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Worksheets

Circulatory System Functions and Blood Composition

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a primary function of the circulatory system?

a)

Transport of gases and nutrients

b)

Regulation of body temperature

c)

Production of digestive enzymes

d)

Defense against pathogens

2.

The hematocrit value represents:

a)

The percentage of plasma proteins in the blood

b)

The percentage of blood composed of erythrocytes

c)

The ratio of red to white blood cells

d)

The percentage of blood composed of water

3.

A decreased hematocrit value could indicate which of the following?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Anemia

d)

High altitude adaptation

4.

What is the approximate pH of blood under normal physiological conditions?

a)

7.0

b)

7.15

c)

7.35–7.45

d)

7.5–7.8

5.

Which component of blood contributes most to its viscosity?

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Sodium ions

6.

High blood osmolarity would most likely result in:

a)

Dehydration of tissues and increased blood pressure

b)

Edema in tissues and low blood pressure

c)

Rapid clotting

d)

Reduced blood viscosity

7.

Which plasma protein is most abundant and contributes most to osmotic balance and viscosity?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Globulin

c)

Albumin

d)

Prothrombin

8.

What plasma protein is the precursor to fibrin in blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Gamma globulin

d)

Hemoglobin

9.

Which plasma proteins are primarily responsible for immune functions?

a)

Fibrinogens

b)

Albumins

c)

Globulins

d)

Prothrombins

10.

Which of the following makes up about 90% of plasma cations?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Calcium

d)

Magnesium

11.

When blood is centrifuged, what forms the “buffy coat”?

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets and white blood cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Water and proteins

12.

Which statement best describes plasma versus serum?

a)

Plasma and serum are identical

b)

Serum is plasma without clotting factors

c)

Plasma is serum without albumin

d)

Serum contains platelets and fibrinogen

13.

Which of the following are major functions of the circulatory system?

a)

Transport of nutrients and hormones

b)

Regulation of body temperature

c)

Secretion of digestive enzymes

d)

Defense against pathogens

e)

Synthesis of vitamin D

14.

Which components are classified as formed elements of blood?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

e)

Water

15.

Plasma proteins are primarily responsible for which of the following functions?

a)

Osmotic balance

b)

Blood viscosity

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Clot formation

e)

Immune defense

16.

Which of the following could raise blood osmolarity?

a)

Dehydration

b)

High sodium intake

c)

Severe bleeding

d)

Excessive water intake

e)

Increased plasma proteins

17.

The biconcave shape of erythrocytes primarily allows for:

a)

Greater oxygen binding capacity due to more hemoglobin

b)

Enhanced surface area for gas exchange and flexibility in vessels

c)

Storage of nutrients and enzymes

d)

Faster mitotic division during maturation

18.

Mature erythrocytes lack which of the following structures?

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

Ribosomes and nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Hemoglobin

19.

The main function of red blood cells is to:

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Store iron for future use

d)

Secrete hemoglobin into plasma

20.

What enzyme inside RBCs helps maintain acid–base balance by converting CO₂ and H₂O to carbonic acid?

a)

Carbonic anhydrase

b)

Catalase

c)

Amylase

d)

Acetylcholinesterase

21.

Which of the following correctly lists the normal hematocrit ranges for men and women?

a)

Men: 30–40%, Women: 25–35%

b)

Men: 42–52%, Women: 37–48%

c)

Men: 50–65%, Women: 40–55%

d)

Men: 36–46%, Women: 32–42%

22.

A hematocrit of 80% would most likely indicate:

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Leukemia

d)

Hemophilia

23.

The glycoproteins and glycolipids on RBC surfaces are responsible for:

a)

Oxygen exchange

b)

Cell flexibility

c)

Blood type determination

d)

Membrane transport

24.

What is the normal RBC count for adult males?

a)

3.0–4.0 million/µL

b)

4.6–6.2 million/µL

c)

6.5–7.5 million/µL

d)

2.8–3.5 million/µL

25.

Which of the following conditions would likely stimulate erythropoiesis?

a)

Increased oxygen levels in blood

b)

Low oxygen availability at high altitude

c)

Loss of kidney tissue

d)

Decreased exercise

26.

Which hormone directly stimulates RBC production?

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Insulin

d)

Aldosterone

27.

Reticulocytes are identified by the presence of:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

A nucleus

c)

Fragments of endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Granules

28.

Which of the following vitamins are required for rapid cell division during erythropoiesis?

a)

Vitamin C and D

b)

Vitamin B12 and folic acid

c)

Vitamin A and E

d)

Vitamin K and D

29.

Which mineral is the key nutritional requirement for hemoglobin synthesis?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Magnesium

30.

A patient with black stool and constipation due to supplements is most likely taking:

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Potassium

31.

Where are most plasma proteins (except antibodies) produced?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

32.

Which of the following structural features of RBCs increase their efficiency for gas transport?

a)

Biconcave shape

b)

Presence of mitochondria

c)

Loss of nucleus

d)

Presence of hemoglobin

e)

Thick, rigid membrane

33.

Which factors can stimulate erythropoiesis?

a)

Blood loss

b)

Low atmospheric oxygen

c)

Increased erythropoietin secretion

d)

High blood oxygen

e)

Severe dehydration

34.

Which nutrients or cofactors are essential for red blood cell formation?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Copper

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Folic acid

e)

Vitamin D

35.

Which statements accurately describe erythrocyte homeostasis?

a)

Controlled by a negative feedback loop

b)

Initiated when O₂ levels rise

c)

Dependent on kidney function

d)

Stimulated by erythropoietin

e)

Independent of bone marrow activity

36.

Each molecule of hemoglobin can carry how many oxygen molecules?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

37.

The iron atom in the heme group binds to:

a)

The alpha chain of globin

b)

The nitrogen in the heme ring

c)

One molecule of carbon dioxide

d)

One molecule of oxygen

38.

The term “glycosylated hemoglobin” (HbA1C) refers to:

a)

Hemoglobin that has lost iron

b)

Hemoglobin that binds carbon monoxide

c)

Hemoglobin chemically linked to glucose

d)

Hemoglobin replaced by fetal hemoglobin

39.

A normal HbA1C value should be:

a)

Below 4%

b)

Below 7%

c)

Between 8–10%

d)

Above 7.5%

40.

The adult produces approximately how many red blood cells each second?

a)

25,000

b)

250,000

c)

2.5 million

d)

25 million

41.

Which of the following organs is the primary site of blood cell production in adults?

a)

Liver

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Spleen

d)

Thymus

42.

During fetal development, which organs are involved in hemopoiesis?

a)

Liver and spleen

b)

Heart and lungs

c)

Kidneys and pancreas

d)

Thymus and adrenal glands

43.

Which of the following cell types is the first committed precursor to an erythrocyte?

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Lymphoblast

c)

Erythrocyte colony-forming unit (CFU)

d)

Megakaryoblast

44.

The process of producing all formed elements of blood is called:

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Hemopoiesis (Hematopoiesis)

d)

Coagulation

45.

Which type of hemopoiesis occurs in lymphoid organs like the thymus and lymph nodes?

a)

Myeloid hemopoiesis

b)

Lymphoid hemopoiesis

c)

Erythroid hemopoiesis

d)

Granulocytic hemopoiesis

46.

Which vitamin and mineral act as cofactors in hemoglobin synthesis?

a)

Vitamin D and calcium

b)

Vitamin C and copper

c)

Vitamin A and iron

d)

Vitamin E and zinc

47.

Which of the following best describes negative feedback regulation in erythropoiesis?

a)

A drop in O₂ triggers EPO release, which increases RBC production

b)

High O₂ suppresses erythropoietin and decreases RBCs

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

48.

The life span of an average erythrocyte is approximately:

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

49.

Which component of the hemoglobin molecule is recycled when RBCs are destroyed?

a)

Heme pigment

b)

Globin protein and iron

c)

Biliverdin

d)

Bilirubin

50.

The breakdown sequence of heme pigment proceeds as:

a)

Bilirubin → Biliverdin → Urobilinogen

b)

Biliverdin → Bilirubin → Urobilinogen

c)

Hemoglobin → Bilirubin → Biliverdin

d)

Biliverdin → Hemoglobin → Urobilinogen

51.

Which of the following organs or tissues are involved in blood cell production at some stage of life?

a)

Yolk sac

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Red bone marrow

e)

Pancreas

52.

Which of the following can stimulate the release of erythropoietin (EPO)?

a)

Anemia

b)

High altitude

c)

Blood loss

d)

Lung damage (emphysema)

e)

Increased O₂ availability

53.

Which statements are true regarding hemoglobin and oxygen transport?

a)

Each hemoglobin has 4 heme groups

b)

Iron binds directly to oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide binds to the heme iron

d)

Carbon monoxide competes with oxygen for binding sites

e)

HbA1C measures short-term oxygen transport

54.

What are correct characteristics of hemopoietic stem cells?

a)

They are pluripotent

b)

Found in red bone marrow

c)

Differentiate into all formed elements

d)

Can perform phagocytosis

e)

Secrete antibodies

55.

Primary polycythemia is most commonly caused by:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Emphysema

c)

Cancer of the erythropoietic cell line in red bone marrow

d)

Kidney failure

56.

Which of the following could cause secondary polycythemia?

a)

Cancer of bone marrow

b)

High altitude

c)

Erythropoietin deficiency

d)

Radiation exposure

57.

What is a major risk associated with polycythemia?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

Edema

c)

Increased blood viscosity leading to embolism or stroke

d)

Decreased hematocrit

58.

Which of the following could lead to anemia due to inadequate erythropoiesis?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Iron overload

c)

Excessive EPO secretion

d)

Leukemia

59.

Which condition would result from insufficient erythropoietin production due to renal disease?

a)

Iron-deficiency anemia

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Renal anemia

d)

Sickle-cell anemia

60.

Aplastic anemia is characterized by:

a)

Overproduction of RBCs

b)

Complete cessation of erythropoiesis

c)

Lack of hemoglobin synthesis only

d)

Overproduction of leukocytes

61.

Which anemia results from chronic blood loss?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Hemorrhagic anemia

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

62.

The genetic disorder sickle cell anemia primarily affects:

a)

Iron absorption in the intestine

b)

The shape and flexibility of red blood cells

c)

Platelet function

d)

The clotting pathway

63.

In sickle cell disease, the abnormal hemoglobin is designated as:

a)

HbA

b)

HbF

c)

HbS

d)

HbC

64.

What are the main effects of severe anemia on the body?

a)

Increased blood viscosity and hypertension

b)

Low blood osmolarity and tissue edema

c)

Increased oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

Elevated blood pressure and hematocrit

65.

Tissue hypoxia resulting from anemia will most directly cause:

a)

Increased heart rate and respiratory rate

b)

Reduced cardiac output

c)

Low carbon dioxide levels in the blood

d)

Increased blood viscosity

66.

Iron-deficiency anemia can develop from:

a)

Inadequate dietary intake

b)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

c)

Chronic gastrointestinal bleeding

d)

All of the above

67.

A patient with pale conjunctiva, fatigue, and spoon-shaped nails most likely has:

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Thalassemia

68.

Pernicious anemia can result from:

a)

Dietary deficiency of folate

b)

Genetic defect in hemoglobin

c)

Autoimmune destruction of stomach parietal cells

d)

Low vitamin C intake

69.

Which of the following statements about anemia is true?

a)

All anemias result in high hematocrit

b)

Anemia can result from hemolysis, hemorrhage, or decreased RBC production

c)

Anemia increases blood viscosity

d)

Anemia increases blood pressure

70.

Which of the following are possible causes of anemia?

a)

Blood loss

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Renal failure

d)

Erythropoietin overproduction

e)

Bone marrow destruction

71.

What are common effects of anemia on the body?

a)

Tissue hypoxia

b)

Low blood viscosity

c)

Low osmolarity

d)

Increased cardiac output

e)

Elevated osmotic pressure

72.

Which of the following conditions are hyperproliferative disorders of RBCs?

a)

Polycythemia vera

b)

Secondary polycythemia

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Aplastic anemia

e)

Hemolytic anemia

73.

Which types of anemia involve nutritional deficiencies?

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Aplastic anemia

e)

Folate-deficiency anemia

74.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of leukocytes?

a)

Possess a nucleus

b)

Capable of diapedesis (leaving blood vessels)

c)

Contain hemoglobin

d)

Defend against pathogens

75.

The normal leukocyte count in adult blood is approximately:

a)

500–1,000 cells/µL

b)

5,000–10,000 cells/µL

c)

50,000–100,000 cells/µL

d)

100,000–400,000 cells/µL

76.

The process of leukocyte formation is called:

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Thrombopoiesis

c)

Leukopoiesis

d)

Hemostasis

77.

Which of the following leukocytes is the most abundant in the bloodstream?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

78.

Which leukocyte increases in response to parasitic infections or allergic reactions?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

79.

Which leukocyte secretes histamine and heparin?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Lymphocyte

80.

Which type of WBC transforms into macrophages once it exits the bloodstream?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

81.

Which leukocyte type is responsible for producing antibodies?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

B lymphocyte

c)

T lymphocyte

d)

Monocyte

82.

Which leukocytes are agranulocytes?

a)

Neutrophils and eosinophils

b)

Lymphocytes and monocytes

c)

Basophils and eosinophils

d)

Neutrophils and basophils

83.

The lifespan of most circulating granulocytes is approximately:

a)

1 hour

b)

8 hours to 5 days

c)

10–14 days

d)

Several years

84.

Which WBC type increases significantly during bacterial infections?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Monocyte

85.

Which leukocyte type typically increases during viral infections?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Basophils

86.

A person with a WBC count of 3,000/µL would be diagnosed with:

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Thrombocytosis

87.

Leukemia is characterized by:

a)

Excess production of functional RBCs

b)

Cancerous proliferation of WBC precursors

c)

Autoimmune destruction of WBCs

d)

Overproduction of platelets

88.

The major difference between acute and chronic leukemia is:

a)

Acute leukemia progresses rapidly, while chronic develops slowly

b)

Acute affects adults only

c)

Chronic is always fatal within weeks

d)

Acute involves platelets only

89.

Which of the following are considered granulocytes?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Lymphocytes

e)

Monocytes

90.

Which functions are performed by monocytes and macrophages?

a)

Phagocytosis of pathogens and debris

b)

Antigen presentation to lymphocytes

c)

Secretion of antibodies

d)

Production of histamine

e)

Long-term immune defense

91.

Which of the following can cause leukopenia?

a)

Radiation

b)

Poisoning

c)

Viral infections (like HIV)

d)

Bacterial infection

e)

Certain chemotherapy drugs

92.

Which statements are true regarding leukemia?

a)

It is a cancer of the hemopoietic tissues

b)

It results in impaired clotting and anemia

c)

WBCs produced are typically functional

d)

It can be classified as myeloid or lymphoid

e)

It always originates in the thymus

93.

Platelets are best described as:

a)

Complete cells with nuclei

b)

Fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm

c)

Immature red blood cells

d)

A type of leukocyte

94.

The average lifespan of a platelet is approximately:

a)

1–3 days

b)

5 days

c)

10 days

d)

30 days

95.

Which hormone stimulates platelet production (thrombopoiesis)?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Thrombopoietin

c)

Cytokinin

d)

Interleukin-2

96.

Platelets play all of the following roles except:

a)

Secreting growth factors for vessel repair

b)

Forming temporary plugs in damaged vessels

c)

Releasing clot-dissolving enzymes

d)

Carrying oxygen to tissues

97.

The first step of hemostasis is:

a)

Platelet plug formation

b)

Coagulation

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Vascular spasm

98.

Vascular spasm can be triggered by:

a)

Serotonin released from platelets

b)

Smooth muscle injury

c)

Pain receptor stimulation

d)

All of the above

99.

During platelet plug formation, platelets adhere to:

a)

Collagen fibers exposed in the damaged vessel

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Smooth muscle cells

d)

Elastic fibers

100.

The positive feedback loop during platelet plug formation is primarily driven by:

a)

ADP and serotonin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Thrombin

d)

Calcium ions

101.

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin during coagulation is catalyzed by:

a)

Prothrombin activator

b)

Thrombin

c)

Factor X

d)

Calcium

102.

Which coagulation pathway is activated by tissue damage outside the blood vessel?

a)

Intrinsic pathway

b)

Extrinsic pathway

c)

Common pathway

d)

Fibrinolytic pathway

103.

Calcium ions are required for:

a)

Platelet adhesion only

b)

Both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of coagulation

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Antibody production

104.

Which of the following describes the final common pathway in coagulation?

a)

Factor X activation → prothrombin → thrombin → fibrin

b)

Factor VIII activation → fibrinogen → thrombin → fibrin

c)

Factor XII → plasminogen → thrombin

d)

Factor IX → factor VII → thrombin

105.

Which enzyme dissolves a blood clot after healing has occurred?

a)

Plasmin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Thrombin

d)

Prothrombin

106.

Which are natural anticoagulants that prevent excessive clotting?

a)

Heparin

b)

Antithrombin

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Calcium

107.

A thrombus refers to:

a)

A clot that breaks free and travels

b)

A stationary blood clot within a vessel

c)

A hemorrhage in a tissue

d)

A drop in platelet count

108.

Which of the following are functions of platelets?

a)

Secrete clotting factors

b)

Attract white blood cells to inflammation sites

c)

Initiate clot dissolution

d)

Carry oxygen

e)

Promote vessel repair

109.

Which of the following events occur during hemostasis?

a)

Vascular spasm

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Coagulation

d)

Antibody synthesis

e)

Fibrinolysis

110.

Which of the following accelerate the coagulation process?

a)

Presence of calcium ions

b)

Factor X activation

c)

Slow blood flow

d)

Vitamin K

e)

Antithrombin

111.

Which mechanisms help prevent unwanted clot formation?

a)

Platelet repulsion

b)

Thrombin dilution

c)

Heparin release

d)

Antithrombin secretion

e)

Vitamin K deficiency

112.

The ABO blood group is determined by:

a)

The presence or absence of antibodies in plasma

b)

The presence or absence of antigens on RBC membranes

c)

The type of hemoglobin produced

d)

The number of leukocytes in blood

113.

A person with type AB blood has which of the following?

a)

A antigens only

b)

B antigens only

c)

A and B antigens, no antibodies

d)

No antigens, both antibodies

114.

The most common blood type in the U.S. is:

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

115.

Which of the following describes type O blood?

a)

Has both A and B antigens

b)

Has neither A nor B antigens

c)

Has anti-A antibodies only

d)

Has A antigen only

116.

When an antibody binds to an antigen on an RBC, this reaction is called:

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Agglutination

c)

Coagulation

d)

Fibrinolysis

117.

Which antibody would be found in the plasma of a person with type A blood?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Anti-AB

d)

None

118.

A person with type O blood can safely receive blood from:

a)

Type O only

b)

Type A or O

c)

Type A, B, AB, or O

d)

Type AB only

119.

Type AB individuals are known as universal recipients because:

a)

Their plasma has no antibodies against A or B antigens

b)

Their RBCs have no antigens

c)

They lack Rh factor

d)

They can donate to all blood types

120.

What antigen determines the Rh blood type?

a)

Antigen A

b)

Antigen B

c)

D antigen

d)

C antigen

121.

Which situation could lead to the development of anti-D antibodies?

a)

Rh⁺ individual exposed to Rh⁻ blood

b)

Rh⁻ individual exposed to Rh⁺ blood

c)

Type A person given type A blood

d)

Type O person donating blood

122.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when:

a)

The fetus is Rh⁻ and the mother is Rh⁺

b)

The mother is Rh⁻ and the fetus is Rh⁺

c)

The fetus and mother are both Rh⁺

d)

The mother is type O and the baby is type AB

123.

HDN can be prevented by administering:

a)

Heparin

b)

RhoGAM

c)

Iron supplements

d)

Vitamin K

124.

In a transfusion reaction, agglutinated RBCs can cause death by:

a)

Triggering platelet aggregation

b)

Blocking kidney tubules and causing renal failure

c)

Destroying bone marrow

d)

Reducing heart rate

125.

A person with type B⁺ blood can safely donate to:

a)

B⁺ and AB⁺

b)

B⁻ and AB⁻

c)

All blood types

d)

O⁺ only

126.

Which blood type is the universal donor (for packed RBCs)?

a)

AB⁺

b)

O⁺

c)

O⁻

d)

AB⁻

127.

Which statements about plasma antibodies are true?

a)

Appear about 2–8 months after birth

b)

Peak around age 10

c)

Are formed in response to mismatched blood transfusions

d)

Attack foreign antigens but not self

e)

Are produced by RBCs

128.

Which blood types could safely donate to a person with type AB⁺ blood?

a)

O⁻

b)

O⁺

c)

A⁺

d)

B⁺

e)

AB⁺

129.

Which of the following describe hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

a)

Results from maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility

b)

Occurs usually during the first Rh⁺ pregnancy

c)

Can cause severe fetal anemia and brain damage

d)

Preventable with RhoGAM injection

e)

Caused by maternal anti-D antibodies crossing the placenta

130.

Which of the following are correct statements about blood transfusions?

a)

Matching donor and recipient antigens prevents agglutination

b)

Type O⁻ is the safest universal donor for packed cells

c)

Type AB⁺ is the universal plasma donor

d)

Mismatched transfusions can cause renal failure

e)

Agglutination is the same as coagulation

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