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Major Emergency/Incident Knowledge Worksheet

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The local Authority tabard at a Major Emergency/Incident is coloured

a)

red and white

b)

green and yellow

c)

green and white

d)

blue and white

2.

We use the mnemonic “ASHICE” when giving information to the hospital if we need them on standby. The letter “A” stands for

a)

age of patient

b)

Airway status

c)

Arrival time

d)

address of patient

3.

Of the choices below, which pro word indicates the practitioner has finished the communication and does not expect a reply?

a)

Goodbye

b)

over

c)

out

d)

Wilco

4.

What colour is the inner cordon of a major incident:

a)

silver

b)

gold

c)

black

d)

bronze

5.

VHF frequency on your radio stands for

a)

Vertical Height Frequency

b)

Very High Frequency

c)

Vertical High Frequency

d)

Venetian High Frequency

6.

The letter X displayed on an ADR card indicates that the substance

a)

reacts dangerously with water

b)

is not neutralised by water

c)

does not react dangerously with water

d)

is neutralised by water

7.

When you have sufficient resources to deal with a major emergency but these resources have not arrived yet, this is classified as

a)

Compensated

b)

uncompensated

c)

compound

d)

simple

8.

The forward incident officer at a major emergency operates at which level

a)

frontline

b)

strategic

c)

operational

d)

tactical

9.

Handling, storage and forensic arrangements regarding the dead at a major emergency is the responsibility of the

a)

medical officer

b)

HSE ambulance service

c)

Gardai

d)

local authority

10.

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you discover that he is unable to walk, has a respiratory rate of 24 and a pulse rate of 110. He is classified as

a)

delayed

b)

urgent

c)

expectant

d)

immediate

11.

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you find a female walking about, who is approximately 8 months pregnant. She is classified as

a)

immediate

b)

urgent

c)

delayed

d)

expectant

12.

During triage sieve, a capillary refill time above 2 seconds indicates a category of

a)

delayed

b)

urgent

c)

expectant

d)

immediate

13.

The METHANE message from a major emergency should be sent by

a)

second practitioner on scene

b)

first practitioner on scene

c)

forward incident officer

d)

HSE controller of operations

14.

The recent earthquake disaster in Haiti is an example of which type of major emergency

a)

manmade

b)

compensated

c)

simple

d)

natural

15.

Treatment of casualties at a major emergency should be

a)

supervised by the lead clinician

b)

limited to the minimum required prior to transport to treatment facilities

c)

delegated to auxiliary and voluntary services

d)

carried out using all pre-hospital care prodcedures available

16.

Triage sieve is performed

a)

where the casualties are found

b)

at the casualty clearing station

c)

on the way to the hospital

d)

only for casualties with obvious injuries

17.

In the phonetic alphabet, 'N' is denoted by

a)

November

b)

Norway

c)

Nora

d)

Nova

18.

The letter 'P' is given as ________ in the phonetic alphabet

a)

peter

b)

paul

c)

paris

d)

pencil

19.

When giving an ASHICE message, the letter A stands for

a)

address of incident

b)

allergies

c)

arrival time on scene

d)

age of patient

20.

When attending an incident involving a hazardous material the ambulance should be parked

a)

upwind

b)

downhill

c)

downwind

d)

on the side closest to the hospital

21.

The first practitioner on scene at a major emergency should

a)

set up a casualty clearing station

b)

start to triage casualties

c)

stay with the ambulance and act as communications officer

d)

immediately transport the first available patients

22.

In triage, a yellow coloured card represents

a)

dead

b)

urgent

c)

delayed

d)

immediate

23.

In triage, a green label indicates

a)

immediate

b)

urgent

c)

dead

d)

delayed

24.

In triage, a red label indicates

a)

urgent

b)

delayed

c)

dead

d)

immediate

25.

The collapse of the world trade centre in New York was what type of major emergency?

a)

man-made

b)

natural

c)

simple

d)

compensated

26.

The person in charge of the health service activities at a major emergency is called the

a)

controller of operations

b)

medical incident officer

c)

ambulance incident officer

d)

health service manager

27.

During a major emergency you find a male infant who appears to be abandoned. He is conscious and has a large bruise on his left forehead, respiration rate of 26 and a capillary refill of 2 seconds. What category patient is he?

a)

urgent

b)

immediate

c)

dead

d)

delayed

28.

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the Gardai wear at the scene of a major emergency?

a)

green and white

b)

blue and white

c)

blue and yellow

d)

red and white

29.

When attending a hazardous materials incident the ambulance should be positioned

a)

a. uphill and downwind

b)

b. as close to the scene as possible

c)

c. uphill and upwind

d)

d. downhill and upwind

30.

The letter "E" on a hazchem code indicates

4 lines
31.

Under the ADR hazard warning code, a truck carrying multiple chemical loads will display:

a)

emergency

b)

reacts dangerously with water

c)

evacuate all rescue personnel

d)

consider evacuation

32.

Which type of civil disorder involves several sites of disturbance?

a)

riot

b)

ambush

c)

running disorder

d)

standard disorder

33.

While triaging, a young man states he cannot feel or move his legs. Pulse 100, resps 14, alert, Cap refill normal. Correct category is:

a)

green

b)

white

c)

red

d)

Yellow

34.

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the local authority wear at the scene of a major emergency?

a)

red and white

b)

blue and white

c)

green and white

d)

green and yellow

35.

The use of the keyword 'ROGER' when using radio communications indicates:

a)

I heard the message

b)

I want you to repeat the message

c)

send the message again

d)

I understand the message

36.

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the ambulance service wear at the scene of a major emergency?

a)

green and yellow

b)

blue and white

c)

green and white

d)

red and white

37.

While triaging, a woman in her twenties is unconscious with severe facial wounds. Pulse 40, resps 0 and cap refill delayed. Her category is:

a)

red

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

white

38.

In radio communications, UHF stands for

a)

ultra hard frequency

b)

ultra home frequency

c)

ultimate high frequency

d)

ultra high frequency

39.

"Over" is an example of a

a)

short message

b)

proword

c)

long message

d)

call sign

40.

In the phonetic alphabet, the letter I is denoted by

a)

indigo

b)

ireland

c)

india

d)

indian

41.

In the phonetic alphabet, the letter Y is denoted by

a)

yvonne

b)

yvette

c)

yankee

d)

yankeaur

42.

Radio communications over short range uses ____________

a)

UHF (ultra high frequency)

b)

AM (amplitude modulation)

c)

FM (frequency modulation)

d)

SW (shortwave)

43.

In an ASHICE message the letter C denotes

a)

condition

b)

cause

c)

clinical status decision

d)

CUPS

44.

In an ASHICE message the letter E denotes

a)

emergency services required

b)

emergency services present at scene

c)

evacuation procedure

d)

estimated time of arrival

45.

The proword that should be used before spelling a word during a radio transmission is

a)

i say

b)

i spell

c)

speaking

d)

wait out

46.

When at the scene of a civil disorder the ambulance should be parked

a)

facing out with back doors open

b)

facing in with back doors open

c)

facing in with back doors closed

d)

facing out with back doors closed

47.

How many digits are there in a UN number

a)

3

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

48.

The figure "X" when displayed on a HAZCHEM label is listed as part of the:

a)

emergency action code

b)

chemical name

c)

UN number

d)

hazard class

49.

On a HAZCHEM label where is the company logo located?

a)

Emergency Action Code (EAC)

b)

UN number

c)

hazard warning diamond

d)

specialist advice phone number

50.

What is contained on the bottom section of an ADR plate?

a)

bottom right

b)

bottom left

c)

top left

d)

top right

51.

Who is responsible for controlling access to the outer cordon at the scene of a major emergency?

a)

Gardai

b)

fire service

c)

local authority

d)

ambulance officer

52.

Following dispatch to the scene of civil disorder, an ambulance crew should

a)

proceed to the scene of the disorder

b)

report to the rendezvous point

c)

refuse to attend

d)

request a Garda escort

53.

The correct calculations for weight estimation for a 2 year old patient are?

a)

(Age x 3) + 7

b)

(Age x 2) + 8

c)

age x 4

d)

2 x (age + 5)

54.

According to CPG, an infant is aged

a)

4 weeks to one year old

b)

birth to 1 year

55.

For a cardiac arrest how many practitioner/responders should be mobilised as a minimum?

a)

4 - 6

b)

6 - 8

c)

crew of 2

d)

3 - 4

56.

When a patient has a foreign body airway obstruction, but is able to cough, the EMT should:

a)

give the patient a drink of water or milk

b)

Encourage the patient to cough

c)

observe the patient until complete obstruction

d)

Give 1 – 5 back blows followed by 1 – 5 abdominal thrusts

57.

A patient who is bleeding within the skull will most likely produce which of the following sets of vital signs:

a)

Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and lowering respiratory rate

b)

Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and rising respiratory rate

c)

Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

d)

Rising blood pressure, rising pulse and lowering respiratory rate

58.

The most important sign in the evaluation of a head injured patient is:

a)

Tachypnea

b)

pulse rate

c)

loss of consciousness

d)

Blood pressure

59.

A patient with severe bleeding from a wound on their neck is best cared for using a/an

a)

haemostatic dressing

b)

pressure points

c)

ambulance dressing

d)

tourniquet

60.

A condition in which there is progressive loss of elasticity of the lungs, with an over expansion of the alveoli is known as

a)

Asthma

b)

pulmonary embolism

c)

Bronchitis

d)

emphysema

61.

Which of the following statements regarding damage to the spinal cord is true?

a)

the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

b)

When damaged it will cause loss of leg movement only

c)

all neurological effects are permanent

d)

The thoracic region is the most frequently injured part

62.

The most reliable sign that your patient is being adequately ventilated by a bag-valve mask

a)

The patient’s chest rises and falls with each ventilation delivered

b)

the patient begins breathing on their own

c)

The patient regains consciousness

d)

the pulse rate quickens

63.

One cause of acute abdominal pain is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, which is described as

a)

Bleeding from the stomach

b)

An area of weakening and dilation in the wall of an artery

c)

Hematemesis

d)

Coffee ground vomit

64.

Agonal respirations are best defined as

a)

Agonal respirations are abnormal, gasping breaths often seen in dying patients.

b)

Agonal respirations are slow, regular breaths seen during sleep.

c)

Agonal respirations are rapid, shallow breaths seen during exercise.

d)

Agonal respirations are deep, sighing breaths seen in healthy individuals.

65.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the Sino Atrial (SA) Node?

a)

It is the principle pacemaker of the heart

b)

It is located below the AV node

c)

It fires approximately 40 – 60 times

d)

it only controls the ventricles

66.

In addition to ventricular fibrillation, what other rhythm may be shocked by the AED?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Premature ventricular contractions

c)

Normal sinus rhythm

d)

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

67.

Which of the following is most likely to produce hypovolemic shock?

a)

ruptured spleen

b)

Spinal cord injury

c)

laceration to scalp

d)

Pott’s fracture

68.

Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on kinetic energy?

a)

Increasing oscillation

b)

Increasing density

c)

Increasing mass

d)

Increasing velocity

69.

In what position might a patient with congestive heart failure be most comfortable?

a)

upright

b)

Prone

c)

trendelenburg

d)

Supine

70.

Each ovary is connected to the uterus by

a)

vagina

b)

uterus

c)

urethra

d)

fallopian tube

71.

To prevent supine hypotension, a pregnant patient with history of blood pressure problems should be transported in what position

a)

Lying on the left side

b)

Prone position

c)

Fowler's position

d)

Supine position

72.

In an emergency delivery the amniotic sac has not naturally ruptured, the EMT can

a)

Rush baby and mother to hospital immediately

b)

Puncture the sac with a gloved hand

c)

do nothing as the baby will break the sac

d)

Strip the sac away when the baby is fully delivered

73.

A pregnancy is divided into stages known as

a)

trimesters

b)

months

c)

semesters

d)

weeks

74.

________ shock is a condition caused by a reaction to a drug, bite or sting, which reduces peripheral resistance and venous return

a)

Septic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Hypovolemic

75.

Meconium staining, a sign of foetal distress, is a result of

a)

a. Hypoxia

b)

b. Hyperoxia

c)

c. Hypovolemia

d)

d. Hypervolemia

76.

A significant difference between paediatric and adult patients is the:

a)

foetal defecation

b)

Post-partum haemorrhage

c)

Mucus from the foetus’s mouth and nose

d)

vaginal bleeding

77.

The most appropriate emergency care for a 3 year old male patient suffering severe respiratory distress should include:

a)

oxygen delivered via non-rebreather mask

b)

oxygen delivered by nasal cannula

c)

Assisted ventilations with supplement oxygen at 4 LPM

d)

Oxygen by the blow by method

78.

Which of the following is a very common cause of seizures in children aged between 6 months and 5 years old?

a)

Accidental poisoning

b)

Accidental head injury

c)

sudden rise in temperature

d)

flashing lights

79.

When examining the fontanelles of an infant, a normal state would be:

a)

2 – 3 inches below the cranial surface

b)

Slightly bulging

c)

Smooth and level

d)

Slightly sunken

80.

In PHECC guidelines, a paediatric patient is aged:

a)

<16 years old

b)

<1 year old

c)

<8 years old

d)

<10 years old

81.

Paediatric defibrillation pads should be used for patients under ___ years of age.

a)

8

b)

10

c)

5

d)

12

82.

The more serious causes of abdominal pain are the internal bleeding, peptic ulcer, diverticulitis, abdominal aneurysm, kidney stones and ________

a)

Flatulence

b)

Menstrual pains

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

d)

Abdominal cramps

83.

In PHECC standards, the paediatric weight estimation of a one to five year old is

a)

Age x 3 +8kg

b)

Age x 3 + 9kg

c)

Age x 2 + 8kg

d)

Age x 3 +7kg

84.

The paediatric weight estimation of a neonate is

a)

6kg

b)

10kg

c)

5kg

d)

3.5Kg

85.

For a paediatric patient, what percentage of the body surface area is given to the head

a)

9%

b)

1%

c)

18%

d)

14.5%

86.

Moderate asthma in a child <5 yrs old should be treated with ____ by the EMT

a)

Salbutamol 5mg NEB

b)

Salbutamol 2.5mg NEB

c)

Oxygen only

d)

Chlorphenamine 4mg PO

87.

The term “haematuria” relates to

a)

Blood in the vomit

b)

Blood in the urine

c)

Blood in the stool

d)

Blood from the nose

88.

You are called to the house of a responsive 65 year old man who complains of sudden chest pain whilst watching television. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 156/92 and respirations 18 and laboured. He looks very pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following medication/s is/are indicated for this patient?

a)

GTN only

b)

Aspirin only

c)

Aspirin and GTN

d)

Aspirin and salbutamol

89.

A nasal cannula at the proper setting on the flow regulator (1 - 6 litres per minute), can deliver a minimum and maximum oxygen concentration of

a)

a. 28 - 44%

b)

b. 24 - 40%

c)

c. 24 - 44%

d)

d. 24 - 48%

90.

You are assessing a patient with ACS when they suddenly collapse to the floor. The patient is unresponsive, not breathing and has no pulse. The first action you carry out is

a)

Start chest compressions

b)

Attach defibrillation pads

c)

Insert an OPA

d)

Provide two ventilations

91.

There are three main causes of fainting (syncope), one is postural, second is emotional stress and the third is ________

a)

Respiratory in origin

b)

Cardiac in origin

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperglycaemia

92.

When dealing with a patient with Epistaxis, digital pressure should be applied for?

a)

15 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

20 minutes

93.

Regular contraction, bloody show and rupture of the membranes are all indications of what stage of labour

a)

Third stage

b)

Second stage

c)

First stage

d)

Fourth stage

94.

Of the problems listed below, which should the EMT consider first when treating a patient with severe facial injuries

a)

The lower jaw may also be fractured which will cause extreme pain

b)

Airway compromise

c)

The patient may have brain damage

d)

The patient may have a fractured skull

95.

Under certain circumstances, an impaled object may be removed if it is located in the

(a)  

96.

When completing a PCR you make a mistake recording the time, you should

a)

Cross through the mistake, and write correct time

b)

Use correction fluid and inform the receiving nurse when you get to the hospital

c)

start a new PCR

d)

Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time