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EMT and Emergency Care Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary responsibility of an EMT?

a)

To diagnose medical conditions

b)

To provide pre-hospital emergency medical care

c)

To perform surgeries

d)

To prescribe medication

2.

Which of the following is a sign of shock?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Warm, dry skin

c)

Rapid, weak pulse

d)

Elevated body temperature

3.

What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adult CPR?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

5:1

d)

40:2

4.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the ABCs of emergency care?

a)

A) Airway

b)

B) Breathing

c)

C) Circulation

d)

D) Diagnosis

5.

In which position should a patient experiencing respiratory distress be placed?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Fowlers

d)

Trendelenburg

6.

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?

a)

Trauma

b)

Drug overdose

c)

Heart disease

d)

Drowning

7.

Which of the following vital signs is typically assessed last?

a)

A) Pulse

b)

B) Blood Pressure

c)

C) Respirations

d)

D) Temperature

8.

What is the purpose of an AED?

a)

To provide oxygen

b)

To defibrillate the heart

c)

To monitor heart rhythms

d)

To perform CPR

9.

Which of the following injuries requires immediate transport?

a)

Sprained ankle

b)

Fractured wrist

c)

Open fracture with visible bone

d)

Minor laceration

10.

What does OPQRST stand for in the assessment of pain?

a)

Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time

b)

Objective, Physical, Quality, Response, Severity, Treatment

c)

Onset, Pain, Quality, Risk, Severity, Time

d)

Origin, Place, Quantity, Response, Severity, Time

11.

What is the normal heart rate for an adult at rest?

a)

40-60 bpm

b)

60-100 bpm

c)

100-120 bpm

d)

120-150 bpm

12.

Which of the following is a common symptom of myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

a)

A) Sudden weight gain

b)

B) Chest pain or discomfort

c)

C) Severe headache

d)

D) Nausea without vomiting

13.

What is the most important aspect of effective communication in emergency medical services?

a)

Using complex medical terminology

b)

Speaking loudly

c)

Active listening

d)

Avoiding eye contact

14.

When communicating with a patient, which of the following should be avoided?

a)

A) Asking open-ended questions

b)

B) Using jargon

c)

C) Maintaining eye contact

d)

D) Demonstrating empathy

15.

What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

a)

To circulate blood

b)

To exchange gases

c)

To digest food

d)

To regulate body temperature

16.

Which condition is characterized by wheezing and difficulty breathing?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

COPD

17.

What is the route of administration for nitroglycerin in an EMT setting?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Sublingual

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Oral

18.

Which medication is commonly used to treat allergic reactions?

a)

A) Aspirin

b)

B) Epinephrine

c)

C) Nitroglycerin

d)

D) Albuterol

19.

What is a common sign of hypoglycemia?

a)

Increased thirst

b)

Confusion or irritability

c)

Frequent urination

d)

Weight loss

20.

What should an EMT administer to a conscious patient with hypoglycemia?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Oral glucose

d)

Water

21.

What is the first action an EMT should take when a patient is having a seizure?

a)

Restrain the patient

b)

Place something in the patient's mouth

c)

Protect the patient from injury

d)

Call for advanced medical support

22.

What condition is characterized by a sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain?

a)

Stroke

b)

Seizure

c)

Syncope

d)

Shock

23.

What is a common acronym used to assess stroke symptoms?

a)

FAST

b)

COLD

c)

OPQRST

d)

SAMPLE

24.

Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of a stroke?

a)

A) Sudden confusion

b)

B) Sudden severe headache

c)

C) Sudden vision changes

d)

D) Gradual onset of symptoms

25.

What is a common symptom of congestive heart failure?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Sudden weight loss

c)

Severe chest pain

d)

Intense thirst

26.

Which position is best for a patient experiencing heart failure?

a)

Supine

b)

Sitting upright

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

27.

What is considered a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?

a)

90/60 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

140/90 mmHg

d)

160/100 mmHg

28.

What does the systolic blood pressure measure?

a)

Pressure when the heart is resting

b)

Pressure when the heart contracts

c)

Average pressure in the arteries

d)

Pressure in the veins

29.

Which of the following is NOT considered a vital sign?

a)

Temperature

b)

Respirations

c)

Pulse

30.

What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?

a)

10-20 breaths per minute

b)

12-16 breaths per minute

c)

16-24 breaths per minute

d)

20-30 breaths per minute

31.

Which of the following is a sign of a serious head injury?

a)

A) Minor headache

b)

B) Nausea and vomiting

c)

C) Dizziness

d)

D) Fatigue

32.

What is the primary concern for a patient with a suspected skull fracture?

a)

Pain management

b)

Controlling bleeding

c)

Preventing infection

d)

Airway management

33.

What is the primary reason for spinal immobilization?

a)

To prevent further injury

b)

To make the patient comfortable

c)

To provide pain relief

d)

To assist in diagnostics

34.

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would most likely cause a spinal injury?

a)

A) A fall from a standing position

b)

B) A minor car accident

c)

C) A high-speed motor vehicle collision

d)

D) Walking on uneven terrain

35.

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating consciousness?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Brainstem

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Hypothalamus

36.

What is the primary function of the cerebellum?

a)

A) Heart rate regulation

b)

B) Coordination and balance

c)

C) Memory storage

37.

What is the primary function of red blood cells?

a)

Fighting infection

b)

Clotting blood

c)

Carrying oxygen

d)

Transporting nutrients

38.

Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

39.

Which of the following is a sign of poor perfusion?

a)

Warm, dry skin

b)

Cold, clammy skin

c)

Pink, moist skin

d)

Pale, dry skin

40.

What is the primary function of the skin?

a)

To produce hormones

b)

To protect internal organs

c)

To aid in digestion

d)

To regulate body temperature

41.

What is the first priority in treating a patient with burns?

a)

Covering the burns

b)

Cooling the burns

c)

Ensuring the airway is open

d)

Administering pain relief

42.

Which degree of burn affects only the epidermis?

a)

First-degree burn

b)

Second-degree burn

c)

Third-degree burn

d)

Fourth-degree burn

43.

What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

44.

What is the recommended rate of compressions during CPR for adults?

a)

60-80 compressions per minute

b)

80-100 compressions per minute

c)

100-120 compressions per minute

d)

120-140 compressions per minute

45.

What is the purpose of an AED?

a)

To provide oxygen

b)

To assess vital signs

c)

To analyze heart rhythms and deliver shocks

d)

To perform CPR

46.

When should you deliver a shock using an AED?

a)

When the patient is breathing normally

b)

When the patient is unresponsive and has no pulse

c)

When the patient is awake and alert

d)

When the patient has a weak pulse

47.

What is a common sign of respiratory distress in children?

a)

Blue skin

b)

Increased appetite

c)

High energy

d)

Mild cough

48.

Which is the preferred method of assessing a child's airway?

a)

Head-tilt, chin-lift

b)

Jaw-thrust maneuver

c)

Modified jaw-thrust

d)

Neck extension

49.

What is the first step in managing a patient in cardiac arrest?

a)

Start CPR

b)

Call for emergency services

c)

Use an AED

d)

Provide rescue breaths

50.

In adult cardiac arrest, what should be done if the patient is in a shockable rhythm?

a)

Continue CPR only

b)

Use the AED to deliver a shock

c)

Monitor the patient without intervention

d)

Administer medications

51.

What is the first action an EMT should take when a delivery is imminent?

a)

Call for advanced medical support

b)

Prepare the delivery area

c)

Perform a vaginal exam

d)

Ask the mother to push

52.

What is the primary concern during delivery?

a)

Preventing the mother from pushing

b)

Ensuring the baby's airway is clear

c)

Monitoring the mother's blood pressure

d)

Providing comfort to the father

53.

What is the primary mechanism of injury in a head-on collision?

a)

Compression

b)

Deceleration

c)

Lateral impact

d)

Penetrating injury

54.

Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding?

a)

Swelling at the injury site

b)

Obvious deformity

c)

Rapid heartbeat and pale skin

55.

What is the appropriate treatment for a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

a)

Immobilization with a cervical collar and backboard

b)

Immediate transport without stabilization

c)

Encouraging movement to assess injury

d)

Applying ice to the injury site

56.

Which of the following types of trauma is most likely to cause a tension pneumothorax?

a)

A) Blunt trauma to the chest

b)

B) Penetrating trauma to the abdomen

c)

C) Fractured rib

d)

D) Blunt trauma to the abdomen

57.

What is the purpose of positive pressure ventilation?

a)

To decrease the work of breathing

b)

To increase oxygen saturation

c)

To assist or replace spontaneous breathing

d)

To induce a cough reflex

58.

Which of the following indicates effective ventilation?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Increased respiratory effort

c)

Improved oxygen saturation

d)

Cyanosis

59.

What is the recommended rate for providing rescue breaths in an adult?

a)

8-10 breaths per minute

b)

10-12 breaths per minute

c)

12-15 breaths per minute

d)

15-20 breaths per minute

60.

What should you do if a patient is in respiratory distress but still conscious?

a)

Place the patient in a supine position

b)

Administer oxygen and encourage calm, controlled breathing

c)

Perform chest compressions

61.

What is the primary responsibility of an EMT?

a)

To diagnose medical conditions

b)

To provide pre-hospital emergency medical care

c)

To perform surgeries

d)

To prescribe medication

62.

Which of the following is a sign of shock?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Warm, dry skin

c)

Rapid, weak pulse

d)

Elevated body temperature

63.

What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adult CPR?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

5:1

d)

40:2

64.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the ABCs of emergency care?

a)

Airway

b)

Breathing

c)

Circulation

d)

Diagnosis

65.

In which position should a patient experiencing respiratory distress be placed?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Fowlers

d)

Trendelenburg

66.

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?

a)

Trauma

b)

Drug overdose

c)

Heart disease

d)

Drowning

67.

Which of the following vital signs is typically assessed last?

a)

Pulse

b)

Blood Pressure

c)

Respirations

d)

Temperature

68.

What is the purpose of an AED?

a)

To provide oxygen

b)

To defibrillate the heart

c)

To monitor heart rhythms

69.

Which of the following injuries requires immediate transport?

a)

Sprained ankle

b)

Fractured wrist

c)

Open fracture with visible bone

d)

Minor laceration

70.

What does OPQRST stand for in the assessment of pain?

a)

Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time

b)

Objective, Physical, Quality, Response, Severity, Treatment

c)

Onset, Pain, Quality, Risk, Severity, Time

d)

Origin, Place, Quantity, Response, Severity, Time

71.

What is the normal heart rate for an adult at rest?

a)

40-60 bpm

b)

60-100 bpm

c)

100-120 bpm

d)

120-150 bpm

72.

Which of the following is a common symptom of myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

a)

Sudden weight gain

b)

Chest pain or discomfort

c)

Severe headache

d)

Nausea without vomiting

73.

What is the most important aspect of effective communication in emergency medical services?

a)

Using complex medical terminology

b)

Speaking loudly

c)

Active listening

d)

Avoiding eye contact

74.

When communicating with a patient, which of the following should be avoided?

a)

Asking open-ended questions

b)

Using jargon

c)

Maintaining eye contact

d)

Demonstrating empathy

75.

What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

a)

To circulate blood

b)

To exchange gases

c)

To digest food

d)

To regulate body temperature

76.

Which condition is characterized by wheezing and difficulty breathing?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

77.

What is the route of administration for nitroglycerin in an EMT setting?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Sublingual

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Oral

78.

Which medication is commonly used to treat allergic reactions?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Albuterol

79.

What is a common sign of hypoglycemia?

a)

Increased thirst

b)

Confusion or irritability

c)

Frequent urination

d)

Weight loss

80.

What should an EMT administer to a conscious patient with hypoglycemia?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Oral glucose

d)

Water

81.

What is the first action an EMT should take when a patient is having a seizure?

a)

Restrain the patient

b)

Place something in the patient's mouth

c)

Protect the patient from injury

d)

Call for advanced medical support

82.

What condition is characterized by a sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain?

a)

Stroke

b)

Seizure

c)

Syncope

d)

Shock

83.

What is a common acronym used to assess stroke symptoms?

a)

FAST

b)

COLD

c)

OPQRST

d)

SAMPLE

84.

Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of a stroke?

4 lines
85.

What is a common symptom of congestive heart failure?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Sudden weight loss

c)

Severe chest pain

d)

Intense thirst

86.

Which position is best for a patient experiencing heart failure?

a)

Supine

b)

Sitting upright

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

87.

What is considered a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?

a)

90/60 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

140/90 mmHg

d)

160/100 mmHg

88.

What does the systolic blood pressure measure?

a)

Pressure when the heart is resting

b)

Pressure when the heart contracts

c)

Average pressure in the arteries

d)

Pressure in the veins

89.

Which of the following is NOT considered a vital sign?

a)

Temperature

b)

Respirations

c)

Pulse

d)

Skin color

90.

What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?

a)

10-20 breaths per minute

b)

12-16 breaths per minute

c)

16-24 breaths per minute

d)

20-30 breaths per minute

91.

Which of the following is a sign of poor perfusion?

a)

Warm, dry skin

b)

Cold, clammy skin

c)

Pink, moist skin

d)

Pale, dry skin

92.

What is the first priority in treating a patient with burns?

4 lines
93.

Which degree of burn affects only the epidermis?

a)

First-degree burn

b)

Second-degree burn

c)

Third-degree burn

d)

Fourth-degree burn

94.

What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

95.

What is the recommended rate of compressions during CPR for adults?

a)

60-80 compressions per minute

b)

80-100 compressions per minute

c)

100-120 compressions per minute

d)

120-140 compressions per minute

96.

What is the purpose of an AED?

a)

To provide oxygen

b)

To analyze heart rhythms and deliver shocks

c)

To perform CPR

d)

To monitor vital signs

97.

When should you deliver a shock using an AED?

a)

When the patient is breathing normally

b)

When the patient is unresponsive and has no pulse

c)

When the patient is awake and alert

d)

When the patient has a weak pulse

98.

What is a common sign of respiratory distress in children?

a)

Blue skin

b)

Increased appetite

c)

High energy

d)

Mild cough

99.

Which is the preferred method of assessing a child's airway?

a)

Head-tilt, chin-lift

b)

Jaw-thrust maneuver

c)

Modified jaw-thrust

d)

Neck extension

100.

What is the first step in managing a patient in cardiac arrest?

(a)  

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