120/60-80

b)

100-120/60-80

c)

120-140/80-90

d)

90-110/50-70

46.

What is the normal range for HR (heart rate) according to the notes?

a)

60-100

b)

70-110

c)

80-120

d)

50-90

47.

What is the normal range for RR (respiratory rate) according to the notes?

a)

10-18

b)

12-20

c)

14-22

d)

16-24

48.

What is the normal range for O2 (oxygen saturation) according to the notes?

a)

80-95

b)

85-98

c)

90-100

d)

95-100

49.

List the steps to take blood pressure as described in the notes.

a)

1. Prepare patient in a seated, relaxed position with arm supported at heart level and legs uncrossed. 2. Apply a correctly sized cuff about 1 inch above the brachial artery. 3. Palpate radial artery, inflate cuff 30 mmHg past where the pulse disappears, then place stethoscope over the brachial artery. 4. Slowly release air from the cuff, listening for the first sound (systolic) and the point where the sound disappears (diastolic).

b)

1. Have the patient stand and cross their legs. 2. Place the cuff on the wrist. 3. Inflate the cuff until the patient feels discomfort. 4. Listen for any sound and record as blood pressure.

c)

1. Lay the patient down with their arm above their head. 2. Use a cuff that is too small. 3. Inflate the cuff to 100 mmHg only. 4. Record the first and last pulse felt as blood pressure.

d)

1. Prepare patient in a seated position with legs crossed. 2. Place the cuff on the ankle. 3. Inflate the cuff until the pulse is no longer felt. 4. Release air quickly and record the first sound heard.

50.

What is a pulse deficit?

a)

Difference found between radial and apical rate.

b)

The rate at which the heart beats per minute.

c)

The pressure difference between systolic and diastolic values.

d)

The absence of a pulse in the peripheral arteries.

51.

Anything less than ___ is considered a normal pulse deficit.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

20

d)

15

52.

Subjective data is perceived by the patient and includes pain, nausea, vertigo, and anxiety.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Objective data can be seen, heard, and measured.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What does the acronym RACE stand for in fire safety?

a)

R: rescue anyone in immediate danger of the fire, A: alarm activate the nearest fire alarm and call your fire response telephone number, C: contain the fire by closing all doors in the fire area, E: extinguish small fires. If cannot be extinguished leave the area and close the door

b)

R: run away from the fire, A: alert the media, C: call your friends, E: evacuate only if you feel like it

c)

R: remove all equipment, A: ask for help, C: close your eyes, E: enter the fire area

d)

R: read the instructions, A: arrange a meeting, C: clean the area, E: eat your lunch

55.

What is hypoxia?

a)

Increased oxygen content in tissue and cells

b)

Reduced oxygen content in tissue and cells

c)

Increased cell metabolism

d)

None of the above

56.

Oxygen therapy prevents or relieves _______.

a)

hypoxia

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

dehydration

d)

hypertension

57.

Who must order oxygen therapy?

a)

Nurse

b)

Health care provider

c)

Patient

d)

Family member

58.

If a patient reports shortness of breath (sob), what should the nurse do?

a)

Take vitals, listen to lungs, and get baseline.

b)

Give the patient water and ask them to rest.

c)

Ignore the complaint and continue with routine tasks.

d)

Advise the patient to wait until the next scheduled check.

59.

Cyanosis is a sign of lack of _______.

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

calcium

60.

Which position should a patient be in for trach care?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

High-fowler

d)

Trendelenburg

61.

For female position in dorsal recumbent, what should be done before catheter insertion?

a)

Don sterile gloves and wash perineal with mild soap/warm water and antiseptic solution (clean from front to back).

b)

Apply a tourniquet to the upper thigh.

c)

Ask the patient to stand up and bend forward.

d)

Insert the catheter before cleaning the perineal area.

62.

For male catheter insertion, how many inches should the catheter be inserted?

a)

1-2 inches

b)

3-4 inches

c)

6-7 inches

d)

8-9 inches

63.

When inserting a nasogastric tube, the patient should be positioned in a _______.

a)

high-fowler's

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

trendelenburg

64.

Which of the following is the correct way to measure the distance to insert a tube?

a)

From the tip of the nose to the earlobe and to the xiphoid process

b)

From the chin to the ear

c)

From the forehead to the chin

d)

From the mouth to the ear

65.

List two components of a heart-healthy diet.

a)

Eating a variety of vegetables from all subgroups, fruits (especially whole fruits), grains (at least 1/2 as whole grains), fat-free/low-fat dairy, variety of proteins.

b)

Consuming mostly processed foods and sugary beverages.

c)

Eating high amounts of saturated fats and trans fats.

d)

Relying primarily on red meats and refined grains.

66.

Low potassium diet is used most often in the treatment of which conditions?

a)

Hypertension or heart failure (coronary artery).

b)

Diabetes mellitus.

c)

Peptic ulcer disease.

d)

Asthma.

67.

What is a feeding ostomy?

a)

A surgical opening where feeding tubes pass.

b)

A type of wound dressing.

c)

A medication for digestion.

d)

A device for measuring blood pressure.

68.

Insufficiency of which vitamin causes pernicious anemia?

a)

Vitamin B12.

b)

Vitamin C.

c)

Vitamin D.

d)

Vitamin A.

69.

According to the gate control theory, the body does not have the capacity to interpret pain.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the most common side effect of opioids?

a)

Constipation.

b)

Rash.

c)

Hypertension.

d)

Blurred vision.

71.

Which of the following is NOT a step in setting up a sterile field?

a)

A) Perform hand hygiene

b)

B) Prepare clean, dry and flat surface at or above waist level

c)

C) Gather all necessary supplies

d)

D) Skip hand hygiene

72.

When performing wound irrigation, in which direction should you cleanse?

a)

From the least contaminated area to the most contaminated area.

b)

From the most contaminated area to the least contaminated area.

c)

In a circular motion from the outside in.

d)

Randomly across the wound surface.

73.

When irrigating a wound, what should you ensure about the flow of the solution?

a)

The solution should flow from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area.

b)

The solution should flow from the most contaminated to the least contaminated area.

c)

The solution should be poured directly onto the wound without regard to contamination.

d)

The solution should flow in a circular motion around the wound.

74.

Which of the following devices may be used for wound irrigation?

a)

Syringes

b)

Syringes with catheters attached

c)

Syringes with needles

d)

All of the above

75.

When using a syringe for wound irrigation, how far above the wound should you keep it?

a)

1 inch above the wound or area being cleansed.

b)

6 inches above the wound or area being cleansed.

c)

Directly touching the wound or area being cleansed.

d)

3 inches above the wound or area being cleansed.

76.

What protective equipment should you wear if there is potential for splashing during wound irrigation?

a)

Gown and goggles.

b)

Surgical mask only.

c)

Sterile gloves only.

d)

Apron and shoe covers.

77.

According to Erikson's psychosocial stages, what is the conflict for infants (birth to 1 year)?

a)

Basic trust vs mistrust.

b)

Autonomy vs shame and doubt.

c)

Initiative vs guilt.

d)

Industry vs inferiority.

78.

What is the psychosocial conflict for adolescents (12 to 19 years) according to Erikson?

a)

Identity vs role confusion.

b)

Trust vs mistrust.

c)

Intimacy vs isolation.

d)

Autonomy vs shame and doubt.

79.

Which stage of Erikson's psychosocial development occurs in late adulthood (65+ years)?

a)

Ego integrity vs despair.

b)

Identity vs role confusion.

c)

Intimacy vs isolation.

d)

Industry vs inferiority.

80.

Which of the following is NOT a factor of complicated grief?

a)

A) Loss of independence

b)

B) Loss of employment

c)

C) Loss of appetite

d)

D) Fear of loss of control

81.

List the five stages of grief according to Kubler-Ross.

a)

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

b)

Shock, denial, anger, guilt, acceptance.

c)

Denial, confusion, anger, depression, hope.

d)

Bargaining, denial, sadness, acceptance, relief.

82.

Which of the following is the first stage of grief according to Kubler-Ross?

a)

Anger

b)

Denial

c)

Bargaining

d)

Acceptance

83.

When caring for patients with dementia, why is it important to call the patient by their correct name?

a)

It helps maintain their identity and orientation.

b)

It helps them remember the nurse's name.

c)

It prevents them from becoming physically aggressive.

d)

It encourages them to eat more.

84.

Making eye contact is recommended when caring for patients with dementia.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Why should you provide familiar objects in the environment of older adults with dementia?

a)

To help them feel comfortable and oriented.

b)

To encourage them to exercise more.

c)

To improve their appetite.

d)

To increase their social media usage.

86.

What is an important communication strategy when explaining events and procedures to older adults with dementia?

a)

Use concise, simple language.

b)

Speak quickly and use complex terms.

c)

Rely on written instructions only.

d)

Ignore non-verbal cues.

87.

Setting a routine and being consistent is beneficial for patients with dementia.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Care of the older adults: Everything decreases except ________.

a)

cognitive

b)

muscle mass

c)

bone density

d)

vision

89.

Which of the following should be avoided when caring for a patient with dysphagia?

a)

Liquids

b)

Positioning

c)

Verbal coaching

d)

Thickeners

90.

List one cause of dysphagia.

a)

stroke or other neurologic dysfunction, local trauma, obstruction with a tumor

b)

high blood pressure

c)

asthma

d)

diabetes

91.

When caring for a patient with a hip fracture, which of the following is important?

a)

Monitor VS and I&O

b)

Avoid turning

c)

Ignore pain management

d)

Restrict movement assessment

92.

Cardiovascular changes in older adults include loss of structural elasticity, chambers/heart valves, and ________ heart rate decreases.

a)

resting

b)

maximum

c)

average

d)

exercise

93.

What is the purpose of hospice care?

a)

To provide care and support patients with a terminal illness (6 months or less) and their family.

b)

To cure chronic diseases completely.

c)

To provide only emergency medical interventions.

d)

To focus solely on rehabilitation and physical therapy.

94.

The medulla oblongata is the major regulator of ________.

a)

breathing

b)

digestion

c)

vision

d)

hearing

95.

Where is the medulla oblongata located?

a)

At the base of the brain stem

b)

In the frontal lobe of the brain

c)

In the cerebellum

d)

In the spinal cord