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Molecular Biology & Diagnostics Lecture

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is also known as chain terminator method and needs a single-stranded DNAs to start the sequencing?

a)

Chemical Sequencing

b)

Sanger Sequencing

c)

Bisulfite DNA sequencing

d)

Pyrosequencing

2.

Which of the following is not a function of bioinformatics?

a)

determines gene and protein functions

b)

establishes evolutionary relationships

c)

predicts the three-dimensional shapes of proteins

d)

used to detect methylated nucleotides

3.

These are the products from the binding of primers onto each other (mispriming) through short homologies at their 3' end and the copying of each primer sequence:

a)

Primer dimers

b)

Primers

c)

RT-PCR primer

d)

multiplex PCR

4.

Which of the following is the ideal temperature and time for extension stage in the PCR cycle?

a)

90-97°C for 20-60s

b)

50-70°C for 20-90s

c)

65-75°C for 10-60s

d)

55-65°C for 20-60s

5.

The following S. pneumoniae variant to Griffith's laboratory experiment results:


able to kill the animal host

a)

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria

b)

mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria

c)

wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria

d)

heat-killed strain S bacteria

6.

The following S. pneumoniae variant to Griffith's laboratory experiment results:


successfully killed the animal host

a)

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria

b)

mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria

c)

wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria

d)

heat-killed strain S bacteria

7.

The following S. pneumoniae variant to Griffith's laboratory experiment results:


unable to kill the host

a)

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria

b)

mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria

c)

wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria

d)

heat-killed strain S bacteria

8.

The following S. pneumoniae variant to Griffith's laboratory experiment results:


could no longer killed the animal host

a)

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria

b)

mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria

c)

wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria

d)

heat-killed strain S bacteria

9.

Which of the following refers to the process of creating a hybrid molecule between an unlabeled and labeled strands?

a)

Hybridization

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Restriction

d)

Banding

10.

What is the effect if there is too high Mg2+ concentration in the PCR buffer?

a)

high yield of primer dimers

b)

low yield of primer dimers

c)

low enzyme efficiency

d)

high enzyme efficiency

11.

What type of buffer solution is used for RBC lysis and WBC preparation?

a)

hypertonic buffer

b)

hypotonic buffer

c)

isotonic buffer

d)

neutral buffer

12.

Templates with high GC content and secondary structure may cause vey low PCR optimization.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of the following illustrations best describes the law of dominance?

a)
b)
c)
14.

What is the approximate cycle threshold of the CY5 channel (yellow fluorescence) in the given amplification plot?

a)

26.91

b)

42.10

c)

38.28

d)

23.23

15.

This method happens when the target amplification and detection steps occur simultaneously in the same tube:

a)

Real-Time PCR

b)

Reverse-Transcriptase PCR

c)

Digital PCR

d)

NASBA

16.

Which of the following occurs when the change of codons does not affect the amino acid product?

a)

Conservative Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Missense Mutation

d)

Nonsense Mutation

17.

Which of the following happens when two parallel strands stick together and somehow produce another daughter helix with two complementary new strands?

a)

Dispersive replication

b)

Semiconservative replication

c)

Conservative replication

d)

Nonconservative replication

18.

Which of the following can be performed to prevent mispriming?

a)

application of hot-start PCR

b)

choose primers that are very specific only to the target

c)

avoid primers that have sequence complementary to internal sequences of the intended product

d)

make sure the primer anneal to opposite DNA strands of your targets with their 3' ends directed toward each other.

19.

Mendel's law of inheritance to its principle:


describes how different genes independently separate from one another

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

None of the above

20.

Mendel's law of inheritance to its principle:


describes how one allele can dominate the characteristics of another allele

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

None of the above

21.

Mendel's law of inheritance to its principle:


occurs when only one allele from the parent could pass to its offspring

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

None of the above

22.

Mendel's law of inheritance to its principle:


describes how one allele is separated into reproductive cells

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

None of the above

23.

Which of the following needs to initiate the transcription process?

a)

Binding of the RNA polymerase to the terminator

b)

Binding of the RNA polymerase and transciription factors to the promoter

c)

Binding of the RNA polymerase to the first few RNA nucleotides

d)

All of the above

24.

The best way to avoid PRC carryover is to separate the pre-PCR areas from the post-PCR analysis areas.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

What type of target amplification methods involves target generation and exponential target generation?

a)

Transcription-Based Amplification System

b)

Digital PCR

c)

Loop-Mediated Amplification

d)

Strand-Displacement Amplification

26.

What hybridization-based method is used to detect SNPs in DNA?

a)

Heteroduplex analysis

b)

Inversion probe assay

c)

Melt curve analysis

d)

Single-Strand Conformation Polymorphism

27.

What noncoding RNA inhibits translation by initiating degradation of the targeted mRNA?

a)

miRNA

b)

siRNA

c)

piRNA

d)

tRNA

28.

What is the type of restriction enzymes used to cleave at specific recognition sites?

a)

Type IV

b)

Type III

c)

Type II

d)

Type I

29.

Which of the following best describes Griffith's bacterial transformation experiment?

a)

The gene obtained from avirulent cells causes virulence during the transformation.

b)

The proteins obtained from virulent cells causes pathogenecity to the mice.

c)

The genes harbored from wild-type, virulent S. pneumoniae causes virulence to the mice.

d)

The proteins gained from mutant, virulent S. pneumonia causes death of the laboratory animals

30.

Plasmids replicate dependently of the chomosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the approximate number of base pairs of the encircled band line?

a)

320bp

b)

380bp

c)

420bp

d)

400bp

32.

What noncoding RNA regulates gene expression by binding to a specific mRNA sequence?

a)

miRNA

b)

siRNA

c)

piRNA

d)

tRNA

33.

Which of the following is the nomenclature of the protein of rsaL gene?

a)

pro.rsaL

b)

RsaL

c)

pRsaL

d)

pro::rsaL

34.

If the cut-off cycle threshold for positive samples is less than 40 on CY5 channel (yellow fluorescence), what is the interpretation of the given amplification plot?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Invalid

d)

Inconclusive

35.

If the cut-off cycle threshold for positive samples is less than 40 on FAM channel (blue fluorescence), what is the interpretation of the given amplification plot?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Indeterminate

d)

Inconclusive

36.

Who introduced the Polymerase Chain Reaction?

a)

Arne Tiselius

b)

Karl Mullis

c)

James Watson

d)

Charles Darwin

37.

Which of the following is not a step of PCR cycle?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Annealing

c)

Extension

d)

Blotting

38.

Which of the following the template strand of 5'-GTATGCGTCTTT-3'

a)

5'-CATACGCTGAAA-3'

b)

3'-CATACGCTGAAA-5'

c)

3'-CATACCTGAAA-5'

d)

5'-CATACCCTGAAA-3'

39.

Which of the following is a LacZ gene product that hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose?

a)

lactose permease

b)

thiogalactosidase transacetylase

c)

B-galactosidase

d)

B-galactose

40.

Which of the following is a final product of LAMP reactions?

a)

DNA molecules with a cauliflower-like structure of multiple loops

b)

Branches of DNA

c)

Sigmoidal curve

d)

gene expression

41.

This is a method designed to determine a DNA sequence without having to make a sequencing ladder:

a)

Pyrosequencing

b)

Dideoxy Sequencing

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Nonisotopic RNase Cleavage Assay

42.

Which of the following is the best function of plasmids?

a)

may confer antibacterial resistance

b)

non-conjugative

c)

carries genetic information

d)

can be transferred from cell to cell by conjugation

43.

Which of the following best describes sticky ends on a DNA fragment?

a)

Short-stranded tails or overhangs at each end of the DNA fragment

b)

Do not have any overhangs on both ends of a digested DNA fragment

c)

Can be religated with less efficiency

d)

Almost the same with blunt ends

44.

Which of the following is a strong denaturant of RNAses and can be used instead of high salt buffers?

a)

Guanidine thiocyanate

b)

1% sodum dodecyl sulfate

c)

0.2M NaOH in the presence of Tris base

d)

Glucose

45.

This has a DNA molecule with 15 identical branches, each of which can bind three labeled probes.

a)

Branched DNA amplification method

b)

Hybrid Capture Assay

c)

Ligase Chain Reaction

d)

Cleavase/Invader Technology

46.

Which of the following provides the highest expected DNA yield among specimens suitable for genetic analysis without DNA amplification?

a)

plasmids from bacterial culture (100ml overnight culture

b)

solid tissues

c)

bones and teeth

d)

feces

47.

This is a solution hybridization antibody capture assay that uses chemiluminescent detection:

a)

Hybrid Capture Assay

b)

Ligase Chain Reaction

c)

Cleavase/Invader Technology

d)

Loop-Mediated Amplification

48.

What is the best anticoagulant used in blood sample for genetic analysis?

a)

EDTA

b)

heparin

c)

SPS

d)

sodium citrate

49.

What type of target amplification methods involves the reverse transcription of the RNA target to complementary DNA by a reverse transcriptase, and then the resulting cDNA is amplified by PCR?

a)

Multiplex PCR

b)

Reverse Transcriptase- Polymerase Chain Reaction

c)

Nested PCR

d)

Real-Time PCR

50.

Which of the following used silica-based products in binding DNA materials under high salt conditions?

a)

Organic Isolation Method

b)

Inorganic Isolation Method

c)

Solid-phase Isolation

d)

Liquid-phase Isolation

51.

Which of the following is not a component of a typical PCR reaction

a)

EDTA

b)

MgCl2

c)

heat stable DNA polymerase

d)

Tris-HCl buffer

52.

Which of the following is the gene nomenclature if rsal gene is inserted into the plasmid ME6032?

a)

pME6032::rsal

b)

"rsal::pME6032

c)

pME6032:rsal

d)

pRsaL

53.

This is the most definitive molecular method to identify genetic lesions:

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Invader assay

d)

Base Excision Sequence Scanning

54.

Which of the following proteins bind to the cis sequences and direct the assembly of transcription complexes at the proper gene?

a)

Trans factors

b)

Cis factors

c)

Proximal regulatory elements

d)

Distal regulatory elements

55.

Which of the following illustrations best describes the law of segregation?

a)
b)
c)
56.

Which of the following brings about coordinate expression of proteins required at the same time among microorganisms with small genomes?

a)

Cis factors

b)

Trans factors

c)

Operon

d)

B-galactosidase

57.

What is the rationale of denaturing RNA molecules before hybridization?

a)

Stability of the RNA strands

b)

Elimination of secondary RNA structure

c)

Increase stringency

d)

Removal of DNA molecules

58.

Which of the following codes for proteins and used as a template for protein translation?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

siRNA

d)

miRNA

59.

This utilizes the sequence- and stacking-directed denaturation characteristics of dsDNA:

a)

Melt Curve Analysis

b)

Inversion Probe Assay

c)

Heteroduplex Analysis

d)

Allele-Specific Oligomer Hybridization

60.

What is the estimated melting temperature for the following oligonucleotides: 5'-AGCTGATCGGTATCGGCT-3'

a)

51°C

b)

61°C

c)

56°C

d)

66°C

61.

Which of the following can be used as biomarkers for gene expression changes in tumors ?

a)

Southern Blot

b)

Northern Blot

c)

Western Blot

d)

Microarray Hybridization

62.

Which of the following is not included in the open reading frame?

a)

initiation codon

b)

coding region

c)

noncoding region

d)

termination codon

63.

What is the preferred hybridization temperature of oligonucleotide probes?

a)

5 degree Celcius above the melting temperature of the probes

b)

5 degree Celcius below the melting temperature of the probes

c)

10 degree Celcius below the melting temperature of the probes

d)

10 degree Celcius above the melting temperature of the probes

64.

What is the cheapest and simplest option for easy-to-lyse cells, especially human cells and gram-negative bacteria?

a)

Chemical lysis

b)

Mechanical lysis

c)

Enzymatic lysis

d)

Physical lysis

65.

This is also known as methylation-specific sequencing:

a)

Bisulfite DNA sequencing

b)

Pyrosequencing

c)

Sanger sequencing

d)

Chemical sequencing

66.

The higher a DNA's GC content, the lower its melting temperature.

a)

False

b)

True

67.

Which of the following best describes DNA methylation?

a)

decreases the affinity of transcription factors to a DNA promoter

b)

decreases the binding of methylation-specific transcription factors

c)

increases the affinity of transcription factors to a DNA promoter

d)

affects the activity of chromatin-associated protein and transcription factors that increase or decrease gene expression

68.

Who discovered the chemical structure of DNA?

a)

James Watson

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Francis Crick

d)

Archibald Ga rrod

69.

The minimum loci needed for the parentage testing using RFLP:

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

70.

Which of the following refers to tumors showing MSI in one or a minority of loci tested?

a)

MSI-L

b)

MSS

c)

MSI-H

d)

K-ras

71.

Which of the following determines the functionality of the assay system?

a)

Positive Control

b)

Reagent Blank

c)

Negative Control

d)

Amplification Control

72.

Which of the following methods has good typing capacity, good discriminatory power, high ease of use and ease of interpretation?

a)

PFGE

b)

Sequencing

c)

Ribotyping

d)

Plasmid analysis

73.

How many loci should be required for parentage testing using RFLP?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

74.

The more loci analyzed, the higher the probability that the locus genotype positively identifies an individual.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Barcoding of specimens expedites specimen accession and increases the chance of error.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Men carrying a mutation in BRCA2 have a 100-fold increased risk of breast cancer compared with men without a mutation

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Application of mtDNA analysis, except:

a)

useful for extremely small quantities of sample DNA

b)

useful for lineage studies and forensic examination

c)

track for population migrations

d)

based on the nuclear material

78.

Which of the following collection tube/s is/are recommended for most nucleic acid assays?

a)

Trisodium EDTA tube

b)

Acid citrate dextrose tube

c)

Both Trisodium EDTA tube and Acid citrate dextrose tube

d)

None of the above

79.

How often do laminar flow hoods and BSC monitor for proper air flow?

a)

once a year

b)

every 2 months

c)

as when needed

d)

semi-annually

80.

Why do gram-positive bacteria and mycobacteria should be vigorously lysed?

a)

thinner cell wall

b)

thicker cell wall

c)

no cell membrane

d)

according to standard operating procedure

81.

The recurrence risk is 25% if siblings are affected, indicating the presence of the recessive mutation in at least one of the parents. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon?

a)

Autosomal-dominant

b)

Autosomal-dominant

c)

X-linked

d)

Sex-linked

82.

Which of the following is not an application for mitochondrial DNA analysis?

a)

lineage studies

b)

population migrations

c)

genetic characterization of forensic specimens

d)

none of the above

83.

mtDNA follows paternal clonal inheritance patterns as well.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Mitochondrial inheritance is characterised by exclusive paternal transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

True to mtDNA, except:

a)

no paternal contribution

b)

follows maternal clonal inheritance patterns

c)

mitochondria are maternally inherited

d)

follows Mendelian inheritance

86.

Which of the following is useful for targeted assessment of relatively large genomic abnormalities?

a)

Cytogenetics

b)

FISH

c)

SBH

d)

PCR

87.

Which of the following is not a reason for using a molecular techniques in determining antimicrobial resistance?

a)

useful in epidemiological investigations

b)

longer turn around time

c)

highly specific in detecting gene mutations

d)

none of the above

88.

Which of the following detects numerical and structural chromosome aberrations?

a)

FISH

b)

Cytogenetics

c)

SDH

d)

PCR

89.

Which of the following is not preferred for the detection and identification of ras mutation?

a)

SSCP screening

b)

direct sequencing

c)

pyrosequencing

d)

PCR

90.

Primers are designed based on the most variable region of the sequence.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which of the following refers to the expression of the disease phenotype in every individual with the mutated gene?

a)

Partial penetrance

b)

Variable expressivity

c)

Complete penetrance

d)

Full expressivity

92.

Which of the following internal controls ensures that extraction and amplification procedures are acceptable?

a)

Homologous extrinsic control

b)

Heterologous extrinsic control

c)

Amplification controls

d)

Amplification controls

93.

Gene mutation always predict the disease severity

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Which of the following mutation responsible for hemochromatosis?

a)

C282Y

b)

prothrombin variant F2

c)

tRNA point mutation

d)

FMR-1

95.

Which of the following detects millions of SNPs?

a)

PCR

b)

DNA chips

c)

RFLP

d)

Y-STR

96.

Which of the following is the most commonly observed mutation for hemochromatosis?

a)

C282Y

b)

H63D

c)

S65C

d)

C280D

97.

Which of the following genes is not useful for PCR detection of L. pneumophila?

a)

mip gene

b)

16S RNA gene

c)

5S RNA gene

d)

P1 adhesion gene

98.

Which of the following has 100% specificity for S. pneumoniae?

a)

mip gene

b)

lytA gene

c)

tuf gene

d)

polA gene

99.

Which of the following can be utilized to detect factor V Leiden variant F5 and prothrombin variant F2?

a)

qPCR

b)

Multiplex PCR-RFLP

c)

Sequencing

d)

Ribotyping

100.

Which of the following is over expressed in solid tumors?

a)

EGFR

b)

Her2/neu

c)

K-ras

d)

BRCA

101.

Which of the following does not use 16S rRNA as gene target?

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Mycoplasma hominis

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Mycoplasma genitalium

102.

Aberrant activation of receptor for hematopoietic stem cell factor refers to:

a)

NPM1 mutations

b)

KIT mutations

c)

FLT3 mutations

d)

JAK2 V617F mutations

103.

Which of the following does not connote the limitation to genetic molecular testing?

a)

applicable for disease prediction

b)

for early diagnosis of infection

c)

for personalized medicine

d)

for genetic counseling

104.

Analytical error is the consequence of erroneous or misleading results caused by events that occur prior to sample analysis

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Males are homozygous for the amelogenin locus.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Which of the following is the detection method of RFLP?

a)

Southern Blot

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Western Blot

107.

Which of the following has triplet repeat CGG expansion ?

a)

Fragile X syndrome

b)

Neuropathy

c)

Huntington's disease

d)

Ataxia

108.

Which of the following region of mtDNA is useful for human identification analysis?

a)

control region

b)

coding region

c)

ORF

d)

stop codon

109.

This is performed to assess the skills of laboratory personnel performing molecular assays as well as the performance of the assay itself:

a)

Chemical safety

b)

Proficiency testing

c)

Documentation

d)

Quality Assurance

110.

Which of the following applies chromogenic detection by specific probes for Her2/neu?

a)

Chromogenic in situ hybridization

b)

PCR

c)

Genetic mapping

d)

Linkage studies

e)

Genetic risk scores

111.

Which of the following genes is useful for PCR detection of B. pertussis?

a)

Porin gene

b)

16S rRNA

c)

MOMP

d)

pspA

112.

Which of the following is useful for detecting unique chimeric fusion gene mRNA species?

a)

FISH

b)

SBH

c)

PCR

d)

Cytogenetics

113.

Which of the segments of mtDNA should be analyzed for human identification?

a)

control region

b)

stop codon

c)

nuclear DNA

d)

neutral segment

114.

Which of the following is useful for ancestry determination?

a)

RFLP

b)

Y-STR

c)

VNTR

d)

SNP

115.

Which of the following has good typing capacity, moderate discriminatory power, high ease of use and high ease of interpretation?

a)

Sequencing

b)

Ribotyping

c)

PCR-RFLP

d)

PFGE

116.

Which of the following is an advantage application of Southern blot technique in lymphoid clonality analysis?

a)

requires minimal DNA

b)

very sensitive

c)

can detect presence of oligoclonal gene rearrangement patterns

d)

can combine different PCR locus strategies

117.

Which of the following is also known as minisatellites?

a)

SNP

b)

STR

c)

VNTR

d)

RFLP

118.

What transmission pattern does the illustration refer to?

a)

Autosomal-dominant

b)

Autosomal-recessive

c)

X-linked

d)

Maternal

119.

Which of the following is a disadvantage application of PCR in lymphoid clonality analysis?

a)

possible use of radionucleotide labeled probes

b)

requirement of high MW DNA

c)

limited analytic sensitivity

d)

may miss oligoclonal populations

120.

Which of the following refers to the ability to detect only the analyte and not nonspecific targets?

a)

Analytic sensitivity

b)

Analytic specificity

c)

Clinical sensitivity

d)

Clinical specificity

121.

Which of the following determines if the assay or sample is contaminated or not?

a)

Positive control

b)

Negative control

c)

Amplification control

d)

Reagent blank

122.

RNA suspended in ethanol can be stored at -20°C for several months.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Which of the following is the gene target for B. pertussis?

a)

porin gene

b)

MOMP

c)

plyA

d)

pspA

124.

Which of the following is the frequency of disease phenotype in individuals with a gene lesion?

a)

Partial penetrance

b)

Variable expressivity

c)

Complete penetrance

d)

penetrance

125.

Which of the following is not a clinical utility of PCR testing of HIV?

a)

Viral quantitation

b)

Disease prognosis

c)

Treatment monitoring

d)

Used for community surveillance

126.

The following genes can be detected by sequencing, except

a)

KIT proto-oncogene

b)

Folliculin

c)

Fumurate hydratase

d)

microsatellite instability

127.

Which of the following detects RLFP?

a)

PCR

b)

Southern Blot

c)

Western Blot

d)

Sequencing

128.

Which of the following is a phenotypic method applied in molecular epidemiology?

a)

ribotyping

b)

melt curve analysis

c)

plasmid analysis

d)

bacteriophage typing

129.

This is a frequency of expression of disease phenotype in individuals with a gene lesion

a)

Penetrance

b)

Complete Penetrance

c)

Variable expressivity

d)

Full expressivity

130.

Most analyte-specific reagents used in the molecular laboratory are class I.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Which of the following participates in repairing DNA damage and promote apoptosis?

a)

Oncogene

b)

Cancer genes

c)

Tumor suppressor genes

d)

Solid tumors

132.

Which of the following is used as internal controls in methods quantifying infectious agents or detecting tumor cells?

a)

Amplification control

b)

Housekeeping genes

c)

Housekeeping genes

d)

Template control

133.

How often does proficiency testing perform in a molecular laboratory?

a)

once in every 3 months

b)

once in every 2 years

c)

at least twice a year

d)

once a month

134.

Which of the following is recommended for most nucleic acid assays?

a)

Trisodium EDTA

b)

Acid citrate dextrose

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

135.

Which of the following supports cell survival by inhibiting apoptosis?

a)

Oncogenes

b)

Tumor suppressor genes

c)

Solid tumors

d)

Cancer

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