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BI 206 Midterm II

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which group of animals evolved from a common ancestor with all animals and Choanoflagellates?

a)

Poriferans

b)

Cnidarians

c)

Echinoderms

d)

Arthropods

2.

What type of symmetry do Cnidarians exhibit?

a)

Bilateral symmetry

b)

Radial symmetry

c)

Asymmetry

d)

No symmetry

3.

Which group of animals is characterized by having a blastopore that becomes the mouth?

a)

Deuterostomes

b)

Protostomes

c)

Cnidarians

d)

Poriferans

4.

What is the main characteristic of bilaterally symmetrical animals?

a)

They have no symmetry.

b)

They have radial symmetry.

c)

They have a single plane of symmetry that runs from mouth to tail.

d)

They have multiple planes of symmetry.

5.

Which of the following groups is NOT a protostome?

a)

Arthropods

b)

Mollusks

c)

Annelid worms

d)

Echinoderms

6.

What is the significance of the blastopore in deuterostomes?

a)

It becomes the mouth.

b)

It becomes the anus.

c)

It becomes the stomach.

d)

It becomes the heart.

7.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the group that includes jellyfish, corals, and sea anemones?

a)

Bilateral symmetry

b)

Radial symmetry

c)

No symmetry

d)

Asymmetry

8.

What is the main difference between protostomes and deuterostomes?

a)

Protostomes have a blastopore that becomes the mouth, while deuterostomes have a blastopore that becomes the anus.

b)

Protostomes have radial symmetry, while deuterostomes have bilateral symmetry.

c)

Protostomes are multicellular, while deuterostomes are unicellular.

d)

Protostomes have a single plane of symmetry, while deuterostomes have multiple planes of symmetry.

9.

Which group of animals is known for having a nervous system and muscles but lacking complex organs?

a)

Poriferans

b)

Cnidarians

c)

Echinoderms

d)

Arthropods

10.

What is the primary feature that distinguishes bilaterally symmetrical animals from other groups?

a)

They have no symmetry.

b)

They have radial symmetry.

c)

They have a single plane of symmetry that runs from mouth to tail.

d)

They have multiple planes of symmetry.

11.

What is the main difference between deuterostome and protostome development?

a)

Deuterostomes exhibit determinate development, while protostomes exhibit indeterminate development.

b)

Deuterostomes exhibit indeterminate development, while protostomes exhibit determinate development.

c)

Deuterostomes form the mouth from the blastopore, while protostomes form the anus from the blastopore.

d)

Deuterostomes and protostomes both form the mouth from the blastopore.

12.

In deuterostome development, what structure forms from the blastopore?

a)

Mouth

b)

Coelom

c)

Anus

d)

Blastula

13.

Which type of cleavage is associated with deuterostome development?

a)

Spiral cleavage

b)

Radial cleavage

c)

Bilateral cleavage

d)

Asymmetrical cleavage

14.

In protostome development, what structure forms from the blastopore?

a)

Mouth

b)

Coelom

c)

Anus

d)

Blastula

15.

What is a negative feedback loop?

a)

A signal that causes a system to output and that output lowers the signal.

b)

A signal that causes a system to output and that output increases the signal.

c)

A signal that has no effect on the system.

d)

A signal that causes a system to output and that output remains constant.

16.

Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?

a)

Oxytocin stimulating uterine contractions.

b)

Insulin lowering blood sugar levels.

c)

Thermostat regulating room temperature.

d)

Muscles shivering to generate heat.

17.

What happens to oxytocin levels after birth?

a)

They remain the same.

b)

They decrease.

c)

They increase.

d)

They fluctuate randomly.

18.

What is the role of insulin in blood glucose regulation?

a)

It increases blood sugar levels.

b)

It decreases blood sugar levels.

c)

It has no effect on blood sugar levels.

d)

It fluctuates blood sugar levels.

19.

What is the effect of insulin on the liver?

a)

It makes the liver convert glucose in the bloodstream to glycogen.

b)

It makes the liver release more glucose into the bloodstream.

c)

It has no effect on the liver.

d)

It makes the liver convert glycogen to glucose.

20.

What hormone is released by the pancreas when blood sugar spikes up?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Cortisol

21.

What happens to glucose when insulin is released?

a)

It is converted into fat

b)

It is stored in the liver as glycogen

c)

It is excreted from the body

d)

It is converted into protein

22.

Which tissue type provides lining for spaces inside and outside the body?

a)

Connective

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Skeletal muscle

23.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?

a)

Simple or stratified layering

b)

Extensive extracellular matrix

c)

Flat, round, or cuboidal shape

d)

Presence of cilia in some cases

24.

What is the role of glucagon in blood sugar regulation?

a)

It converts glucose into glycogen

b)

It releases glucose from the liver into the bloodstream

c)

It stores glucose in muscle cells

d)

It breaks down proteins into glucose

25.

Which of the following is a specialized connective tissue?

a)

Skin

b)

Blood

c)

Muscle

d)

Nerve

26.

What is the primary function of skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

To provide lining for spaces inside and outside the body

b)

To store fat

c)

To contract and relax for movement

d)

To transmit nerve impulses

27.

Which of the following is a characteristic of skeletal muscles?

a)

They are primarily made of neurons.

b)

They attach to bones and make voluntary movements possible.

c)

They send electrical impulses from one end of the cell to the other.

d)

They are responsible for sending signals to help us move.

28.

What are the filaments in muscle fibers made of?

a)

Actin thin filaments and myosin thick filaments

b)

Collagen and elastin

c)

Keratin and melanin

d)

Tubulin and actin

29.

What is the primary function of the nervous system?

a)

To attach muscles to bones

b)

To send electrical impulses and process sensory information

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To store energy

30.

What are neurons primarily responsible for?

a)

Producing hormones

b)

Communicating with each other at specialized junctions called synapses

c)

Storing energy

d)

Attaching muscles to bones

31.

Explain how an action potential is generated in a neuron.

a)

By the release of neurotransmitters

b)

By the opening and closing of voltage-gated ion channels

c)

By the contraction of muscle fibers

d)

By the production of hormones

32.

What is the resting potential of a neuron?

a)

-70 mV

b)

-40 mV

c)

0 mV

d)

+30 mV

33.

What happens during the depolarization phase of an action potential?

a)

Na+ channels open and Na+ ions enter the cell

b)

K+ channels open and K+ ions leave the cell

c)

The cell membrane becomes hyperpolarized

d)

The cell returns to resting potential

34.

What occurs during the repolarization phase of an action potential?

a)

Na+ channels close and K+ channels open

b)

Na+ channels open and Na+ ions enter the cell

c)

The cell membrane becomes depolarized

d)

The cell returns to resting potential

35.

Which type of neuron transmits information about an animal's environment or internal physiological state?

a)

Sensory neuron

b)

Motor neuron

c)

Interneuron

d)

Synaptic neuron

36.

What is the function of dendrites in a neuron?

a)

To transmit signals away from the cell body

b)

To receive signals from other neurons

c)

To store neurotransmitters

d)

To release neurotransmitters

37.

Where are action potentials initiated in a neuron?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Axon hillock

c)

Synaptic cleft

d)

Cell body

38.

What is the role of myelin in neurons?

a)

To produce neurotransmitters

b)

To insulate axons and increase the speed of signal transmission

c)

To connect neurons to muscles

d)

To store calcium ions

39.

What happens when the action potential reaches the axon terminal?

a)

The neuron stops functioning

b)

Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft

c)

The axon terminal disintegrates

d)

The neuron becomes hyperpolarized

40.

What is the critical depolarization voltage required for an action potential?

a)

-70 mV

b)

-55 mV

c)

-40 mV

d)

-30 mV

41.

What role does the myelin sheath play in the propagation of nerve signals?

a)

It decreases the speed of conduction.

b)

It insulates the axon membranes and increases the speed of conduction.

c)

It prevents the opening and closing of sodium and potassium channels.

d)

It has no effect on the propagation of nerve signals.

42.

What is the process called that allows the action potential to jump the nodes, increasing the response to a stimulus?

a)

Continuous propagation

b)

Saltatory propagation

c)

Synaptic transmission

d)

Axonal transport

43.

What happens in the case of Multiple Sclerosis (MS) that affects nerve signal propagation?

a)

T-cells attack the axon directly.

b)

T-cells attack the myelin sheath, slowing the signals that travel down the nerve cells.

c)

T-cells increase the speed of signal transmission.

d)

T-cells do not affect nerve signal propagation.

44.

What role does calcium play in the propagation of a signal in a synapse?

a)

It acts as a neurotransmitter.

b)

It opens voltage-gated channels.

c)

It blocks synaptic transmission.

d)

It degrades neurotransmitters.

45.

What is acetylcholine?

a)

A type of enzyme.

b)

A chemical messenger.

c)

A structural protein.

d)

A type of hormone.

46.

Which of the following is an example of a mechanism for blocking synapsis?

a)

Calcium ions.

b)

Acetylcholine.

c)

Nerve toxins like Cyanide.

d)

Sodium ions.

47.

Describe the major parts of the nervous system.

a)

Forms and functions.

b)

Types of neurotransmitters.

c)

Mechanisms of synaptic transmission.

d)

Types of nerve toxins.

48.

Which of the following actions is stimulated by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Dilates pupil of eye

b)

Accelerates heart

c)

Stimulates activity of stomach and intestines

d)

Inhibits activity of pancreas

49.

What effect does the sympathetic division have on the heart?

a)

Slows heart

b)

Accelerates heart

c)

Stimulates heart

d)

Inhibits heart

50.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system promotes voiding from the bladder?

a)

Sympathetic division

b)

Parasympathetic division

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Peripheral nervous system

51.

What is the effect of the sympathetic division on the adrenal medulla?

a)

Stimulates adrenal medulla

b)

Inhibits adrenal medulla

c)

No effect on adrenal medulla

d)

Stimulates gallbladder

52.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of the parasympathetic division?

a)

Constricts bronchi in lungs

b)

Stimulates salivary gland

c)

Inhibits activity of stomach and intestines

d)

Promotes erection of genitals

53.

What is the effect of the sympathetic division on the liver?

a)

Stimulates glucose release from liver

b)

Inhibits glucose release from liver

c)

Stimulates gallbladder

d)

Inhibits gallbladder

54.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system constricts the pupil of the eye?

a)

Sympathetic division

b)

Parasympathetic division

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Peripheral nervous system

55.

What is the effect of the parasympathetic division on the heart?

a)

Accelerates heart

b)

Stimulates heart

c)

Slows heart

d)

Inhibits heart

56.

What is the initial action that triggers the patellar reflex?

a)

A. A physician strikes the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer.

b)

B. The motor neuron sends an excitatory signal.

c)

C. An inhibitory interneuron inhibits contraction.

d)

D. The sensory neuron synapses with a motor neuron.

57.

What role does the stretch receptor play in the patellar reflex?

a)

A. It sends a signal along the sensory nerve.

b)

B. It inhibits the contraction of the flexor muscle.

c)

C. It synapses with the motor neuron.

d)

D. It contracts the extensor muscle.

58.

Where does the sensory neuron synapse with the motor neuron in the patellar reflex?

a)

A. In the spinal cord.

b)

B. In the extensor muscle.

c)

C. In the flexor muscle.

d)

D. In the brain.

59.

What is the function of the inhibitory interneuron in the patellar reflex?

a)

A. It inhibits contraction of the opposing flexor muscle.

b)

B. It sends an excitatory signal to the extensor muscle.

c)

C. It responds by contracting.

d)

D. It sends a signal along the sensory nerve.

60.

What happens when the motor neuron sends an excitatory signal to the extensor muscle?

a)

A. The extensor muscle responds by contracting.

b)

B. The flexor muscle contracts.

c)

C. The sensory neuron is activated.

d)

D. The inhibitory interneuron is activated.

61.

What are hormones?

a)

Chemical signals that influence physiology and development in plants and animals

b)

Structural proteins that form the cell membrane

c)

Enzymes that catalyze metabolic reactions

d)

Genetic material that carries hereditary information

62.

Which of the following is a characteristic of peptide hormones?

a)

Derived from cholesterol

b)

Single aromatic amino acid

c)

Several amino acids

d)

Last longer because it affects RNA

63.

What is the source of steroid hormones?

a)

Several amino acids

b)

Single aromatic amino acid

c)

Derived from cholesterol

d)

Derived from carbohydrates

64.

What is positive feedback in the context of hormone response?

a)

Returning to homeostasis

b)

Decreasing the response

c)

Increasing the response

d)

No change in the response

65.

What is the role of the sensor in the endocrine system?

a)

Releases the hormone that causes the response

b)

Receives the stimulus

c)

Returns the system to homeostasis

d)

Increases the response

66.

Which type of hormone is described as a single aromatic amino acid?

a)

Peptide hormone

b)

Amine hormone

c)

Steroid hormone

d)

Protein hormone

67.

What is the effect of negative feedback in hormone regulation?

a)

Increasing the response

b)

Returning to homeostasis

c)

Continuing to create the response

d)

No change in the response

68.

Which hormone is released by the pancreas when blood glucose levels are high?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d)

Releasing hormones

69.

What is the target gland/organ for the hormone released by the hypothalamus?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Pancreas

c)

Anterior pituitary gland

d)

Liver

70.

What is the action of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

a)

Stimulate secretion of anterior pituitary hormones

b)

Decrease blood glucose levels

c)

Stimulate synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland

d)

Increase blood glucose levels

71.

Which hormone is released by the pancreas when blood glucose levels are low?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d)

Releasing hormones

72.

What is the response of the body when insulin is released?

a)

Increase in blood glucose

b)

Decrease in blood glucose

c)

No change in blood glucose

d)

Increase in thyroid hormones

73.

Which hormone stimulates the maturation of eggs in females and sperm production in males?

a)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

b)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

c)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d)

Growth hormone (GH)

74.

What is the primary function of the hormone oxytocin?

a)

Stimulates protein synthesis and body growth

b)

Stimulates uterine contraction and release of milk; influences social behavior

c)

Stimulates production and release of cortisol

d)

Stimulates bone formation by osteoblasts

75.

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the production and secretion of sex hormones in ovaries and testes?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

c)

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

d)

Calcitonin

76.

Which gland produces the hormone cortisol?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

Parathyroid glands

77.

What is the function of the hormone insulin?

a)

Stimulates breakdown of glycogen and glucose release into blood

b)

Inhibits insulin and glucagon release; decreases digestive activity

c)

Stimulates uptake of blood glucose and storage of glycogen

d)

Stimulates bone resorption by osteoclasts to increase blood Ca2+ levels

78.

Which hormone is involved in the regulation of skin and scale pigmentation?

a)

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

b)

Prolactin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Somatostatin

79.

Which hormone stimulates bone formation by osteoblasts?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c)

Growth hormone (GH)

d)

Cortisol

80.

What is the primary function of the hormone epinephrine?

a)

Stimulates uptake of water from the kidneys; involved in pair bonding

b)

Stimulates heart rate, blood flow to muscles, and elevations of blood glucose levels as part of "fight or flight" response

c)

Stimulates development of female secondary sexual characteristics and regulates reproductive behavior

d)

Stimulates milk production

81.

Which of the following animals has external gills?

a)

Dog

b)

Fish

c)

Aquatic Salamander

d)

Grasshopper

82.

What structure in fish is responsible for gas exchange?

a)

Trachea

b)

Gills

c)

Alveoli

d)

Bronchi

83.

In terrestrial animals like grasshoppers, what structure is used for respiration?

a)

Gills

b)

Tracheole

c)

Alveoli

d)

Lamellae

84.

In dogs, which part of the respiratory system contains alveoli?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchi

c)

Bronchiole

d)

All of the above

85.

What is the function of the operculum in bony fishes?

a)

To filter food particles

b)

To protect the gills

c)

To aid in swimming

d)

To sense the environment

86.

What is the key mechanism in tidal ventilation in humans?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Pressure differences

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

87.

In tidal ventilation, what does negative pressure indicate?

a)

Exhale

b)

Inhale

c)

Resting state

d)

Maximum lung capacity

88.

What role do the different muscles play in breathing?

a)

They create a vacuum to draw air in.

b)

They increase lung volume to draw oxygen-rich air in and decrease lung volume to expel oxygen-poor air.

c)

They filter the air entering the lungs.

d)

They store oxygen for later use.

89.

What happens during the first inhalation in birds according to Figure 38.9?

a)

Air moves out of the anterior air sacs.

b)

Air moves into the posterior air sacs.

c)

Air moves into the anterior air sacs.

d)

Air moves out of the posterior air sacs.

90.

What is the function of the air capillaries in the bird's respiratory system?

a)

To store oxygen

b)

To filter air

c)

To facilitate gas exchange

d)

To humidify the air

91.

What is the function of the diaphragm during inhalation?

a)

Contracts to expand the thoracic cavity and draw air into the lungs

b)

Depresses to decrease the thoracic cavity volume

c)

Elevates the ribs during an exhale

d)

Contracts to push air out of the lungs

92.

What is the role of intercostal muscles during an inhale?

a)

Depress the ribs

b)

Elevate the ribs

c)

Contract the diaphragm

d)

Increase lung tissue recoil

93.

How do intercostal muscles help during high levels of physical activity?

a)

By decreasing the volume within the thoracic cavity

b)

By increasing the volume within the thoracic cavity

c)

By contracting the diaphragm

d)

By reducing lung tissue recoil

94.

What is the relationship between hemoglobin and oxygen dissociation curves?

a)

Hemoglobin has no affinity for oxygen

b)

The association of oxygen to hemoglobin is irreversible

c)

The association of oxygen to hemoglobin is reversible and influenced by blood pH

d)

Hemoglobin binds oxygen only at high pH levels

95.

What does a shift in pH in blood and body tissues indicate?

a)

The body needs less oxygen

b)

The body needs more oxygen

c)

The body needs more carbon dioxide

d)

The body needs less carbon dioxide

96.

What does the left-shifted curve in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve indicate?

a)

Increased oxygen affinity

b)

Reduced oxygen affinity

c)

Increased oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

High temperature

97.

What does the right-shifted curve in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve indicate?

a)

Increased oxygen affinity

b)

Reduced oxygen affinity

c)

Low temperature

d)

High pH

98.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the structure and function of arteries?

a)

Arteries transmit blood away from the heart and have high pressure due to their thick walls.

b)

Arteries bring blood to the heart and have low pressure due to their thin walls.

c)

Arteries have thin walls and a large radius, resulting in low pressure.

d)

Arteries have a single layer of endothelial cells and facilitate diffusion of materials.

99.

What is the role of one-way valves in the lower limbs?

a)

To prevent blood from pooling or sinking to the bottom.

b)

To increase blood flow by constricting arteries.

c)

To facilitate the exchange of materials between blood and tissues.

d)

To decrease blood pressure by dilating veins.

100.

How do hormones regulate blood pressure according to the provided text?

a)

ADH causes arteries to constrict, decreasing blood flow and increasing pressure.

b)

ADH causes arteries to dilate, increasing blood flow and decreasing pressure.

c)

ADH causes veins to constrict, increasing blood flow and decreasing pressure.

d)

ADH causes veins to dilate, decreasing blood flow and increasing pressure.

101.

What is PHYLOGENY?

a)

The study of physical appearance of organisms.

b)

The study of evolutionary relationships.

c)

The classification of organisms based on behavior.

d)

The study of genetic mutations in organisms.

102.

What is the significance of homologous structures in understanding evolutionary relationships?

a)

They indicate that organisms with homologous structures are not related.

b)

They suggest that organisms with homologous structures have adapted to different environments.

c)

They provide evidence that organisms with homologous structures share a common ancestor.

d)

They are used to determine the age of fossils.

103.

What is the primary function of the respiratory system in animals?

a)

To digest food

b)

To circulate blood

c)

To exchange gases

d)

To excrete waste products

104.
Which of the following is an example of endotherms?
a)

birds

b)
reptiles
c)
fish
d)
amphibians
105.
Earthworms have a ____ circulatory system 
a)
open 
b)
closed 
c)
false
d)
transitional
106.

Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood in mammals?

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Liver

d)

Kidneys

107.

What is the process by which birds maintain a constant internal body temperature?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Metamorphosis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Fermentation

108.

Which hormone regulates the blood sugar level in animals?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Insulin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Testosterone

109.

Which type of animal is an ectotherm?

a)

Birds

b)

Mammals

c)

Reptiles

d)

Amphibians

110.

What is the primary role of the myelin sheath in neurons?

a)

To transmit neurotransmitters

b)

To insulate the axon and speed up signal transmission

c)

To store ions for action potentials

d)

To provide structural support to the neuron

111.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the fight-or-flight response?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

112.

Where are proteins digested

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestines

113.

Where are carbohydrates digested?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

small intestines

114.

Which part of the nephron is responsible for the reabsorption of water and solutes?

a)

Bowman's capsule

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

115.

What hormone regulates the concentration of urine by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Insulin

c)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

d)

Glucagon

116.

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the breakdown of proteins in the stomach?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Trypsin

117.

Where does the majority of nutrient absorption occur in the digestive system?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Esophagus

118.

What is a defining characteristic of ruminants?

a)

They have a single-chambered stomach.

b)

They have a multi-chambered stomach.

c)

They are carnivorous.

d)

They lay eggs.

119.

Which of the following animals is a ruminant?

a)

Horse

b)

Dog

c)

Cow

d)

Cat

120.

What is the primary function of the rumen in ruminants?

a)

To store food temporarily

b)

To break down cellulose through microbial fermentation

c)

To absorb nutrients directly into the bloodstream

d)

To produce digestive enzymes

121.

What is a hindgut fermenter?

a)

An animal that ferments food in the foregut.

b)

An animal that ferments food in the hindgut.

c)

An animal that does not ferment food.

d)

An animal that ferments food in the stomach.

122.

Which of the following animals is an example of a hindgut fermenter?

a)

Cow

b)

Sheep

c)

Horse

d)

Goat

123.

What is the primary advantage of hindgut fermentation?

a)

It allows for the digestion of fibrous plant material.

b)

It increases the absorption of proteins.

c)

It enhances the digestion of fats.

d)

It improves the digestion of sugars.

124.

The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment

a)

hyperosmotic; freshwater

b)

hyperosmotic; seawater

c)

isoosmotic; seawater

d)

hypoosmotic; seawater

125.

Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?

a)

ammonia

b)

ammonium ions

c)

urea

d)

uric acid

126.

The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that________.

a)

urea can be removed as a semi-solid paste

b)

urea is less toxic than ammonia

c)

urea does not affect the osmotic gradient

d)

less nitrogen is removed from the body

127.

The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates ________.

a)

secretion

b)

absorption

c)

filtration

d)

temperature regulation

128.

In the digestive system, peristalsis is ________.

a)

a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine

b)

voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation

c)

the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel

d)

smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus

129.

Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle____________.

a)

are autotrophic

b)

re-ingest their feces

c)

manufacture all fifteen amino acids out of sugars in the liver

d)

have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs

130.

To maintain homeostasis, freshwater fish must ________.

a)

excrete large quantities of electrolytes

b)

consume large quantities of water

c)

excrete large quantities of water

d)

take in electrolytes through simple diffusion

131.

The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment

a)

hyperosmotic; freshwater

b)

hyperosmotic; seawater

c)

isoosmotic; seawater

d)

hypoosmotic; seawater