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Clinic III comprehensive final exam review

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To obtain the most benefit from the use of topical anesthetics, a fairly substantial amount of topical should be placed on the cotton tip applicator. This amount mixes with the saliva and may numb the tongue, soft palate, or pharynx.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

2.

The published maximum dosage recommendation for the topical anesthetic benzocaine is 200 mg.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Intrapocket local anesthesia produces a profound anesthesia for a couple of hours. The intrapocket local anesthesia is an alternative to an injection when the patient has anxiety.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

4.

Why does the local and systemic absorption of topical anesthetics increase the risk of toxicity?

a)

Topical anesthetics do not contain vasoconstrictors.

b)

Topical anesthetics are formulated in high concentrations.

c)

Topical anesthetics are absorbed quickly into the tissue and blood stream due to vasodilation of the area.

d)

All options listed

5.

Onset of anesthesia is rapid (approximately 30 seconds) and duration is typically 30-60 minutes when used as directed

a)

First statement is true, second statement is false

b)

First statement is false, second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

6.

Methemoglobinemia has been reported following topical anesthesia use of benzocaine, particularly with higher concentrations of 14%-20% spray applications applied to the mouth and mucous membrane. An advisory statement informing the public of the association between benzocaine and methemoglobinemia has been released by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices and the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

7.

Periodontal gel containing: lidocaine 25 mg/mL and prilocaine 25 mg/mL. Each cartridge contains 1.7 mL (42.5 mg of lidocaine and 42.5 mg of prilocaine).

a)

True

b)

False

8.

ORAQIX® consists of (lidocaine and prilocaine) Periodontal Gel 2.5%/2.5%

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What has the combined lidocaine/prilocaine cream been approved and effectively used for?

a)

Medical procedures

b)

Dental procedures

c)

Topical anesthetic for skin abrasions

d)

All options listed

10.

The maximum recommended dose of Oraqix at one treatment session is 5 cartridges (8.5g gel).

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is the maximum recommended dose of Oraqix at one dental treatment session?

a)

Two cartridges

b)

Four cartridges

c)

Five cartridges

d)

Eleven cartridges

12.

All of the following EXCEPT one are considered advantages for the use of topical anesthetic agents. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Minimize pain associated with needle insertion

b)

Can be purchased over the counter

c)

Useful in treatment of minor oral injuries

d)

Reduce gag reflex during radiographic procedures

13.

Cetacaine consists of Benzocaine 14%, Butamben 2%, Tetracaine HCl 2%

a)

True

b)

False

14.

If the anesthesia starts to wear off, Oraqix may be re-applied if needed.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The over-the-counter product Anbesol with benzocaine can be safely used by all family members.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Cetacaine is contraindicated in patients who are 

a)

hypersensitive to anesthetics

b)

patients with congenital or idiopathic methemoglobinemia

c)

have severe anxiety about injections

d)

A and B

17.

Oraqix has a duration of approximately 20 minutes (individual overall range 14–31 minutes).

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Anxiety has little impact on the perception of pain. Instructing the patient to signal discomfort can help reduce anxiety.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

19.

The onset of action for benzocaine is rapid. The duration of action for benzocaine is 5-15 minutes.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

20.

Clinical factors that are more likely to cause the patient to experience pain during periodontal instrumentation include the following except:

a)

Inflammation of the tissues

b)

Bleeding on gentle probing

c)

Probing depths of 3 mm

d)

Instrumenting lingual surfaces

21.

Prior to providing an injection, the topical agent should remain at the site of penetration for about 4 minutes. Anesthesia should be achieved to a depth of approximately 5-6 mm into the tissue.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

22.

When administered, Oraqix should be a liquid. When in the liquid state, the air bubble visible in the cartridge will move if the cartridge is tilted.

a)

The first statement is true, the second is false

b)

The first statement is false and the second is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

23.

To successfully use a distraction technique _______________.

a)

use very sharp instruments to minimize force used

b)

allow the patient to listen to music during procedure

c)

ask the patient to breathe softly

d)

blend oxygen and nitrous oxide to reduce anxiety

24.

A patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The most effective method for controlling pain during periodontal instrumentation is:

a)

Topical anesthetic in area of treatment

b)

Local anesthetic by injection

c)

Nitrous oxide with oxygen sedation

d)

Using a local anesthetic without a vasoconstrictor

26.

Wait 30 seconds, and then fill the periodontal pockets with Oraqix using the blunt-tipped applicator until the gel becomes visible at the gingival margin. Wait another 30 seconds before starting treatment. A longer waiting time does not enhance the anesthesia.

a)

All statements are true

b)

First statement is true, the others are false

c)

All statements are false

d)

First and second statements are true, the last is false

27.

Cetacaine is not for injection.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Oraqix is an ester local anesthetic indicated for adults who require localized anesthesia in periodontal pockets during scaling and/or root planing.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Oraqix is contraindicated in patients with a known history of hypersensitivity to local anesthetics of the amide type.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Currently, local anesthesia regulations/statutes for dental hygienists are consistent from state to state. The most reliable method for a dental hygienist to control pain during instrumentation is to use strategies to allay anxiety.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

31.

Periodontal disease typically involves:

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

The presence of biofilm

c)

Irreversible loss of tooth-supporting bone

d)

Periodontal pockets

e)

All of the above

32.

Important clinical signs or markers of periodontal disease may include:

a)

Redness of the gingival tissue

b)

Bad breath

c)

Increased pocket depths

d)

All of the above

33.

Periodontal disease can lead to which of the following?

a)

Intracranial pressure

b)

Irreversible loss of tooth-supporting bone

c)

A higher risk for oral cancer

d)

All of the above

34.

How many American adults develop periodontal disease?

a)

Hundreds

b)

Thousands

c)

Millions

d)

None of the above

35.

Periodontal disease is a bacterial infection that has been associated with red complex bacteria. Which bacteria below are members of this complex?

a)

T. denticola

b)

T. forsythia

c)

P. gingivalis

d)

All of the above

36.

Elevated levels of red complex bacteria are often associated with greater pocket depth.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is dental biofilm?

a)

A thin layer of calculus under the gingival margin

b)

A slimy combination of saliva and residual toothpaste that coats tooth enamel

c)

A dense matrix of bacteria that resists the body’s natural antibodies

d)

A protective film that can be inserted into periodontal pockets

38.

It is important to reduce as much harmful bacteria from an infection site as possible because bacteria left behind can multiply quickly and spread to other sites.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Reliance on mechanical therapies (eg, scaling and root planing [SRP]) alone makes it difficult to reduce harmful bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Name an advantage or advantages of using locally administered antibiotics (LAAs) as an adjunct to SRP to treat periodontal disease.

a)

Eliminates more harmful bacteria than SRP alone

b)

Reduces pocket depth greater than SRP alone

c)

Helps optimize the environment needed for healing

d)

All of the above

41.

Which of the following delivery mechanisms is used to administer ARESTIN® (minocycline HCl) Microspheres, 1 mg?

a)

Microfibers

b)

Microsphere technology

c)

Liquid beads

d)

Water-based gel

42.

Which of the following is a warning for using ARESTIN®?

a)

If the patient is pregnant or nursing

b)

If the patient has a pacemaker

c)

If the patient has liver disease

d)

If the patient has high blood pressure

43.

Which of the following is contraindicated for use with ARESTIN®?

a)

Patients who are on insulin therapy

b)

Patients with the human papillomavirus (HPV)

c)

Patients with a known sensitivity to minocycline or tetracyclines

d)

None of the above

44.

ARESTIN® is also easy to use because it:

a)

Stays in place by sticking to the site

b)

Is easy to place

c)

Does not have to be removed

d)

All of the above

45.

A dental professional can help encourage patients with chronic adult periodontitis to accept periodontal treatment recommendations by:

a)

Informing them about their periodontal health during routine exams

b)

Asking them about other potential risk factors for periodontal disease

c)

Educating them about periodontal disease and its potential oral health consequences early in their treatment

d)

All of the above

46.

What is an important point to communicate to patients?

a)

Periodontal disease is a bacterial infection, and like many other infections, an antibiotic should be considered a part of treatment

b)

Periodontal infections always resolve on their own if the patient practices good oral hygiene

c)

If the patient does not notice symptoms of periodontal disease, it’s okay to delay treatment until symptoms become bothersome

d)

A periodontal infection doesn’t need to be treated as aggressively as other kinds of infections, because it’s in your mouth

47.

A light grasp in instrumentation during calculus removal is indicated for:

a)

instrument insertion and positioning.

b)

assessment strokes.

c)

root debridement strokes in removal of biofilm.

d)

all of the above.

48.

A variety of antimicrobial agents have been researched for professional irrigation with varying results; products used include chlorhexidine gluconate and fluoride. An antimicrobial agent can aid in reducing the numbers of microorganisms to prevent aerosol contamination during instrumentation.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

49.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial examination, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness.

After having professional treatment with minocycline hydrochloride, Mr. Herman should be told which of the following?

a)

Avoid touching the treated area

b)

Wait at least 2 hours to use a toothbrush after treatment

c)

Floss as soon as possible after the treatment

d)

Eat hard, crunchy foods to help retain the product

50.

Dental hygiene care aims to prevent, arrest, control, or eliminate the infection in the gingiva. The long-range success of treatment depends on the control of the dental biofilm by the patient on a daily basis.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

51.

In contrast to locally delivered antibiotic agents placed directly into a pocket, antibiotics administered systemically reach the pathogens in the pocket through the circulation. The specific microorganism that is causing a periodontal infection should be determined first, and the antibiotic selected should be specific for that organism.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

52.

In the dental hygiene care plan, the expected outcome for nonsurgical therapy includes which of the following?

a)

Interrupt or arrest the progression of disease

b)

Create an environment that encourages tissue resolution and elimination of inflammation

c)

Educate and motivate the patient

d)

All of the above

53.

Lipopolysaccharides or endotoxins, derived from the cell walls of gram-negative pathogenic microorganisms, are toxic to human tissue and cause inflammation and destruction of the periodontal attachment. Endotoxins are embedded in the cemental surface and in the superficial biofilm and cannot be removed readily.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

54.

Mechanical vibrations in the mode of action in ultrasonic and sonic scaling include which of the following?

a)

Power-driven scaling devices convert electrical energy (ultrasonic) or air pressure (sonic) into high-frequency sound waves.

b)

Sound waves produce rapid vibrations in the specially designed scaling tips.

c)

Calculus is incrementally shattered from the tooth surface when the vibrations are applied to the deposit.

d)

All of the above

55.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical treatment with the RDH.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. After scaling and root planing are completed, what type of instructions should be provided to Mrs. Carlson?

a)

Personalized printed instructions

b)

Verbal instructions only

c)

None should be given

d)

Only give instructions when all quadrants are completed

56.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial examination, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. All of the following are possible antimicrobial agents that can be used on the patient except:

a)

doxycycline polymer.

b)

minocycline.

c)

tetracydoxycyline chip.

d)

chlorhexidine.

57.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial examination, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial examination, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness.

a)

Oral hygiene instructions

b)

Periodontal debridement

c)

Professional irrigation

d)

All of the above

58.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical treatment with the RDH.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. What is the protocol after the completion of initial therapy?

a)

Follow-up phone call to patient

b)

Immediate evaluation of teeth and gingiva

c)

Examination at scaling visit

d)

All of the above

59.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical treatment with the RDH.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. What occurs during the ongoing evaluation?

a)

Observe and explore the teeth for complete removal of deposits

b)

Observe any gingival changes

c)

Any tissue regeneration

d)

A and B

e)

B and C

60.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical treatment with the RDH.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. What should be the expected clinical end points after treatment has occurred for Mrs. Carlson?

a)

Bleeding on probing eliminated

b)

Probing depths increased

c)

Attachment levels decreased

d)

Tooth surface irregular

61.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical treatment with the RDH.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. When scaling is accomplished over a series of appointments, each previously scaled quadrant or area is examined and rescaled as needed at each appointment. Visual and tactile methods are applied carefully to each tooth surfaces.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

62.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial examination, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness.

Open and read the attached case to answer the following question. When should local delivery of antimicrobials be used on this patient?

a)

Only at initial therapy

b)

Only at adjunctive treatment at reevaluation

c)

Never

d)

Both at initial therapy and adjunctive treatment at reevaluation

63.

Periodontal debridement includes which of the following therapeutic interventions?

a)

Scaling to remove calculus and all soft deposits

b)

Root planing to eliminate subgingival calculus and smooth the tooth surface

c)

Root debridement to eliminate subgingival biofilm and mineralized deposits

d)

All of the above

64.

Preventive services performed by the RDH include which of the following?

a)

Desensitization of teeth

b)

Implant maintenance

c)

Dietary analysis

d)

All of the above

65.

The water spray in ultrasonic and sonic scaling devices penetrates to the base of the pocket to provide a continuous flushing of debris, bacteria, and endotoxin. Oscillation of the ultrasonic tip causes hydrodynamic waves to surround the tip; this acoustic turbulence is believed to have a disruptive effect on surface bacteria.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

66.

Two essential components of successful therapy are complete subgingival scaling with root debridement by the dental hygienist and effective daily dental biofilm control by the patient. The objective is to eliminate or at least suppress the pathologic microorganisms in the subgingival area to promote healing and hence control the infection.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

67.

When is a single appointment adequate for instrumentation appointment sequencing?

a)

The diagnosis may be gingivitis or early periodontics with small areas of deposits readily accessible; anesthesia may not be needed.

b)

Only a few teeth present; limited areas of anesthesia may be needed.

c)

Patient acts responsibly in keeping appointments for maintenance and continued monitoring for disease control.

d)

All of the above

68.

Which agent for local delivery has an advantage in that it does NOT have potential for the development of bacterial resistance?

a)

Doxycycline polymer

b)

Chlorhexidine

c)

Minocycline hydrochloride

d)

All of the above

69.

Which of the following is true of a systemically administered antibiotic?

a)

It reaches the pathogenic organisms in the pocket through the circulation.

b)

The antibiotic is absorbed into the circulation from the stomach.

c)

The antibiotic is placed directly into the pocket.

d)

The antibiotic is in a diluted form by the time it reaches the pathogenic microorganism.

70.

Which of the following is true of the direction of strokes when performing manual subgingival scaling?

a)

Strokes should not overlap.

b)

Perform horizontal strokes at the bottom of a pocket

c)

Only vertical strokes should be used.

d)

Apply strokes systematically

71.

Which part of the endoscope is used to provide irrigation to the working field?

a)

Subgingival probe

b)

Sheath

c)

Peristaltic pump

d)

Lamp

72.

A sharp cutting edge removes calculus in an efficient manner?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A sharp cutting edge on your instrument helps to burnish a calculus deposit onto the tooth?

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The stoney pony is a device that can be used to sharpen hygiene instruments?

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The excessive lateral pressure and extra number of strokes needed with a dull instrument place unnecessary strain on the musculoskeletal system of the clinician?

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Sharp instruments achieve which of the following?

a)

Decrease the likelihood of burnished calculus deposits

b)

Reduce overall treatment time

c)

Reduces number of strokes to remove calculus deposits

d)

All of the choices listed

77.

George locates a small-sized calculus deposit located on the facial surface near the base of a 6-mm pocket. He tries to remove this deposit with a standard Gracey curet but is unsuccessful. Which of the following instruments would be more effective in removing this deposit?

a)

Standard Langer curet

b)

Rigid Gracey curet

c)

Gracey curet with an extended shank

d)

Periodontal file

78.

Merle is using a periodontal file on a large ledge of subgingival calculus. To make the instrumentation stroke as effective as possible, she should _____.

a)

position the base of the file at an angle to the deposit so that the sharp corners on one side of the cutting edge will dig into the deposit

b)

apply firm consistent pressure throughout the instrumentation stroke

c)

make several strokes in a horizontal direction

d)

make a push stroke toward the junctional epithelium

79.

When using a periodontal file, a pull stroke is activated in a vertical direction. The instrumentation stroke with a periodontal file is most effective when consistent pressure is applied throughout the entire stroke.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

80.

Which of the following curets has two raised bands at 5 and 10 mm, which serve as a visual estimate of pocket depth during instrumentation?

a)

Vision curvette

b)

Quétin furcation

c)

Gracey

d)

O'Hehir

81.

When instrumenting the facial aspect of the roots on a molar tooth, which of the following instruments should be used on the mesial root?

a)

The mesial curet

b)

The distal curet

c)

The facial curet

d)

The mesial and distal curets

82.

When would a clinician choose to use periodontal files during patient treatment?

a)

When there are heavy calculus deposits and there is no ultrasonic available

b)

When a subgingival deposit cannot be removed with a curet

c)

When the surface of a burnished subgingival calculus deposit needs to be roughened up so it can be removed by a curet

d)

All of the choices are correct

83.

Which of the following design features is not true of a Langer curet?

a)

A Langer curet has a long complex shank.

b)

A Langer curet has two cutting edges.

c)

Only one Langer curet is needed to instrument the entire dentition.

d)

The face of a Langer curet is at a 90-degree angle to the lower shank.

84.

The two-point contact of the periodontal file means _____.

a)

one cutting edge is adapted to the tooth during calculus removal

b)

the working-end and shank rest against the tooth during the stroke

c)

each working-end of the file can be adapted to two tooth surfaces

d)

either side of the working-end can be adapted for calculus removal

85.

Blair is using a periodontal file subgingivally on the facial surface of a molar. She is working 6 mm beneath the gingival margin. What is the most likely goal of using the file in this area?

a)

Crushing a large calculus deposit

b)

Smoothing the roots in this area

c)

Removal of small-sized subgingival calculus deposits

d)

Locating the calculus deposits in this area

86.

Which of the following curets has a working-end shaped as a straight cutting edge?

a)

Vision curvette

b)

Quétin furcation

c)

Turgeon

d)

O'Hehir

87.

When applying the cutting edges of periodontal files to anterior teeth you will need:

a)

At least four double-ended files to instrument facial and lingual surfaces

b)

At least three single-ended files to instrument facial and lingual surfaces

c)

At least two double-ended files to instrument facial and lingual surfaces

d)

At least one double-ended file to instrument facial and lingual surfaces

88.

A miniature Gracey curet has the following design features except:

a)

An extended lower shank of 3 mm

b)

A working-end with uneven cutting edges

c)

A working-end 20% thinner

d)

Curved cutting edges

89.

A miniature Langer curet is designed for instrumenting pockets ____________.

a)

3 mm or less

b)

greater than 4 mm

c)

greater than 6 mm

d)

none of the above

90.

Kirk is having difficulty removing a large ledge of calculus located 7 mm beneath the gingival margin on a molar tooth. He is using a rigid Gracey curet. Which of the following instruments might be helpful in removing the calculus ledge?

a)

Posterior sickle scaler

b)

Universal curet

c)

Periodontal file

d)

Either universal curet or periodontal file

91.

A specialized root instrument that has a miniature hoe as a working-end is:

a)

The Langer curet

b)

The Vision curvette

c)

The O'Hehir curet

d)

The Quétin curet

92.

Neal has found a large ledge of calculus 5 mm beneath the gingival margin. He decides that this is a perfect job for a periodontal file, but when he tries to insert the working-end it does not insert easily. Is it okay for Neal to thrust the working-end beneath the gingival margin?

a)

Yes, because the tissue is unhealthy owing to the presence of the calculus.

b)

No, this will cause excessive stretching of the soft tissue.

c)

Maybe, it depends whether this is a facial or lingual surface.

d)

Neal should not be using a periodontal file beneath the gingival margin.

93.

A Langer curet is a universal curet. One Langer curet can be used to instrument the entire dentition.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

94.

Mary detects a small-sized calculus deposit located on the lingual surface near the base of a 6-mm pocket on a mandibular central incisor. Which of the following instruments would be most effective at removing this deposit?

a)

Standard Gracey curet

b)

Gracey curet with an extended shank

c)

Miniature Gracey curet

d)

Langer curet with an extended shank

95.

Adapt at least half of the face of the file working-end against the calculus deposit. A set of periodontal files is needed to instrument the entire mouth.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

96.

After inserting a periodontal file beneath the gingival margin, how should the instrument be adapted?

a)

The working-end is adapted to the calculus deposit.

b)

The lower shank rests against the tooth root.

c)

The corners of the cutting edges should be adapted to the tooth surface.

d)

The working-end is adapted to the calculus deposit and the lower shank rests against the tooth root.

97.

Tyrone wants to remove a medium-sized tenacious piece of calculus located 3 mm beneath the gingival margin. For his initial attempts at removing the deposit, which of the following instruments should he select?

a)

Sickle scaler

b)

Universal curet

c)

Area-specific curet

d)

Periodontal file

98.

The Langer curet combines features of both a universal curet and an area-specific curet. A standard Gracey is recommended for use in periodontal pockets less than 4 mm.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

99.

Diamond-coated instruments are used __________.

a)

with moderate pressure

b)

with multidirectional strokes

c)

for class I furcations

d)

to increase tactile sensitivity

100.

All of the following describe the working-end of a periodontal file except:

a)

Cutting edges at a 70-degree angle to the base

b)

A series of cutting edges lined up on base

c)

A rounded back

d)

Rigid shank

101.

Micro-miniature Gracey curets have both a thinner and shorter working-end compared to a standard Gracey. Micro-miniature curets are ideal for fine deposit removal.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

102.

A standard Gracey curet has a lower shank 3 mm longer than a miniature Gracey. The working-end of a miniature Gracey is half the length of a standard Gracey curet working-end.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

103.

How many working cutting edges are found on the working-end of a Langer 5 curet?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

More than 3 working cutting edges

104.

A set of periodontal files is needed to instrument the dentition with heavy calculus deposits. A periodontal file is used with a push stroke directed toward the junctional epithelium.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

105.

Which of the following curets has a + identification mark on the handle near the junction of the shank?

a)

Vision curvette

b)

Quétin furcation

c)

Gracey

d)

O'Hehir

106.

Which instrument has a disk-shaped working-end?

a)

Vision

b)

Quétin curet

c)

O'Hehir

d)

Langer

107.

Stuart wants to use a periodontal file to crush a large-sized calculus deposit. He is working on the facial surface of a mandibular molar. Which file should he select?

a)

Hirschfeld 9/10

b)

Hirschfeld 3/7

c)

Hirschfeld 5/11

d)

Orban 12/13

108.

Which of the following design characteristics is not true of a periodontal file?

a)

Rigid shank

b)

Strong working-end

c)

Two cutting edges per working-end

d)

Working-end that is thin in width

109.

Inserting a periodontal file until the working-end touches the junctional epithelium would result in _____.

a)

trauma to the junctional epithelium

b)

complete calculus removal

c)

gouging of the cementum

d)

glassy smooth root surfaces

110.

Which of the following instruments would be most effective in removing a small-sized calculus deposit located 6 mm apical to the CEJ within a very narrow periodontal pocket?

a)

Standard Gracey curet

b)

Gracey curet with an extended shank

c)

Rigid Gracey curet

d)

Gracey curet with a miniature working-end

111.

A method that allows the clinician to actually see subgingival calculus deposits and subgingival root caries located within a deep periodontal pocket is by __________.

a)

wearing the highest level of magnification loupes

b)

using an ultrasonic instrument

c)

inserting a periodontal endoscope subgingivally

d)

deflecting the tissue with the back of the curet

112.

All of the following techniques are similar for both periodontal files and curets except _____.

a)

placing the instrument face on the tooth

b)

modified pen grasp

c)

intraoral finger rest

d)

direction of vertical strokes

113.

The overall shank length of an extended shank Gracey curet is 3 mm longer than the overall shank length of a standard Gracey curet. A miniature Gracey curet has a working-end that is half the length of a standard Gracey curet.

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d)

The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

114.

Which of the following design features is not true of a miniature Gracey curet?

a)

It has a longer lower shank than a standard Gracey curet.

b)

It has a shorter working-end than a standard Gracey curet.

c)

It has a thinner working-end than a standard Gracey curet.

d)

The face of the working-end is at a 90-degree angle to the lower shank.

115.

All of the following statements about periodontal files are true except _____.

a)

periodontal files are used to prepare calculus deposits before removal with another instrument

b)

periodontal files are used to crush heavy calculus deposits so they can be removed with a sickle scaler or curet

c)

periodontal files have been replaced to a great extent by ultrasonic scalers

d)

periodontal files have unrestricted use and can be used anywhere in the mouth

116.

A file with a base that is _____ in circumference is best for subgingival use.

a)

large

b)

small

c)

elliptical

d)

oblong

117.

Blair is using a periodontal file 6 mm below the gingival margin. Once Blair is finished using the periodontal file on the molar, what should she do next?

a)

Evaluate with an explorer to see if the deposit has been completely removed

b)

Use a sickle scaler

c)

Use a universal curet

d)

Use an area-specific curet