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EMT- Resp Emergencies

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a condition that can cause difficulty breathing and/or hypoxia?

a)

Hay fever

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Obstruction of the airway

d)

Pulmonary edema

e)

Appendicitis

2.

Altered mental status may be a sign that the brain is ________.

a)

hypoxic

b)

hyperactive

c)

hydrated

d)

infected

3.

Which of the following situations may exist in the dyspneic patient? Select all that apply.

a)

Gas exchange is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli.

b)

The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls.

c)

The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened, floppy airway walls.

d)

Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots.

e)

The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand.

4.

Congestive heart failure causes the heart to pump inefficiently and deprives the body of ________.

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

calcium

d)

insulin

5.

Severe pain can cause a patient to experience rapid, shallow breathing without the presence of a primary ________ dysfunction.

a)

pulmonary

b)

cardiac

c)

renal

d)

hepatic

6.

Which of the following is a problem of inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissues?

a)

hypoxia

b)

Ventilation

c)

Perfusion

d)

Circulation

7.

Match the following causes of airway obstruction with their examples:

a)

Mucus and secretion obstructing airflow

1.

Cold, diphtheria

b)

Swelling of soft tissues in upper airways

2.

Epiglottitis, croup

c)

Impaired exchange of gases in the alveoli

3.

Pneumonia

8.

What is the inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea called?

a)

Croup

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pneumonia

9.

Croup is typically seen in children between ______ and ______ years of age.

a)

6 months; 3 years

b)

1 year; 5 years

c)

2 years; 7 years

d)

3 months; 2 years

10.

What are the hallmark signs of croup?

a)

Stridor and a seal-like cough

b)

Wheezing and productive cough

c)

Fever and rash

d)

Chest pain and hemoptysis

11.

Croup often responds well to the administration of ______ oxygen.

a)

humidified

b)

dry

c)

cold

d)

pressurized

12.

What is the inflammation of the epiglottis, usually as the result of?

a)

A bacterial infection

b)

A viral allergy

c)

A genetic disorder

d)

A fungal deficiency

13.

Children with epiglottitis are often found in the ______ position and drooling.

a)

tripod

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

lateral

14.

Which virus is a common cause of illness in young children and leads to bronchiolitis and pneumonia?

a)

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

b)

Adenovirus

c)

Influenza virus

d)

Rhinovirus

15.

Bronchiolitis usually affects which age group?

a)

Newborns and toddlers

b)

Teenagers

c)

Adults

d)

Elderly

16.

Pneumonia is a general term that refers to an infection of the ______.

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

kidneys

d)

heart

17.

Which type of pneumonia presents more gradually and is less severe?

a)

Viral pneumonia

b)

Bacterial pneumonia

c)

Aspiration pneumonia

d)

Fungal pneumonia

18.

Pertussis (whooping cough) is an airborne bacterial infection that mostly affects children under what age?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

10

d)

12

19.

Influenza Type A is an animal respiratory disease that has mutated to infect _______.

a)

humans

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

fish

20.

Which of the following is a symptom of Influenza Type A?

a)

Rash

b)

Sore throat

c)

Joint dislocation

d)

Seizures

21.

COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2) is a coronavirus similar to the one that causes the _______.

a)

common cold

b)

measles

c)

chickenpox

d)

tuberculosis

22.

Which group is preferentially affected by COVID-19?

a)

Children

b)

Elderly and those with weakened immune systems

c)

Athletes

d)

Teachers

23.

Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that most commonly affects the _______.

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

kidneys

d)

heart

24.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Tuberculosis?

a)

Night sweats

b)

Weight loss

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Fatigue

25.

Acute pulmonary edema usually results from _______ heart failure.

a)

congestive

b)

right-sided

c)

valvular

d)

ischemic

26.

In acute pulmonary edema, fluid builds up within the _______ and in lung tissue.

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

pleura

27.

What is COPD characterized by?

a)

COPD is characterized by chronic obstruction of lung airflow that interferes with normal breathing and is not fully reversible.

b)

COPD is characterized by acute reversible airway inflammation only.

c)

COPD is characterized by increased lung elasticity and improved airflow.

d)

COPD is characterized by a temporary infection of the upper respiratory tract.

28.

Which of the following is an umbrella term used to describe several lung diseases, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Pneumonia

29.

Tobacco smoke is a bronchial irritant and can create chronic bronchitis, an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

With bronchitis, excessive mucus is constantly produced, obstructing small airways and alveoli.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Emphysema is the most common type of COPD.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Emphysema is the loss of ______ material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli.

a)

elastic

b)

cartilaginous

c)

osseous

d)

fibrous

33.

Most patients with COPD have elements of both chronic bronchitis and _______.

a)

emphysema

b)

asthma

c)

pneumonia

d)

bronchiectasis

34.

Asthma, hay fever, and anaphylaxis result from an allergic reaction to an inhaled, ingested, or injected substance.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

An acute spasm of the bronchioles associated with excessive mucus production and swelling of the mucous lining of the respiratory passages is characteristic of which condition?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Pulmonary edema

36.

What is the most prevalent age group for asthma attacks?

a)

Children 5–17 years of age

b)

Adults 18–40 years of age

c)

Infants under 1 year of age

d)

Seniors over 65 years of age

37.

What is the characteristic wheezing in asthma caused by?

a)

The patient attempts to exhale through partially obstructed airways

b)

Excessive mucus production in the stomach

c)

Rapid heartbeat due to anxiety

d)

Swelling of the vocal cords

38.

An acute asthma attack may be caused by allergic reaction to specific foods or some other allergen.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Hay fever (allergic rhinitis) causes which of the following symptoms?

a)

Cold-like symptoms, including a runny nose, sneezing, congestion, and sinus pressure

b)

Severe chest pain

c)

High fever

d)

Loss of consciousness

40.

Symptoms of hay fever are usually caused by an allergic reaction to outdoor, airborne allergens.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is a severe allergic reaction characterized by severe airway swelling and dilation of the blood vessels all over the body called?

a)

Anaphylactic reaction

b)

Asthmatic attack

c)

Septic shock

d)

Myocardial infarction

42.

Epinephrine is the treatment of choice for anaphylactic reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What is pneumothorax?

a)

The partial or total accumulation of air in the pleural space

b)

The inflammation of the bronchial tubes

c)

The buildup of fluid in the alveoli

d)

The narrowing of the trachea

44.

Spontaneous pneumothorax is most often caused by trauma.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What is pleural effusion?

a)

A collection of fluid outside the lung

b)

A type of lung cancer

c)

A viral infection of the lungs

d)

A narrowing of the airways

46.

What is a possible cause of mechanical obstruction in a patient with dyspnea?

a)

A mechanical obstruction may be caused by aspiration of vomitus or a foreign object, or improper positioning of the head causing the tongue to block the airway.

b)

Mechanical obstruction is always caused by allergic reactions only.

c)

Mechanical obstruction is only caused by viral infections.

d)

Mechanical obstruction is only caused by high blood pressure.

47.

In semicomatose and unconscious patients, what may cause the obstruction of the airway?

a)

Aspiration of vomitus or a foreign object, or improper positioning of the head causing the tongue to block the airway.

b)

Excessive sweating leading to dehydration.

c)

High blood pressure causing nasal congestion.

d)

Rapid heartbeat causing shortness of breath.

48.

If a patient was eating just before onset of dyspnea, what should always be considered?

a)

The possibility of foreign body obstruction.

b)

The possibility of myocardial infarction.

c)

The possibility of asthma exacerbation.

d)

The possibility of pulmonary embolism.

49.

What is an embolus in the circulatory system?

a)

An embolus is anything in the circulatory system that moves from its point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing blood flow.

b)

An embolus is a type of white blood cell that fights infection in the circulatory system.

c)

An embolus is a hormone that regulates blood pressure in the circulatory system.

d)

An embolus is a protein that helps in the clotting of blood in the circulatory system.

50.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of pulmonary emboli?

a)

A. Dyspnea

b)

B. Tachycardia

c)

C. Cyanosis

d)

D. Fever

51.

Signs and symptoms of pulmonary emboli include:

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

All of the above

52.

What is hyperventilation defined as?

a)

Hyperventilation is defined as overbreathing to the point that the level of arterial carbon dioxide falls below normal.

b)

Hyperventilation is defined as breathing at a normal rate with increased oxygen levels.

c)

Hyperventilation is defined as shallow breathing causing increased carbon dioxide levels.

d)

Hyperventilation is defined as slow breathing resulting in low oxygen levels.

53.

Hyperventilation may be an indicator of a life-threatening illness.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

If too much carbon dioxide is blown off during hyperventilation, what condition can occur?

a)

Alkalosis can occur.

b)

Acidosis can occur.

c)

Hypoglycemia can occur.

d)

Hypertension can occur.

55.

Symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome include:

a)

Anxiety

b)

Dizziness

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

56.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation?

a)

Numbness

b)

Tingling of the hands and feet

c)

Painful spasms of the hands and/or feet

d)

Fever

57.

The decision whether hyperventilation is being caused by a life-threatening illness or a panic attack should not be made outside the hospital.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which of the following can be accidentally released at industrial sites and inhaled by employees?

a)

Pesticides

b)

Cleaning solutions

c)

Chemicals

d)

Chlorine

e)

All of the above

59.

Carbon monoxide is ________, tasteless, and highly poisonous.

a)

odorless

b)

colorful

c)

sweet-smelling

d)

flammable

60.

What is the leading cause of nondrug accidental poisoning deaths in the United States?

a)

Carbon monoxide poisoning

b)

Lead poisoning

c)

Mercury poisoning

d)

Arsenic poisoning

61.

High-flow oxygen by nonrebreathing mask is the best treatment for conscious patients with ________ poisoning.

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

cyanide

c)

arsenic

d)

lead

62.

What is the first step in scene size-up during patient assessment?

a)

Take standard precautions and use PPE.

b)

Check the patient's pulse.

c)

Move the patient to the ambulance.

d)

Begin CPR immediately.

63.

Which scale is used to check for responsiveness during primary assessment?

a)

AVPU scale

b)

Glasgow Coma Scale

c)

Pain scale

d)

ABC scale

64.

During primary assessment, what should you make sure of regarding the airway?

a)

Make sure airway is patent and adequate.

b)

Check for a pulse in the airway.

c)

Ensure the airway is closed to prevent aspiration.

d)

Administer medication directly into the airway.

65.

What should you evaluate for when assessing breathing in a patient with respiratory distress?

a)

Adequate breathing (rate, rhythm, quality) and breath sounds.

b)

Skin color and capillary refill only.

c)

Blood pressure and heart rate only.

d)

Level of consciousness and pupil size only.

66.

When assessing circulation in a respiratory emergency, what three things should you assess?

a)

Pulse rate, rhythm, and quality; shock and bleeding; perfusion by evaluating skin color, temperature, and condition.

b)

Airway patency, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate.

c)

Level of consciousness, pupil size, and blood glucose.

d)

Capillary refill, breath sounds, and chest expansion.

67.

What are the two steps to making a transport decision in a respiratory emergency?

a)

Address the life threats and proceed with rapid transport.

b)

Check the patient's insurance and wait for family consent.

c)

Administer medication and observe for 24 hours before transport.

d)

Call for backup and wait until the scene is clear.

68.

What is the purpose of the SAMPLE history in patients with respiratory distress?

a)

To collect history from bystanders or family, if present.

b)

To determine the patient's blood type.

c)

To assess the patient's lung capacity.

d)

To decide the dosage of medication to administer.

69.

Only proceed with secondary assessment if life threats have been addressed and treated.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Select two monitoring devices that can be used during secondary assessment in respiratory emergencies.

a)

Pulse oximeter and capnograph

b)

Thermometer and glucometer

c)

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

d)

Otoscope and ophthalmoscope

71.

Patients with COPD are usually older than __ years of age.

a)

50

b)

30

c)

40

d)

60

72.

Which of the following is a common characteristic of patients with COPD?

a)

Barrel-like chest appearance

b)

Rarely use accessory muscles to breathe

c)

Never exhale through pursed lips

d)

Are usually younger than 30 years of age

73.

Patients with COPD often have a history of lung problems and are almost always long-term active or former cigarette smokers.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Which of the following is the first step in reassessment for a patient with respiratory problems?

a)

Provide emotional support

b)

Repeat the primary assessment

c)

Administer supplemental oxygen

d)

Provide noninvasive ventilator support

75.

Which intervention for respiratory problems involves using a bag-mask device?

a)

Providing oxygen via nonrebreathing mask

b)

Providing positive pressure ventilations

c)

Using airway management techniques

d)

Assisting the patient with respiratory medications

76.

Fill in the blank: Positioning the patient in a high Fowler position or position of choice is an intervention for ________ problems.

a)

respiratory

b)

digestive

c)

urinary

d)

musculoskeletal

77.

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of inhalers?

a)

Increased pulse rate

b)

Nervousness

c)

Muscle tremors

d)

Decreased blood pressure

78.

Medication from an inhaler is delivered through the respiratory tract to the lung.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

What should you do immediately when managing a patient with respiratory distress?

a)

Provide emotional support

b)

Administer supplemental oxygen

c)

Monitor the patient’s respiratory status

d)

Consult medical control

80.

List two things you should confirm during reassessment of a patient with respiratory problems.

a)

1) Determine if there have been changes in the patient’s condition. 2) Confirm the adequacy of interventions and patient status.

b)

1) Check the patient's family history. 2) Confirm the patient's insurance details.

c)

1) Ask about the patient's favorite food. 2) Confirm the patient's travel history.

d)

1) Determine the patient's age. 2) Confirm the patient's occupation.

81.

What is the first step in treating an upper or lower airway infection according to the emergency care protocol?

a)

Administer humidified oxygen (if available).

b)

Give antibiotics immediately.

c)

Start chest compressions.

d)

Apply a tourniquet to the limb.

82.

When treating a patient with suspected epiglottitis, should you attempt to suction the airway or place an oropharyngeal airway?

a)

No, do not attempt to suction the airway or place an oropharyngeal airway in a patient with suspected epiglottitis.

b)

Yes, always attempt to suction the airway in suspected epiglottitis.

c)

Yes, place an oropharyngeal airway to maintain patency in all cases of epiglottitis.

d)

Only suction the airway if the patient is unconscious.

83.

How should you position a patient with an upper or lower airway infection?

a)

Position comfortably.

b)

Lay the patient flat on their back.

c)

Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

d)

Keep the patient in a prone position.

84.

What should you do after positioning a patient with an upper or lower airway infection comfortably?

a)

Transport promptly.

b)

Administer pain medication.

c)

Allow the patient to eat or drink.

d)

Encourage the patient to walk around.

85.

What is the first step in treating acute pulmonary edema?

a)

Provide 100% oxygen.

b)

Start intravenous antibiotics.

c)

Administer oral antihypertensives.

d)

Perform chest physiotherapy.

86.

If necessary, what should you do for a patient with acute pulmonary edema after providing oxygen?

a)

Suction, if necessary.

b)

Administer oral fluids immediately.

c)

Place the patient in a supine position.

d)

Encourage the patient to exercise.

87.

What should you do if CPAP is indicated and allowed by protocol in a patient with acute pulmonary edema?

a)

Provide CPAP if indicated and allowed by protocol.

b)

Administer aspirin and wait for improvement.

c)

Immediately intubate the patient.

d)

Withhold all respiratory support until further notice.

88.

What is the first step in assisting a patient with COPD?

a)

Assist with prescribed inhaler.

b)

Encourage the patient to lie flat.

c)

Withhold oxygen therapy.

d)

Administer antibiotics immediately.

89.

What should you watch for when assisting a COPD patient with a prescribed inhaler?

a)

Watch for side effects due to overuse.

b)

Ensure the inhaler is stored in the refrigerator.

c)

Check if the inhaler is shared with others.

d)

Monitor for signs of dehydration.

90.

What is the first step in treating asthma under the section 'Asthma, hay fever, and anaphylaxis'?

a)

Be prepared to suction.

b)

Administer antibiotics immediately.

c)

Apply a cold compress to the chest.

d)

Encourage the patient to drink water quickly.

91.

What is the first step in treating anaphylaxis according to the emergency care protocol?

a)

Remove the offending agent.

b)

Administer oral antihistamines.

c)

Monitor blood pressure only.

d)

Apply a cold compress to the affected area.

92.

F. Pleural effusion: What must be done in hospital for pleural effusion?

a)

Fluid removal

b)

Administer insulin

c)

Apply a cast

d)

Perform cataract surgery

93.

What should be provided and done promptly for a patient with pleural effusion?

a)

Provide oxygen

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Administer high-protein diet

d)

Encourage vigorous exercise

94.

What should be provided for partial obstruction?

a)

Provide supplemental oxygen and transport.

b)

Perform abdominal thrusts immediately.

c)

Begin chest compressions.

d)

Withhold all interventions until complete obstruction occurs.

95.

What should be done for complete obstruction?

a)

Clear the obstruction and administer oxygen.

b)

Give the patient water to drink.

c)

Ignore and wait for spontaneous recovery.

d)

Ask the patient to lie down and rest.

96.

What should be done after clearing a complete obstruction?

a)

Transport rapidly to emergency department.

b)

Allow the patient to go home immediately.

c)

Give the patient water to drink.

d)

Ask the patient to rest for a while at the scene.

97.

What is mandatory for a patient with pulmonary embolism?

a)

Supplemental oxygen

b)

Antibiotics for all cases

c)

Immediate surgery

d)

High carbohydrate diet