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CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Exam Prep

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)?

a)

Allows applications to communicate and share data, often using HTTP.

b)

The provider offers hardware, while the consumer manages the OS, apps, and everything above the infrastructure.

c)

Stores data in chunks across devices, independent of a server’s file system.

d)

Organises structured data into tables with rows and columns.

2.

What does Broad Network Access enable in cloud computing?

a)

Consumers can subscribe and unsubscribe from services easily.

b)

Allows cloud resources to be accessed over local networks, the internet, or both.

c)

A full physical server reserved for you, running one or more virtual machines.

d)

Values set by the OS or shell that can change during script execution.

3.

On-Demand Self-Service primarily allows customers to do what?

a)

Provision and adjust services like compute, storage, or databases without contacting the provider.

b)

Ensure standard OS versions and settings when deploying new systems.

c)

Communicate between applications using HTTP.

d)

Extend VLANs in multi-cloud deployments using VXLAN, NVGRE, and STT.

4.

Which storage description matches Block Storage?

a)

Stores data in chunks across devices, independent of a server’s file system.

b)

Organises structured data into tables with rows and columns.

c)

A full physical server reserved for you.

d)

Standard OS versions and settings used when deploying new systems.

5.

Which option best describes a Relational Database?

a)

Allows cloud resources to be accessed over networks.

b)

Organises structured data into tables with rows and columns.

c)

Values that can change during script execution.

d)

A network virtualisation standard for VLAN extension.

6.

Which statement best describes an API (Application Programming Interface)?

a)

Allows applications to communicate and share data, often using HTTP.

b)

Provides a full physical server reserved for one tenant.

c)

Standard OS versions and settings used during deployment.

d)

Stores data in independent chunks across devices.

7.

Configuration Baselines are primarily used for what purpose?

a)

Extending VLANs in multi-cloud deployments.

b)

Standard OS versions and settings used when deploying new systems.

c)

Managing changing values during script execution.

d)

Providing hardware while the consumer manages the OS and apps.

8.

Which scenario best requires a Dedicated Host with VM Instance?

a)

You need a full physical server reserved for you to run one or more virtual machines.

b)

You need to programmatically manage resources via HTTP.

c)

You need to store data as blocks across multiple devices.

d)

You need on-demand subscription and unsubscription of services.

9.

What does the Geneve standard support in cloud networking?

a)

On-demand provisioning of compute resources.

b)

A network virtualisation standard used with VXLAN, NVGRE, and STT, often required for VLAN extension in multi-cloud deployments.

c)

Organising data into relational tables.

d)

Providing a full physical server reserved for a single tenant.

10.

In scripting, what are Script Variables?

a)

Standard OS versions and settings used when deploying new systems.

b)

Values set by the OS or shell that can change during script execution.

c)

Functions that enable apps to communicate via HTTP.

d)

Chunks of data stored across devices, independent of the file system.

11.

Which statement best describes Function as a Service (FaaS)?

a)

Developers manage servers directly to run code

b)

Code runs in response to events without managing servers

c)

It is a storage-only service for object data

d)

It is a network segmentation technique

12.

What does multitenancy allow in a public cloud?

a)

Each tenant gets a separate physical server with no shared resources

b)

Multiple tenants share CSP-managed resources securely

c)

Only a single tenant can use a region at a time

d)

Tenants must bring their own hypervisors

13.

Which are common compute resources used by a VM to process data?

a)

CPU, GPU, and memory

b)

NIC, firewall, and router

c)

Keyboard, mouse, and monitor

d)

SSD, HDD, and tape

14.

Why might hybrid disks combine SSD and HDD?

a)

To balance cost and speed by placing frequent data on SSD and less-used data on HDD

b)

To increase power consumption for better performance

c)

To encrypt data by default

d)

To avoid all forms of caching

15.

In cloud environments, what is the purpose of resource metering?

a)

It is unrelated to billing and usage tracking

b)

It tracks resource usage for billing and monitoring

c)

It only controls user permissions

d)

It replaces logging systems

16.

Non-relational databases primarily support which type of data model?

a)

Only structured tables with fixed schemas

b)

Key-value, document, or graph models that aren't limited to tables

c)

Spreadsheets only

d)

Tape archives

17.

What do network flow diagrams illustrate?

a)

How data moves through internal/external nodes, devices, and cloud services

b)

Only the physical cable layout in a data center

c)

The cost breakdown of cloud invoices

d)

User interface mockups for applications

18.

What is a capability of gateway load balancers in modern architectures?

a)

They cannot scale network appliances like firewalls or IDS/IPS

b)

They can scale and insert network appliances such as firewalls or IDS/IPS

c)

They replace all routing protocols

d)

They store long-term logs

19.

Where is microsegmentation typically applied?

a)

At the network perimeter to separate external from internal traffic

b)

Inside data centers and clouds to segment workloads at a granular level

c)

Only on WAN links between sites

d)

On physical cabling

20.

Why is version tracking important in development?

a)

It has no impact on understanding features

b)

It enables understanding changes and features across the development process

c)

It only stores compiled binaries

d)

It replaces testing

21.

Which statement about Identity and Access Management (IAM) is most accurate?

a)

It starts with physical security and ignores user policies

b)

It defines and applies policies using tools like local or centralized user/group management and roles

c)

It is only about encrypting data at rest

d)

It is unrelated to permissions

22.

Which logging tools are commonly associated with Windows and Linux, respectively?

a)

Event Viewer for Windows and rsyslog for Linux, both can forward to a central server

b)

rsyslog for Windows and Event Viewer for Linux, neither supports forwarding

c)

Only Windows supports centralized logs

d)

Only Linux supports centralized logs

23.

What do cryptojacking attacks typically target and cause?

a)

Target VMs to mine cryptocurrency, causing performance issues

b)

Encrypt files with ransomware for ransom

c)

Exploit only network devices

d)

Only steal credentials without resource use

24.

Which practice helps mitigate cloud legal risks?

a)

Ignoring CSP contracts to avoid liability

b)

Reviewing CSP contracts, relevant security practices, and applicable data laws

c)

Relying only on verbal agreements

d)

Storing all data without classification

25.

Which statement about TCP/IP traffic encryption by default is correct?

a)

Most TCP/IP protocols like SMTP, HTTP, and FTP are encrypted by default

b)

Many classic protocols like SMTP, HTTP, and FTP are not encrypted by default

c)

Encryption is mandatory in all L3 protocols

d)

ICMP provides end-to-end encryption by default

26.

What does privilege escalation enable?

a)

Users upgrade privileges permanently without controls

b)

Admins temporarily gain elevated rights to perform specific tasks safely

c)

It disables auditing

d)

It blocks all access

27.

On Linux systems, where is centralized log forwarding commonly configured?

a)

/etc/syslog.conf or rsyslog configuration files

b)

C:\\Windows\\System32

c)

/var/www/html

d)

/etc/fstab

28.

Which statement best describes the deployment phase in DevOps pipelines?

a)

Always extremely long with no staging

b)

Brief, includes staging, and may use tools like Ansible

c)

Done only manually without automation

d)

Unrelated to labels or environments

29.

For small and medium-sized businesses, which backup approach is recommended?

a)

Relying solely on regular file storage in the cloud is often acceptable

b)

Following best practices rather than treating backups as ordinary files

c)

Avoiding cloud backups entirely

d)

Keeping only local copies on user laptops

30.

When does cloud bursting apply?

a)

When private or on-premises resources are overwhelmed and extend to public cloud

b)

Only when public cloud is overwhelmed

c)

Only during normal operation with spare capacity

d)

When migrating from public to private cloud permanently

31.

Choose the correct answer. What is identity management?

a)

Setting up network devices for secure connections

b)

Monitoring user activities across multiple systems

c)

Assigning user accounts and controlling access to resources

d)

Encrypting data to prevent unauthorised access

32.

Choose the correct answer. What is a key characteristic of an internal (private) cloud deployment?

a)

Cloud services are hosted by a third‑party provider

b)

The company uses only public internet‑based cloud tools

c)

The company hosts and controls its own cloud infrastructure

d)

Services are shared between unrelated organisations

33.

Choose the correct answer. What is a common reason for moving resources from the cloud back to on‑premises?

a)

High availability

b)

Reduced performance

c)

Increased automation

d)

New compliance needs

34.

Choose the correct answer. A research team needs a cost‑effective instance type with substantial local storage for large datasets, prioritising capacity and savings over performance. Which AWS instance type should the team choose?

a)

m4.large

b)

d2.xlarge

c)

m4.xlarge

d)

t2.micro

35.

Choose the correct answer. Your IT team is setting up a cloud‑based lab for testing, with usage fluctuating between 0 and 20 hours monthly. Which instance purchasing option is most cost‑effective for this setup?

a)

On‑demand

b)

Spot

c)

Dedicated

d)

Reserved

36.

Choose the correct answer. A container image is built from a configuration file called a _____.

a)

Dockerscript

b)

Dockerfile

c)

Dockerbuild

d)

Containerlist

37.

Choose the correct answer. An admin notices that requests are being evenly distributed to servers in a fixed, repeating order, regardless of current load. Which load‑balancing method is likely being used?

a)

Least connections

b)

Dynamic algorithm

c)

Round robin

d)

Weighted response

38.

Choose the correct answer. What is the primary difference between automation and orchestration?

a)

Automation sets a single task to run on its own, while orchestration configures a series of automated tasks to run as a workflow.

b)

Automation requires human intervention, while orchestration does not.

c)

Automation is used in cloud administration, while orchestration is used in CI/CD.

d)

Automation involves multiple tasks, while orchestration involves a single task.

39.

Choose the correct answer. Which firewall type filters traffic directly on an individual server?

a)

Network

b)

Host‑based

c)

Proxy

d)

Perimeter

40.

Choose the correct answer. An employee works Monday to Friday, 8 am–5 pm and needs to read sales reports in a shared folder and print them using ColorPrinter7. They do not need to edit the files or manage the printer. Which configuration best follows the principle of least privilege?

a)

Full access to the folder and printer

b)

Write access to the folder, print/manage printer

c)

Unrestricted access during and after work hours

d)

Read‑only access to the folder, print‑only access to printer

41.

Choose the correct answer. Triggered scaling adjusts cloud resources based on specific _____.

a)

Regions

b)

Conditions

c)

Users

d)

Schedules

42.

Select only two that apply. Which are key characteristics of the 3‑2‑1 backup rule?

a)

Use two different media types

b)

Keep one copy encrypted

c)

Store three total copies of data

d)

Store one copy on the same server

43.

Select only two that apply. Which statements are true about NIC teaming?

a)

Each physical NIC gets a unique IP address

b)

It limits traffic to a single physical NIC

c)

It creates a single virtual NIC

d)

It increases total available bandwidth

44.

Which statement best describes containers in cloud environments?

a)

They emulate full hardware stacks to run multiple operating systems per host

b)

They are lightweight, share a single OS kernel (often Linux), and package one application with its dependencies

c)

They require a hypervisor to virtualise at the hardware layer for each app

d)

They are primarily used to store unstructured data blobs

45.

According to the IoT transmission protocol stack aligned to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for providing connectivity and security between devices?

a)

Application layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Perception/Sensor layer

d)

Presentation layer

46.

Which option lists the three types of Physical to Virtual (P2V) migrations?

a)

Cold, Warm, Hot

b)

Manual, Semi-automatic, Automatic

c)

Lift-and-shift, Refactor, Replatform

d)

Online, Offline, Hybrid

47.

What is blob storage primarily used for?

a)

Hosting operating systems for VMs

b)

Storing relational tables with strict schemas

c)

Holding immense chunks of unstructured data (Binary Large Objects)

d)

Caching frequently accessed web pages only

48.

Which sequence correctly represents the key stages in the management lifecycle of a virtual machine (VM)?

a)

Plan VM → Create VM → Update OS/apps → Monitor cost/performance → Delete when no longer needed

b)

Create VM based on use case → Maintain and update OS/apps → Monitor cost and performance → Delete when services are no longer necessary

c)

Procure hardware → Install hypervisor → Create VM → Backup VM monthly

d)

Design container → Build image → Push to registry → Deploy to cluster

49.

Which statement best defines VXLAN?

a)

A wireless protocol for IoT sensors

b)

Virtual Extensible LAN used to implement an overlay network enabling layer 2 adjacency across separate subnets

c)

A data encryption standard for storage at rest

d)

A hypervisor feature for VM live migration

50.

What is the primary function of DHCP in a network?

a)

To segment broadcast domains using VLAN tags

b)

To automatically assign IP configuration details to hosts

c)

To encrypt web traffic between browsers and servers

d)

To discover the shortest path through a network using a link-state algorithm

51.

OSPF is best described as which type of protocol?

a)

Distance-vector routing protocol

b)

Link-state dynamic routing protocol with a hierarchical topology

c)

Name-resolution protocol

d)

Session-layer protocol for remote login

52.

Configuration as Code (CaC) primarily focuses on what?

a)

Manual configuration using vendor GUIs

b)

Storing and managing application and infrastructure configurations as code integrated with CI/CD pipelines

c)

Encrypting files to ensure integrity

d)

Provisioning physical cabling layouts

53.

Which option correctly describes SDKs in software development?

a)

Tools and libraries that help developers create applications for a specific language or platform

b)

A firewall for protecting web applications

c)

A protocol for automatic IP address assignment

d)

Software that monitors files for tampering

54.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is used to:

a)

Block malicious HTTP requests

b)

Ensure designated files have not been maliciously or inadvertently changed

c)

Provide developers with code samples

d)

Establish layer 2 adjacency across subnets

55.

What is the primary purpose of a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?

a)

Filter HTTP traffic to protect web applications and their back-end databases from attacks like code injection and DoS

b)

Assign IP addresses and DNS settings to clients

c)

Provide hierarchical routing between autonomous systems

d)

Manage infrastructure configurations using code

56.

In the hybrid cloud diagram, which label best corresponds to the public cloud component that interconnects with multiple organizations?

a)

Private Cloud

b)

Public Cloud

c)

Organization 1

d)

Organization 3

e)

Organization 4

57.

In the hybrid application migration strategy, which action describes moving Application B to cloud infrastructure without major code changes?

a)

Developer rearchitects Application A

b)

Rehosting migration

c)

Developer purchases on-premises servers

d)

Blocking end-user access during cutover

58.

Which AI application is best described as converting spoken audio into written words for analysis and search?

a)

Text recognition

b)

Text translation

c)

Voice-to-text

d)

Visual recognition

e)

Generative AI

59.

During a cloud migration, which network consideration focuses on ensuring continuous Internet connectivity, potentially by adding a second ISP to remove a single point of failure?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Availability

c)

Latency

d)

Security

60.

Which pair correctly matches a cloud service provider with one of its relational database offerings?

a)

Microsoft Azure — Aurora

b)

Amazon Web Services — AWS RDS

c)

Google Cloud Platform — SQL Server

d)

Microsoft Azure — AWS Redshift

e)

Amazon Web Services — Cloud Spanner

61.

After discovering that user credentials have leaked, which immediate action best reduces the chance that stolen passwords alone can grant access in the future?

a)

Increase bandwidth to reduce latency

b)

Reset firewall rules

c)

Enable multifactor authentication (MFA)

d)

Switch from TCP to UDP for SSH

e)

Disable all user accounts permanently

62.

Which cloud concept is described as providing the appropriate level of available memory for applications using memory-optimised instances?

a)

Tracing

b)

Storage Tiers

c)

Memory Considerations

d)

Network Latency

63.

Which option best matches a design that provides quick but cost‑effective access to stored data, where cost correlates with data access speed?

a)

Storage Tiers

b)

At Rest Encryption

c)

Horizontal Scaling

d)

Memory Considerations

64.

Which scaling approach increases compute capabilities by adding more CPU and memory resources across additional machines or instances?

a)

Vertical Scaling

b)

Horizontal Scaling

c)

Tracing

d)

Network Latency

65.

What term measures the delay between when information is sent and when it arrives at its destination?

a)

Throughput

b)

Network Latency

c)

Tracing

d)

At Rest Encryption

66.

Which practice provides monitoring and troubleshooting for complex, distributed systems by following an application's flow and data progression through its lifecycle?

a)

Logging

b)

Tracing

c)

At Rest Encryption

d)

Memory Considerations

67.

Which security control helps protect data residing on storage media in either a private or public cloud environment?

a)

In Transit Encryption

b)

Access Control Lists

c)

At Rest Encryption

d)

Network Latency