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EC-25

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which concept best aligns with understanding how organisms interact and how these interactions influence population stability over time?

a)

Ecosystem dynamics

b)

Molecular stoichiometry

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

Quantum entanglement

2.

The primary purpose of the module is to equip learners with which of the following?

a)

Historical timelines of geology

b)

An understanding of ecosystem dynamics and conservation strategies

c)

Advanced calculus techniques

d)

Laboratory safety certification

3.

Which pair of key concepts most directly supports designing actions to protect biodiversity while maintaining ecological function?

a)

Ecological principles and Conservation strategies

b)

Atomic orbitals and Wave functions

c)

Classical mechanics and Thermodynamics

d)

Gene editing and Proteomics

4.

A learning outcome states that students should be able to apply ecological principles to real-world problems. Which task best demonstrates this outcome?

a)

Memorizing the names of biomes

b)

Calculating the mean of a dataset without context

c)

Proposing a management plan to stabilize a degraded wetland

d)

Reciting the definition of photosynthesis

5.

Which term best describes environmental changes or effects resulting from human activities?

a)

Biogenic

b)

Anthropogenic

c)

Abiotic

d)

Autochthonous

6.

Eutrophication most directly refers to which ecological process?

a)

Increase in biodiversity due to habitat fragmentation

b)

Nutrient enrichment of water bodies leading to algal blooms

c)

Reduction in greenhouse gases through carbon sequestration

d)

Introduction of non-native predators to an ecosystem

7.

In a content mapping framework for a module, what is the primary purpose of mapping outcomes to content sections?

a)

To replace assessments with glossaries

b)

To align learning objectives with specific instructional materials

c)

To remove overlap between different textbooks

d)

To standardize grading rubrics across schools

8.

Which option best matches the role of a glossary in a science module?

a)

Lists experimental results for replication

b)

Provides curated definitions of key terms to ensure common understanding

c)

Summarizes entire chapters into bullet points

d)

Offers biographies of scientists mentioned in the text

9.

Which scenario exemplifies an anthropogenic cause of eutrophication?

a)

Seasonal leaf fall increasing detritus in streams

b)

Upwelling bringing nutrients to coastal waters

c)

Agricultural fertilizer runoff entering a lake

d)

Volcanic ash deposition after an eruption

10.

Which statement best distinguishes anthropogenic impacts from natural ecological processes?

a)

Anthropogenic impacts originate from human actions, whereas natural processes occur without direct human influence

b)

Both anthropogenic impacts and natural processes are exclusively abiotic

c)

Natural processes are always beneficial; anthropogenic impacts are always harmful

d)

Anthropogenic impacts only occur in urban ecosystems

11.

A module outcome states: “Explain the drivers and consequences of eutrophication.” Which content element in a vocabulary-focused section most directly supports achieving this outcome?

a)

A timeline of famous limnologists

b)

A detailed map of river basins

c)

A glossary entry defining eutrophication and related terms such as nutrients and algal bloom

d)

A photo gallery of lakes at sunset

12.

Which pair is most appropriately matched in a glossary of ecological terms?

a)

Anthropogenic — nutrient upwelling from deep ocean currents

b)

Eutrophication — algal bloom resulting from nutrient enrichment

c)

Succession — immediate ecosystem collapse due to pollution

d)

Keystone species — a species with no effect on community structure

13.

Which pair correctly matches the sensory modality with a key role described in animal communication?

a)

Sound — long-distance transmission of messages

b)

Scent — limited longevity and rapid decay

c)

Touch — effective over long distances

d)

Sight — universally effective in dense habitats

14.

According to the text, which example best illustrates the use of smell in animals?

a)

Lions coordinating a hunt using roars

b)

Fruit bats determining if a fruit is ripe

c)

Antelopes signaling with white tail patches

d)

Grasshoppers chirping with hind legs

15.

What is Jacobson’s organ primarily associated with in mammals?

a)

Detecting polarized light for navigation

b)

Combining functions of smell and taste

c)

Amplifying ultrasonic vocalizations

d)

Balancing during rapid movement

16.

Which statement about sound signals is supported by the material?

a)

They are ineffective in nocturnal species due to low light.

b)

They cannot travel beyond a few hundred meters.

c)

They can carry different meanings, acting like a language.

d)

They are always produced only by the larynx.

17.

Scent marks are advantageous because they can:

a)

Travel thousands of kilometers across oceans

b)

Transmit information even when the signaler is absent

c)

Only indicate territorial boundaries

d)

Be detected only by species with Jacobson’s organ

18.

In which situation is touch most important as a communicative modality?

a)

Coordinating over kilometers in open plains

b)

Bonding and organizing social groups at short range

c)

Communicating through dense forests over long distances

d)

Signaling reproductive status to distant mates

19.

What visual feature is cited as an effective cue in open habitats for large diurnal animals?

a)

Ultraviolet reflective fur only visible at night

b)

Distinct body markings like the white tail of a springbok

c)

Subsonic vibrations transmitted through soil

d)

Rapidly decaying scent plumes

20.

Which finding best supports the benefits of group foraging among social carnivores?

a)

Solitary wolves consistently capture adult zebras.

b)

African wild dogs in small packs specialize on adult zebras.

c)

Lions in groups of four or more can hunt buffalo and increase per capita food intake.

d)

Whales use songs to coordinate hunts over thousands of kilometers.

21.

Which statement best defines ecology in the context of basic ecological study?

a)

The study of how energy is produced in power plants

b)

The study of interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment

c)

The classification of organisms based on morphology alone

d)

The economic valuation of natural resources

22.

In an ecosystem, which pathway correctly describes the general direction of energy flow?

a)

Decomposers → Primary producers → Sun

b)

Consumers → Producers → Sun

c)

Sun → Primary producers → Consumers → Decomposers

d)

Sun → Consumers → Producers → Decomposers

23.

Biomass in an ecosystem most accurately refers to which of the following?

a)

The total number of species present

b)

The total mass of living organisms in a given area or trophic level

c)

The amount of heat released by respiration

d)

The total volume of water available to organisms

24.

Which statement aligns with the Second Law of Thermodynamics as applied to ecosystems?

a)

Energy transfers in food webs are 100% efficient with no loss

b)

Entropy decreases in closed systems over time

c)

Energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient, with some energy dissipated as heat

d)

Matter is created during photosynthesis

25.

A researcher models an ecosystem’s trophic pyramid and predicts only about 10% of energy is transferred from one level to the next. Which ecological principle most directly justifies this prediction?

a)

Law of Conservation of Mass

b)

Second Law of Thermodynamics and energy dissipation

c)

Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium

d)

Competitive exclusion principle

26.

Which statement best defines gross primary production (GPP) in an ecosystem?

a)

The rate at which heterotrophs convert ingested food into biomass

b)

The total rate at which photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy into chemical energy

c)

The energy remaining after respiration available to consumers

d)

The total biomass of decomposers over time

27.

Net primary production (NPP) is most accurately described as:

a)

GPP minus respiration by primary producers

b)

Energy intake by secondary consumers

c)

Total energy fixed by photosynthesis

d)

Nutrient loss through leaching

28.

In terrestrial ecosystems, which factor most commonly limits primary production at biome scales?

a)

Light intensity

b)

Temperature and water availability

c)

Grazing pressure

d)

Salinity gradients

29.

Which scenario is a classic trigger for eutrophication in lakes?

a)

Increased sediment load reduces light penetration

b)

Nutrient enrichment from nitrogen and phosphorus inputs stimulates algal blooms

c)

Introduction of a new top predator reduces zooplankton

d)

Declining water temperature during winter

30.

A likely immediate consequence of an algal bloom during eutrophication is:

a)

Higher dissolved oxygen at night due to photosynthesis

b)

Lower decomposer activity due to limited detritus

c)

Oxygen depletion following decomposition of algal biomass

d)

Permanent increase in fish species richness

31.

Secondary production refers to:

a)

Energy fixed by autotrophs

b)

Energy lost as heat during respiration by plants

c)

The formation of biomass by heterotrophs from consumed organic matter

d)

Nutrient uptake by roots from soil

32.

Which process primarily returns nitrogen to the atmosphere in nutrient cycles?

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Ammonification

d)

Nitrogen fixation

33.

Decomposition rates in ecosystems generally increase with:

a)

Lower temperature and drier conditions

b)

Higher temperature and moisture, and with litter of lower lignin content

c)

Greater salinity and low oxygen

d)

Reduced microbial diversity

34.

A researcher compares NPP between two lakes. Lake A is phosphorus-limited, while Lake B is nitrogen-limited. Adding which nutrient to each lake would most directly increase its NPP?

a)

Add nitrogen to Lake A and phosphorus to Lake B

b)

Add phosphorus to Lake A and nitrogen to Lake B

c)

Add carbon to both lakes

d)

Add silica to both lakes

35.

Which best explains why NPP in many open-ocean regions is low despite abundant light?

a)

Low temperatures limit photosynthetic enzyme activity

b)

Nutrient scarcity due to stratification limits phytoplankton growth

c)

Excessive grazing by zooplankton eliminates all phytoplankton

d)

High turbidity reduces light to zero

36.

Which statement best describes optimality theory as applied in ecology?

a)

It states that organisms always choose the most abundant food item.

b)

It suggests there exists a solution that maximizes a desired outcome, helping predict animal behaviour and decisions.

c)

It focuses solely on predator avoidance and ignores reproduction.

d)

It assumes all food types have identical costs and benefits.

37.

What is the primary goal assumed in optimal foraging decisions when comparing food options?

a)

Maximizing the intake of a specific aspect of food, such as energy or a key nutrient

b)

Minimizing exposure to new habitats

c)

Maintaining equal time spent on all patches

d)

Choosing the rarest available food

38.

Which factor is NOT listed as influencing the choice between foods in optimal foraging theory?

a)

Differences in type and size of food

b)

Nutritional value

c)

Risk of exposure to danger

d)

Seasonal migration routes

39.

According to the text, natural selection favours strategies that are most beneficial in terms of which outcomes?

a)

Growth rate and territory size

b)

Survival and reproduction

c)

Species diversity and niche width

d)

Learning speed and memory

40.

Which example aligns with optimal foraging theory?

a)

A herbivore randomly alternates between grass and browse regardless of quality.

b)

A predator pursues the closest prey without considering handling time.

c)

An animal selects the food that provides the greatest profit after weighing benefits and costs.

d)

A forager eats only one food type to avoid toxins.

41.

In optimal foraging, what does the term profit most directly refer to?

a)

Monetary value of food items

b)

The net benefit after balancing benefits such as energy against costs like handling and risk

c)

The number of prey captured per day regardless of effort

d)

The average size of consumed prey

42.

Which of the following is considered a cost in optimal foraging decisions?

a)

Energy content of the food

b)

Presence of toxins

c)

Nutritional value

d)

Availability of prey patches

43.

If the goal is to maximise energy intake, which decision would be most consistent with optimal foraging reasoning?

a)

Choosing the largest item regardless of search time

b)

Selecting a search path and prey type that yield the greatest energy gain per unit time

c)

Always storing leftover food instead of searching for new food

d)

Avoiding all patches with any predators present

44.

Which search strategy involves remaining in one location and waiting for prey to approach?

a)

Active hunting

b)

Sit-and-wait strategy

c)

Patch switching

d)

Nutrient maximisation

45.

What does the marginal value theorem predict for a forager in patchy environments?

a)

The time to spend in a patch based on distances between patches and the current rate of food discovery

b)

That a forager should never leave a patch until it is completely depleted

c)

That predators should always prefer larger patches regardless of prey availability

d)

How prey will evolve to evade predators over generations

46.

As a predator continues foraging within a patch and prey begin to evade, what happens to the availability of prey in that patch according to the text?

a)

It increases due to aggregation.

b)

It remains constant until the predator leaves.

c)

It decreases over time.

d)

It fluctuates randomly with no trend.

47.

Which decision is explicitly listed as part of an optimal forager’s planning when aiming to maximise energy intake?

a)

Selecting mating partners with high fitness

b)

Determining what type of search path to use

c)

Choosing migration destinations

d)

Reducing body size to lower energy demand

48.

Which pair correctly matches a factor with its classification under optimal foraging?

a)

Energy content — benefit; time required to find food — cost

b)

Handling difficulty — benefit; toxin presence — benefit

c)

Risk of exposure to danger — benefit; size of food — cost

d)

Nutritional value — cost; prey availability — cost

49.

Which statement best captures the trade-off central to optimal foraging theory?

a)

Foragers maximise benefits and ignore costs.

b)

Foragers minimise costs even if benefits drop to zero.

c)

Foragers balance benefits like energy gain against costs such as handling time and risk to choose the most profitable option.

d)

Foragers prefer the rarest food item to reduce competition.

50.

Behavioural ecology primarily studies which of the following?

a)

The genetic code of organisms

b)

How animal behavior contributes to survival and reproductive success in ecological contexts

c)

The chemical composition of ecosystems

d)

Geological changes affecting habitats

51.

In behavioural ecology, what is meant by the adaptive value of behaviour?

a)

How aesthetically pleasing a behaviour appears

b)

The extent to which a behaviour increases an organism's fitness by improving survival or reproduction

c)

The cost in metabolic energy of a behaviour

d)

How frequently a behaviour occurs in a population

52.

Which question reflects proximate causation of behaviour?

a)

Why did weaver birds evolve colonial nesting?

b)

How do hormone levels trigger nest-building in weaver birds?

c)

What is the long-term advantage of social weaving?

d)

Why is polygyny common in certain climates?

53.

Which question reflects ultimate causation of behaviour?

a)

What sensory cues cause a weaver bird to start weaving?

b)

How do neural circuits coordinate weaving movements?

c)

What ecological benefits led to the evolution of colonial nesting in weaver birds?

d)

Which genes are expressed during feather growth?

54.

Weaver bird social systems are often used to illustrate which pair of explanatory levels in behavioural ecology?

a)

Genetic drift and natural selection

b)

Microevolution and macroevolution

c)

Proximate and ultimate causes

d)

Innate and learned behaviour only

55.

A researcher investigates whether higher predator density selects for tighter group cohesion in weaver bird colonies. This study focuses primarily on which level of causation?

a)

Proximate causation, because it examines immediate triggers

b)

Ultimate causation, because it addresses evolutionary function

c)

Neither; it is taxonomy

d)

Both, because it only measures hormone levels

56.

Which of the following best differentiates proximate from ultimate explanations?

a)

Proximate explains the evolutionary history; ultimate explains the mechanism

b)

Proximate focuses on immediate mechanisms; ultimate focuses on adaptive significance

c)

Both address only genetic causes

d)

Proximate deals with populations; ultimate deals with individuals

57.

If researchers manipulate light cues to test whether day length initiates weaver bird nest-building, what kind of question are they addressing?

a)

Ultimate: fitness consequences

b)

Proximate: environmental triggers and mechanisms

c)

Taxonomic: species identification

d)

Phylogenetic: historical relationships

58.

Which statement best describes intrasexual sexual selection as presented?

a)

Direct mate choice based on the opposite sex's phenotype

b)

Indirect mate choice where traits enhance same-sex competition ability

c)

Random selection with no fitness consequences

d)

Selection for parental care behaviors only

59.

In intersexual sexual selection, why might males evolve bright coloration despite increased visibility to predators?

a)

Bright colors reduce metabolic costs

b)

Females prefer bright males, potentially ensuring good genes for offspring

c)

Predators avoid brightly colored males

d)

Bright coloration improves male camouflage in all habitats

60.

Which hypothesis proposes that a male's ability to bear the cost of a conspicuous feature signals general survival value, making him a more attractive mate?

a)

Runaway selection hypothesis

b)

Good genes hypothesis

c)

Handicap hypothesis

d)

Kin selection hypothesis

61.

According to the runaway selection hypothesis, what is the primary reason a disadvantageous trait like a long tail can persist?

a)

It improves foraging efficiency

b)

Once sexual selection begins, preference amplifies the trait in an almost out-of-control spiral

c)

It always enhances male survival against predators

d)

It is required for thermoregulation

62.

Dispersal in ecology refers to which of the following?

a)

Only seasonal long-distance migration between continents

b)

Local movements within a population that affect spatial patterns and movement between populations

c)

Territorial defense without movement

d)

Random genetic drift within a population

63.

Which modality best fits signals transmitted as light patterns, colors, or body postures used to convey information among animals?

a)

Visual communication

b)

Auditory communication

c)

Olfactory communication

d)

Tactile communication

64.

Acoustic songs, calls, and vibrations used by animals to convey information are examples of which communication type?

a)

Visual communication

b)

Auditory communication

c)

Olfactory communication

d)

Electrical communication

65.

Which statement best describes olfactory communication in animals?

a)

It relies on visual displays that require line-of-sight.

b)

It uses airborne or waterborne chemical cues such as pheromones.

c)

It is limited to physical contact between individuals.

d)

It can only occur in daylight.

66.

Touch-based signals that reinforce social bonds, such as grooming in primates, are categorized as:

a)

Auditory communication

b)

Tactile communication

c)

Olfactory communication

d)

Electrical communication

67.

Which modality is generally most effective for long-distance signaling in dense forests during nighttime?

a)

Visual communication

b)

Auditory communication

c)

Tactile communication

d)

Electrical communication

68.

A species evolves bright warning coloration to deter predators. Which sense of the receiver does this primarily target?

a)

Hearing

b)

Vision

c)

Smell

d)

Touch

69.

Pheromone trails laid by ants to recruit nestmates to food primarily function as:

a)

Auditory signals that travel quickly but fade fast

b)

Visual signals that require direct line-of-sight

c)

Chemical signals that can persist and guide others

d)

Tactile signals requiring direct contact

70.

In open ocean environments where visibility can be limited, which pair of communication modes is most likely favored for effective information transfer?

a)

Visual and tactile

b)

Auditory and olfactory

c)

Tactile and visual

d)

Electrical and tactile

71.

Which scenario best illustrates multi-modal communication?

a)

A bird emitting an ultrasonic call only

b)

A lizard changing color only

c)

A wolf howling only

d)

A frog producing a call while inflating a brightly colored vocal sac

72.

Compared to auditory signals, chemical signals (like pheromones) are generally:

a)

Shorter-lasting and travel less far

b)

Longer-lasting but may be slower to transmit

c)

Not usable under water

d)

Only effective with direct physical contact

73.

Which communication type is best suited for private, short-range signaling that reduces detection by predators?

a)

Olfactory communication via long-lasting trails

b)

Auditory communication with loud calls

c)

Visual communication using subtle body postures

d)

Broadcast pheromones released into the wind

74.

Which of the following is a key trade-off animals face when using visual signals?

a)

They are effective at night without any light.

b)

They persist long after the sender departs, reducing ambiguity.

c)

They require line-of-sight and adequate illumination.

d)

They cannot encode information about identity or status.

75.

Which term best describes animals forming associations that influence foraging efficiency and safety from predators?

a)

Group living

b)

Territoriality

c)

Solitary hunting

d)

Parasitism

76.

What is the primary benefit of foraging in groups when prey items are patchy and unpredictable?

a)

Reduced competition for food

b)

Increased individual search efficiency through shared information

c)

Lower energy expenditure due to fasting

d)

Guaranteed access to the largest prey

77.

In the context of group living, what does the dilution effect refer to?

a)

Predators being less motivated to attack large groups

b)

Each individual’s risk of predation decreasing as group size increases

c)

A reduction in prey density within a habitat

d)

Toxins being diluted in the bloodstream of group members

78.

Which concept predicts that there is a group size at which the net benefit to each member is maximized?

a)

Dominance hierarchies

b)

Optimal group size

c)

Kin selection threshold

d)

Predator saturation

79.

Which of the following is a potential cost of group living for foraging animals?

a)

Improved vigilance

b)

Lowered disease transmission

c)

Increased competition for food within the group

d)

Enhanced detection of predators

80.

Why can dominance hierarchies improve the stability of groups?

a)

They eliminate the need for food entirely

b)

They structure access to resources and reduce constant fighting

c)

They increase the number of predators around the group

d)

They ensure all individuals reproduce equally

81.

When vigilance behavior is shared among group members, what is the predicted effect on individual time spent scanning?

a)

It increases for all individuals

b)

It remains unchanged

c)

It decreases because of collective detection

d)

It becomes unpredictable

82.

Which scenario best illustrates predator confusion as a group-living benefit?

a)

A flock disperses widely to cover more ground

b)

A school of fish moves in synchronized patterns, making it hard for a predator to target one fish

c)

A herd splits into pairs to evade detection

d)

A meerkat sentry stands alone while others forage

83.

According to optimal group size ideas, why might groups become larger than the size that maximizes individual benefit?

a)

Individuals can always control group membership precisely

b)

Joining groups imposes no costs

c)

Immigration by new members yields benefits to joiners even if residents face reduced payoffs

d)

Predation risk always rises with group size

84.

Which statement aligns with the trade-off faced by group-foraging predators?

a)

Group hunting always reduces handling time without costs

b)

Cooperative hunting can increase success on large prey but may require sharing the catch

c)

Group hunting eliminates the need for coordination

d)

Solitary hunting provides identical benefits at any prey size

85.

What feature of dominance hierarchies most directly affects food intake variation among group members?

a)

Linear or despotic rank order influencing priority of access

b)

Random assignment of turns at feeding sites

c)

Uniform division of food regardless of status

d)

Seasonal temperature shifts

86.

Which mechanism reduces per capita vigilance demands in larger groups?

a)

Resource partitioning within individuals

b)

Many-eyes effect where multiple individuals monitor for predators

c)

Territorial scent-marking

d)

Increased scramble competition

87.

Which term describes a defended area within which an animal or group excludes conspecifics to secure resources?

a)

Home range

b)

Territory

c)

Niche

d)

Habitat patch

88.

What is the key difference between a territory and a home range?

a)

A territory is always larger than a home range

b)

A home range requires active defense; a territory does not

c)

A territory is actively defended; a home range is used without exclusive defense

d)

A home range is used only during breeding season

89.

According to cost–benefit analysis of territoriality, which outcome best describes optimal territory size?

a)

The largest area an animal can possibly defend

b)

The size that maximizes net benefits where marginal benefits equal marginal costs

c)

The smallest area that contains any resources

d)

A fixed species-specific area independent of resource density

90.

Which of the following is typically a cost of maintaining a territory?

a)

Increased mating opportunities

b)

Reduced predation risk

c)

Time and energy spent on defense and patrolling

d)

Guaranteed access to all resources in the habitat

91.

Which scenario would most likely increase the benefit of territoriality?

a)

Resources are abundant and evenly distributed

b)

Resources are scarce, clumped, and economically defensible

c)

Population density is extremely low

d)

Intruders pose no threat to resource access

92.

Optimality theory in behavioural ecology is primarily used to do what?

a)

Prove that all animal behaviors are perfect

b)

Predict which behavioral strategy maximizes fitness given constraints and trade-offs

c)

Describe phylogenetic relationships among species

d)

Explain genetic drift in small populations

93.

In optimal foraging theory, what does the 'currency' often represent?

a)

Number of prey types encountered

b)

Net rate of energy intake per unit time

c)

Total distance traveled during foraging

d)

Probability of being preyed upon

94.

The Marginal Value Theorem predicts that a forager should leave a patch when:

a)

The instantaneous intake rate in the patch falls below the average intake rate in the environment

b)

All resources in the patch are completely depleted

c)

Travel time between patches is shortest

d)

Competitors first arrive in the patch

95.

Which factor would increase the predicted optimal time a forager should spend in a patch, according to the Marginal Value Theorem?

a)

Shorter travel time to the next patch

b)

Higher average environmental intake rate

c)

Longer travel time between patches

d)

Faster initial gain curve in the current patch

96.

When deciding whether to specialize or generalize in diet, the optimal diet model predicts that a predator should add a prey type to its diet when:

a)

The prey is rare but large

b)

The encounter rate with preferred prey is high

c)

The energy gain from the new prey minus handling costs increases overall energy intake rate

d)

Handling time for preferred prey is short

97.

Which search strategy is most consistent with optimal foraging when prey are patchily distributed and detection improves with movement?

a)

Sit-and-wait at a single point

b)

Area-restricted search that increases turning rate after a capture

c)

Random straight-line movement regardless of captures

d)

Always return to the same patch after each capture

98.

Territorial behavior is least likely to be favored when:

a)

Resource renewal rates are high and evenly spread

b)

Intrusion pressure is high and defense costs are high

c)

Resources are clumped and predictable

d)

Competitors can be excluded effectively

99.

Which term describes a long-term social and/or sexual association between two individuals that can influence parental care and mating opportunities?

a)

Pair bond

b)

Sperm precedence

c)

Promiscuity

d)

Dominant species

100.

In behavioural ecology, which mating system involves one male mating with multiple females within a breeding season?

a)

Monogamy

b)

Polygyny

c)

Polyandry

d)

Promiscuity

101.

Which mating system is characterized by one female mating with multiple males, often associated with high male parental investment or resource defense by females?

a)

Polygyny

b)

Polyandry

c)

Serial monogamy

d)

Lekking

102.

Promiscuity in animals is best defined as

a)

exclusive pair bonds for life

b)

individuals mating with multiple partners without lasting pair bonds

c)

one male defending a harem of females

d)

females exclusively choosing a single mate

103.

Which scenario most clearly exemplifies social monogamy rather than genetic monogamy?

a)

A pair raises offspring together but engages in extra-pair copulations

b)

A pair mates exclusively and shares parenting

c)

One male mates with several females who each raise young alone

d)

Males display collectively in a lek with no parental care

104.

Sexual selection is a subset of natural selection that arises from

a)

differential survival due to predation

b)

differences in mating success among individuals

c)

random genetic drift

d)

environmental disturbances like fire

105.

Mate choice typically leads to the evolution of

a)

traits that increase foraging efficiency only

b)

conspicuous ornaments or displays that signal genetic or resource quality

c)

reduced variation in secondary sexual traits

d)

strict lifelong pair bonds

106.

Which outcome is most directly associated with sperm precedence?

a)

Earlier-mating males gain a fertilization advantage

b)

Later-mating males gain a fertilization advantage

c)

Females prevent all sperm competition

d)

Males avoid mate guarding

107.

In a species with intense male–male competition and minimal male parental care, which mating system is most likely?

a)

Monogamy

b)

Polygyny

c)

Polyandry

d)

Obligate cooperative breeding

108.

Consider a bird species where females rely on scattered, defensible food patches that males rarely help exploit. Females compete for high-quality territories and males provide intensive parental care to gain mating opportunities. Which mating system is most consistent with this ecology?

a)

Polygyny

b)

Polyandry

c)

Promiscuity

d)

Genetic monogamy

109.

Lekking is most closely linked to which combination of features?

a)

Resource defense and biparental care

b)

Male aggregations for display and strong female choice, with little male parental care

c)

Exclusive pair bonds and equal parental investment

d)

Female defense and male parental care

110.

Which statement best contrasts social monogamy and genetic monogamy?

a)

Both require exclusive mating with no extra-pair fertilizations

b)

Social monogamy refers to pair-living and shared care; genetic monogamy means all offspring are sired by the social partner

c)

Genetic monogamy refers to cohabitation only; social monogamy means exclusive paternity

d)

Neither involves pair bonds

111.

Which term describes species that have a disproportionate effect on community structure relative to their abundance?

a)

Indicator species

b)

Keystone species

c)

Invasive species

d)

Foundation species

112.

According to the material, which process directly shortens average food chain length in a habitat?

a)

Increased primary productivity

b)

Greater habitat complexity

c)

Larger patch size

d)

Disturbance

113.

A predator that feeds on the best competitor is removed from a community. What is the most likely ecological outcome described?

a)

The best competitor declines due to lack of prey

b)

The best competitor expands and may exclude other species

c)

All species increase equally

d)

Food chain length increases substantially

114.

Which statement best distinguishes dominance from diversity in a community?

a)

Dominance is the opposite of diversity because both measure species richness

b)

Dominance is unrelated to evenness and only reflects biomass

c)

Dominance is the opposite of evenness; a community can be diverse yet have dominant species

d)

Dominance and diversity always increase together

115.

Which pair correctly matches an ecosystem engineer and its primary physical alteration of the environment?

a)

Beavers — open bush to create grazing patches

b)

Elephants — build dams that create wetlands

c)

Beavers — build dams that alter water flow

d)

Elephants — construct coral-like reef structures

116.

Which term best describes interactions where both species benefit from the association?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Amensalism

d)

Parasitism

e)

Allelopathy

117.

In interspecific competition, which statement is most accurate?

a)

It occurs among individuals of the same species

b)

It involves predator–prey dynamics only

c)

It occurs between different species using overlapping resources

d)

It requires direct physical confrontation to occur

118.

Which outcome is predicted by the competitive exclusion principle when two species compete for exactly the same limiting resource in a stable environment?

a)

Both species will indefinitely coexist at lower densities

b)

One species will eventually eliminate the other locally

c)

The weaker competitor will evolve instantly into a new species

d)

Predation will increase until both species go extinct

119.

Which option best defines an ecological niche?

a)

The geographic area a species inhabits

b)

A species’ role, resource use, and environmental tolerances

c)

Only the trophic level a species occupies

d)

The set of symbiotic partners a species interacts with

120.

Which pairing correctly matches a symbiosis with its effect on partners?

a)

Mutualism: one harmed, one unaffected

b)

Commensalism: both benefit

c)

Parasitism: one benefits, one harmed

d)

Amensalism: both harmed

121.

Amensalism is best illustrated by which scenario?

a)

Both species benefit equally from cooperation

b)

One species is harmed while the other is unaffected

c)

One species benefits and the other is harmed

d)

Both species are unaffected

122.

Allelopathy most specifically refers to:

a)

Chemical inhibition of one plant by another

b)

Nutrient sharing among mycorrhizae and plants

c)

Defensive mutualisms among animals

d)

Behavioral territoriality within a species

123.

Intraspecific competition primarily involves:

a)

Individuals of different species competing for food

b)

Individuals of the same species competing for shared resources

c)

Predators competing with prey

d)

Species interacting through commensalism

124.

Two lizard species feed on identical insect prey at the same time of day in the same microhabitat. Which concept best predicts their long-term coexistence outcome without niche differentiation?

a)

Niche complementarity

b)

Competitive exclusion principle

c)

Facultative mutualism

d)

Trophic cascade

125.

A species broadens its diet to include different seed sizes when a competitor is absent, but narrows its resource use when the competitor is present. This pattern exemplifies:

a)

Character displacement

b)

Realized niche versus fundamental niche

c)

Apparent competition

d)

Keystone mutualism

126.

Which of the following most likely reduces niche overlap between competing species, facilitating coexistence?

a)

Temporal partitioning of resource use

b)

Increase in shared predators

c)

Identical habitat preferences

d)

Exclusive reliance on the same limiting nutrient

127.

Which interaction explicitly involves one organism deriving nutrients at the expense of another, often without immediately killing it?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Amensalism