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GCC Mock Test 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A client is to receive an intravenous injection of radiopaque dye for a diagnostic procedure. The nurse knows which action is most important to take before administering the dye?
a)
Obtaining baseline vital signs.
b)
Obtaining height and weight.
c)
Asking the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish.
d)
Reviewing the client's intake and output.
e)
-
2.
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse's teaching?
a)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.
b)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.
c)
It doesn't matter which insulin I draw up first.
d)
I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.
e)
-
3.
A patient, age 54, seeks medical attention for low-grade afternoon fevers, night sweats, loss of appetite, and a productive cough. The practitioner suspects pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), especially after the patient remarks that his wife recently was diagnosed with TB. A positive acid-fast bacillus sputum culture confirms that the patient has TB. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
a)
Deficient knowledge related to spread of the infection
b)
Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to not eating
c)
Anxiety related to hearing the diagnosis
d)
Risk for injury related to infection
e)
-
4.
A client presents to the emergency department (ED) via ambulance with SOB for the past 3 days. After spending 4 hours in the ED, the client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with pulmonary edema requiring intubation and ventilation. The ED nurse reports to the ICU nurse that a Foley catheter was placed and that the client has had a total of 25 mL of urine output. The labs from the ED reveal (1) BG of 300, (2) BUN of 100, and (3) creatinine of 5.0. The client has a medical history of CAD, CHF, diabetes, COPD, and asthma. What is the most likely cause of the client's low urine output?
a)
Acute and chronic renal failure due to diabetes and a decreased blood flow to the kidneys due to heart failure.
b)
Renal failure due to decreased coronary output secondary to heart failure.
c)
Decreased blood flow to the kidneys due to congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to noncompliance with home fluid restriction.
d)
Severe dehydration.
e)
-
5.
A client has just returned from an EGD, where the client was diagnosed with peptic ulcers. The client does not have a history of taking NSAIDs. During the procedure, biopsies and cultures were taken. What lab results can the nurse anticipate?
a)
Negative biopsies.
b)
Cultures positive for Helicobacter pylori.
c)
Cultures showing normal gastric flora.
d)
Cultures positive for Staphylococcus.
e)
-
6.
A patient's history reveals that he suffers from daytime symptoms of asthma that occur 3 to 6 days a week. How would his asthma severity be described?
a)
Mild intermittent
b)
Mild persistent
c)
Moderate persistent
d)
Severe persistent
e)
-
7.
A woman who has had asthma since she was a child and it is under control when the client takes her medication correctly and consistently is now pregnant for the first time. Which of the following client statements concerning asthma during pregnancy indicates the need for further instruction?
a)
I need to continue taking my asthma medication as prescribed.
b)
It is my goal to prevent or limit asthma attacks.
c)
During an asthma attack, oxygen needs continue to be high for mother and fetus.
d)
Bronchodilators should be used only when necessary because of the risk they present to the fetus.
e)
-
8.
A client who receives total parenteral nutrition (TPN) will most likely require which medication on a routine basis?
a)
Sodium supplementation.
b)
Furosemide (Lasix).
c)
Insulin.
d)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
e)
-
9.
Which parameter should the nurse monitor frequently while a patient receives pentamidine isethionate?
a)
Heart rate
b)
Electrolyte levels
c)
Blood sugar levels
d)
CBC
e)
-
10.
Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorroidectomy?
a)
High-fiber
b)
Low-residue
c)
Bland
d)
Clear-liquid
e)
-
11.
A 165-lb (75 kg) patient with a pulmonary embolus is ordered to receive 20 units/kg/hour of heparin by I.V. infusion. How many units of heparin should he receive each hour?
a)
1000
b)
1200
c)
1500
d)
1700
e)
-
12.
Lipid emulsions are part of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and partial parenteral nutrition (PPN). What do lipid emulsions supply?
a)
Proteins.
b)
Carbohydrates.
c)
Electrolytes.
d)
Fats.
e)
-
13.
Which percentage of those with mental illness receive treatment in the health care system?
a)
25%.
b)
33%.
c)
40%.
d)
50%.
e)
-
14.
A nurse works in a clinic where the nurse is responsible for client education. Which principle is a factor in client education?
a)
Every client is a learner throughout life.
b)
Learning is difficult for the very young and very old client.
c)
Middle-aged clients are busy with work and family and cannot focus on learning.
d)
Clients learn best when they are faced with a serious illness.
e)
-
15.
A client with a past medical history of ventricular septal defect repaired in infancy is seen at the prenatal clinic. She is complaining of dyspnea with exertion and being very tired. Her vital signs are 98, 80, 20, BP 116/72. She has +2 pedal edema and clear breath sounds. As the nurse plans this client's care, which of the following is her cardiac classification according to the New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease classification?
a)
Class I.
b)
Class II.
c)
Class III.
d)
Class IV.
e)
-
16.
The nurse is reviewing results for clients who are having antenatal testing. The assessment data from which client warrants prompt notification of the health care provider and a further plan of care?
a)
Primigravida who reports fetal movement 6 times in 2 hours.
b)
Multigravida who had a positive oxytocin challenge test.
c)
Primigravida whose infant has a biophysical profile of 9.
d)
Multigravida whose infant has a reactive nonstress test.
e)
-
17.
One theory commonly used in family mental health nursing is Bowen's family systems theory. The central assumption in this theory is that chronic anxiety is the underlying basis for dysfunction. The theory consists of eight interlocking concepts that address anxiety and emotional processes. This includes:
a)
Differentiation of self.
b)
Quadriceps.
c)
The family process system.
d)
The nuclear family spiritual system.
e)
-
18.
Which is true regarding the administration of antacids?
a)
Antacids should be administered without regard to mealtimes.
b)
Antacids should be administered with each meal and snack of the day.
c)
Antacids should be administered within 1-2 hours of all other medications.
d)
Antacids should be administered with all other medications, for maximal absorption.
e)
-
19.
The chart of a client with schizophrenia states that the client has echolalia. The nurse can expect the client to:
a)
Speak using words that rhyme
b)
Repeat words or phrases used by others
c)
Include irrelevant details in conversation
d)
Make up new words with new meanings
e)
-
20.
Which of the following is considered identifiable health information?
a)
A photograph of a patient's leg showing a unique tattoo
b)
A patient's chart listing his history of a stroke last year
c)
A blank menu for a regular diet on the patient's over-bed table
d)
A laboratory report with the patient's name, address, Social Security number, date of birth, and room number deleted
e)
-
21.
An ampule of promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) is opened by the nurse. Why should the nurse choose to use a filter needle to draw this medication into the syringe?
a)
Light can change this medication chemically and cause precipitates.
b)
Rapidly shaking the vial to bring the medication to the bottom can cause physical property changes.
c)
Very small particles of the glass vial can be drawn through a regular needle.
d)
Particles from the nurse's hands can drop into the vial when it is opened.
e)
-
22.
A nurse is performing the Trendelenburg test for the client with multiple sclerosis. The nurse is aware that this test is used to measure:
a)
Muscle weakness
b)
Fluid retention
c)
Ability to concentrate
d)
Dexterity
e)
-
23.
The nurse assesses his client's dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. The nurse understands that this assessment is an important part of the physical exam because:
a)
It determines heart rate.
b)
It examines pulse rate.
c)
It monitors perfusion of the lower extremities.
d)
It assesses adequacy of oxygenation.
e)
-
24.
A 20-year-old is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a motorcycle accident. Which would be the appropriate method for measuring the client for crutches?
a)
Measuring five finger breaths under the axilla
b)
Measuring 3 inches under the axilla
c)
Measuring the client with the elbows flexed 10°
d)
Measuring the client with the crutches 20 inches from the side of the foot
e)
-
25.
The nurse is assessing an infant with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse can expect the infant to:
a)
Weigh less than expected for height and age
b)
Have infrequent bowel movements
c)
Exhibit clubbing of the fingers and toes
d)
Have hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
e)
-
26.
A woman who has had asthma since she was a child and it is under control when the client takes her medication correctly and consistently is now pregnant for the first time. Which of the following client statements concerning asthma during pregnancy indicates the need for further instruction?
a)
I need to continue taking my asthma medication as prescribed.
b)
It is my goal to prevent or limit asthma attacks.
c)
During an asthma attack, oxygen needs continue to be high for mother and fetus.
d)
Bronchodilators should be used only when necessary because of the risk they present to the fetus.
e)
-
27.
The nurse cares for a client who has a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine in place after a total knee replacement. The physician writes orders for the degree of flexion and hours per day of CPM use. Which intervention should the nurse perform?
a)
Turn off the CPM machine when the client is eating.
b)
Check the flexion settings every morning.
c)
Educate the family on how to change the degree of flexion.
d)
Increase the degree of flexion per the client's tolerance.
e)
-
28.
A neurological consult has been ordered for a pediatric client with suspected absence seizures. The client with absence seizures can be expected to have:
a)
Short, abrupt muscle contraction
b)
Quick, bilateral severe jerking movements
c)
Abrupt loss of muscle tone
d)
A brief lapse in consciousness
e)
-
29.
Instructions for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should include information about which blood dyscrasia?
a)
Dressler's syndrome
b)
Polycythemia
c)
Essential thrombocytopenia
d)
von Willebrand's disease
e)
-
30.
An 8-month-old infant has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What food should be added to the infant's diet?
a)
Orange juice
b)
Fortified rice cereal
c)
Whole milk
d)
Strained meat
e)
-
31.
Effective communication between members of the multidisciplinary health care team ensures which important aspect of a safe client care environment?
a)
The confidentiality of health information.
b)
Reasonable continuity of care.
c)
The right to self-determination.
d)
Considerate and respectful care.
e)
-
32.
Which of the following is considered identifiable health information?
a)
A photograph of a patient's leg showing a unique tattoo
b)
A patient's chart listing his history of a stroke last year
c)
A blank menu for a regular diet on the patient's over-bed table
d)
A laboratory report with the patient's name, address, Social Security number, date of birth, and room number deleted
e)
-
33.
Which is the best example of a nurse preventing painful stimuli?
a)
Encouraging the client to hit the PCA button before ambulating in the hall.
b)
Instructing the client in deep breathing exercises while the nurse performs a painful dressing change.
c)
Arranging for an elevated toilet seat in the bathroom of a client with knee arthritis.
d)
Placing an ice pack on the hip of a client who recently had a hip replacement.
e)
-
34.
A 19-year-old nulligravid client visiting the clinic for a routine examination asks the nurse about cervical mucus changes that occur during the menstrual cycle. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect to include in the client's teaching plan?
a)
About midway through the menstrual cycle, cervical mucus is thick and sticky.
b)
During ovulation, the cervix remains dry without any mucus production.
c)
As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear.
d)
Cervical mucus disappears immediately after ovulation, resuming with menses.
e)
-
35.
The physician has ordered a minimal bacteria diet for a client with neutropenia. The client should be taught to avoid eating:
a)
Fruits
b)
Salt
c)
Pepper
d)
Ketchup
e)
-
36.
The nurse changes a wet-to-dry dressing for a client who has a pressure ulcer with infected, necrotic tissue. The nurse knows the purpose of the wet-to-dry dressing is to:
a)
Prevent extensive infection.
b)
Reduce pain.
c)
Debride the wound.
d)
Keep the wound moist.
e)
-
37.
The first exercise that should be performed by the client who had a mastectomy is:
a)
Walking the hand up the wall
b)
Sweeping the floor
c)
Combing her hair
d)
Squeezing a ball
e)
-
38.
The physician has ordered atropine sulfate 0.4mg IM before surgery. The medication is supplied in 0.8mg per milliliter. The nurse should administer how many milliliters of the medication?
a)
0.25mL
b)
0.5mL
c)
1mL
d)
1.25mL
e)
-
39.
A 39-year-old multigravid client asks the nurse for information about female sterilization with a tubal ligation. Which of the following client statements indicates effective teaching?
a)
My fallopian tubes will be tied off through a small abdominal incision.
b)
Reversal of a tubal ligation is easily done, with a pregnancy success rate of 80%.
c)
After this procedure, I must abstain from intercourse for at least 3 weeks.
d)
Both of my ovaries will be removed during the tubal ligation procedure.
e)
-
40.
A client recovering from a thyroidectomy tells the nurse, "I feel numbness and my face is twitching." What is the nurse's best initial action?
a)
Offer mouth care
b)
Loosen the neck dressing
c)
Notify the physician
d)
Document the finding as the only action
e)
-
41.
The chart of a client with schizophrenia states that the client has echolalia. The nurse can expect the client to:
a)
Speak using words that rhyme
b)
Repeat words or phrases used by others
c)
Include irrelevant details in conversation
d)
Make up new words with new meanings
e)
-
42.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
a)
Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
b)
She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
c)
She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
d)
Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.
e)
-
43.
A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the:
a)
Age of the client
b)
Frequency of intercourse
c)
Regularity of the menses
d)
Range of the client's temperature
e)
-
44.
A woman who has had asthma since she was a child and it is under control when the client takes her medication correctly and consistently is now pregnant for the first time. Which of the following client statements concerning asthma during pregnancy indicates the need for further instruction?
a)
I need to continue taking my asthma medication as prescribed.
b)
It is my goal to prevent or limit asthma attacks.
c)
During an asthma attack, oxygen needs continue to be high for mother and fetus.
d)
Bronchodilators should be used only when necessary because of the risk they present to the fetus.
e)
-
45.
During which stage of illness should the nurse orient teaching to meet the client's family's needs?
a)
Developing awareness.
b)
Disbelief.
c)
Identifying change.
d)
Reorganization and resolution.
e)
-
46.
Which of the following anticoagulants would the nurse expect to administer when caring for a primigravid client at 12 weeks' gestation who has class II cardiac disease due to mitral valve stenosis?
a)
Heparin.
b)
Warfarin (Coumadin).
c)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox).
d)
Ardeparin (Normiflo).
e)
-
47.
Which of the following anticoagulants would the nurse expect to administer when caring for a primigravid client at 12 weeks' gestation who has class II cardiac disease due to mitral valve stenosis?
a)
Heparin.
b)
Warfarin (Coumadin).
c)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox).
d)
Ardeparin (Normiflo).
e)
-
48.
When planning to teach an adolescent female patient about PID, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
a)
Good hygiene practices prevent the development of PID.
b)
The use of hormonal contraceptives decreases the risk of PID.
c)
PID can lead to long-term complications of the reproductive tract.
d)
Infants born to adolescents with PID are at risk for birth defects.
e)
-
49.
Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of herpes zoster?
a)
The nurse covers the lesions with a sterile dressing.
b)
The nurse wears gloves when providing care.
c)
The nurse administers a prescribed antibiotic.
d)
The nurse administers oxygen.
e)
-
50.
The first exercise that should be performed by the client who had a mastectomy is:
a)
Walking the hand up the wall
b)
Sweeping the floor
c)
Combing her hair
d)
Squeezing a ball
e)
-
51.
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse's teaching?
a)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.
b)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.
c)
It doesn't matter which insulin I draw up first.
d)
I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.
e)
-
52.
After the nurse instructs a 20-year-old nulligravid client on how to perform a breast self-examination, which of the following client statements indicates that the teaching has been successful?
a)
I should perform breast self-examination on the day my menstrual flow begins.
b)
It's important that I perform breast self-examination on the same day each month.
c)
If I notice that one of my breasts is much smaller than the other, I shouldn't worry.
d)
If there is discharge from my nipples, I should call my health care provider.
e)
-
53.
Which brain structures regulate sleep and wakefulness?
a)
Thalamus and hypothalamus.
b)
Reticular activating system and bulbar synchronizing region.
c)
Cerebral cortex and reticular activating system.
d)
Hypothalamus and bulbar synchronizing region.
e)
-
54.
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse's teaching?
a)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.
b)
When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.
c)
It doesn't matter which insulin I draw up first.
d)
I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.
e)
-
55.
A 30-year-old multigravid client at 8 weeks' gestation has a history of insulin-dependent diabetes since age 20. When explaining about the importance of blood glucose control during pregnancy, the nurse should tell the client that which of the following will occur regarding the client's insulin needs during the first trimester?
a)
They will increase.
b)
They will decrease.
c)
They will remain constant.
d)
They will be unpredictable.
e)
-
56.
A client with a severe corneal ulcer has an order for Gentamycin gtt. q 4 hours and Neomycin 1 gtt q 4 hours. Which of the following schedules should be used when administering the drops?
a)
Allow 5 minutes between the two medications.
b)
The medications may be used together.
c)
The medications should be separated by a cycloplegic drug.
d)
The medications should not be used in the same client.
e)
-
57.
A child with cystic fibrosis is being treated with inhalation therapy with Pulmozyme (dornase alfa). A side effect of the medication is:
a)
Weight gain
b)
Hair loss
c)
Sore throat
d)
Brittle nails
e)
-
58.
A client with a recent ACL reconstruction has just received education on crutch use and safety. Which statement best indicates that the client has a complete understanding of the education?
a)
During return demonstration of crutch use, the client's axillas are free of pressure.
b)
The client states principles of crutch safety and use and then demonstrates these principles while using the crutches in the hallway.
c)
The client correctly uses the crutches in the hallway.
d)
The client verbally repeats instructions given regarding the safe use and maintenance of crutches.
e)
-
59.
A nurse is performing the Trendelenburg test for the client with multiple sclerosis. The nurse is aware that this test is used to measure:
a)
Muscle weakness
b)
Fluid retention
c)
Ability to concentrate
d)
Dexterity
e)
-
60.
The nurse is teaching about irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following would be most important?
a)
Reinforcing the need for a balanced diet
b)
Encouraging the client to drink 16 ounces of fluid with each meal
c)
Telling the client to eat a diet low in fiber
d)
Instructing the client to limit his intake of fruits and vegetables
e)
-
61.
Which client would most benefit from an integrative medicine health care strategy?
a)
A client with chronic fatigue syndrome who has had no relief of fatigue.
b)
A client with diabetes whose blood sugars are out of control and refuses to take the prescribed oral and injection medications.
c)
A client with cholecystitis who wants surgery to definitively treat the symptoms.
d)
A client with a history of a cough for 4 days with green sputum production, fever of 104.2 degrees Fahrenheit, and chest pain with inspiration.
e)
-
62.
The nurse places an overweight client on a bedpan and notices that the plastic bedpan does not retain its shape under the client's weight. The bedpan flattens, spilling the contents into the client's bed, and necessitating an additional bed bath for the client. The nurse must place three bedpans together in order for the bedpan to be used effectively by the overweight client. What action by the nurse would demonstrate good resource management practice?
a)
The nurse should pass on in shift report that the bedpans currently purchased by the facility do not hold their shape under heavier clients and that multiple bedpans must be used together for the bedpans to retain their shape and be used correctly.
b)
The nurse should notify the unit supervisor or manager of the problem with the bedpans not supporting the weight of the clients and that multiple bedpans must be stacked together in order for the bedpans to be used effectively.
c)
The nurse should call the facility's distribution department and report the defective or weak bedpan issue.
d)
The nurse should remember to stack three bedpans together before placing them under a client to increase the strength and retain the shape of the bedpans while in use.
e)
-
63.
A male client asks the nurse about the use of withdrawal (coitus interruptus) as a method for birth control. The nurse advises the client:
a)
To use this method as a reliable form of birth control.
b)
That the effectiveness of this method is poor.
c)
That the sexual experience will not be altered.
d)
That coitus interruptus prevents sexually transmitted infections.
e)
-
64.
A patient with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
a)
Lie supine with his neck extended.
b)
Sit upright, leaning slightly forward.
c)
Blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on it.
d)
Hold his nose while bending forward at the waist.
e)
-
65.
A patient, age 52, is admitted with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. When analyzing the patient's laboratory data, what would the nurse expect to find?
a)
Hyperglycemia, an increased white blood cell (WBC) count, and elevated cortisol and 17-ketosteroid levels
b)
A decreased WBC count, hyponatremia, metabolic acidosis, and hyperglycemia
c)
Glycosuria, hyperkalemia, a decreased cortisol level, and metabolic alkalosis
d)
Decreased 17-ketosteroid levels, an elevated serum glucose level, hypocalcemia, and hyponatremia
e)
-
66.
During a routine clinic visit, a 25-year-old multigravid client who initiated prenatal care at 10 weeks' gestation and is now in her third trimester states, "I've been having strange dreams about the baby. Last week I dreamed he was covered with hair." The nurse should tell the mother:
a)
Dreams like the ones that you describe are very unusual. Please tell me more about them.
b)
Commonly when a mother has these dreams, she is trying to cope with becoming a parent.
c)
Dreams about the baby late in pregnancy usually mean that labor is about to begin soon.
d)
It's not uncommon to have dreams about the baby, particularly in the third trimester.
e)
-
67.
An 82-year-old male patient with Parkinson's disease experiences frequent urinary incontinence. The nurse should perform which intervention first?
a)
Diaper the patient.
b)
Apply a condom catheter.
c)
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
d)
Provide skin care every 4 hours.
e)
-
68.
The nurse assesses a client who is in an arm cast. The client complains of severe pain, decreased motion and sensation, and swelling in the fingers. Which action should the nurse take first?
a)
Notify the physician.
b)
Remove the cast.
c)
Elevate the arm.
d)
Administer analgesics.
e)
-
69.
After the nurse instructs a 20-year-old nulligravid client on how to perform a breast self-examination, which of the following client statements indicates that the teaching has been successful?
a)
I should perform breast self-examination on the day my menstrual flow begins.
b)
It's important that I perform breast self-examination on the same day each month.
c)
If I notice that one of my breasts is much smaller than the other, I shouldn't worry.
d)
If there is discharge from my nipples, I should call my health care provider.
e)
-
70.
An 18-month-old is being discharged following hypospadias repair. Which instruction should be included in the nurse's discharge teaching?
a)
The child should not play on his rocking horse.
b)
Applying warm compresses to decrease pain.
c)
Diapering should be avoided for 1-2 weeks.
d)
The child will need a special diet to promote healing.
e)
-
71.
The nurse is admitting a client with a suspected duodenal ulcer. The client will most likely report that his abdominal discomfort lessens when he:
a)
Skips a meal
b)
Rests in recumbent position
c)
Eats a meal
d)
Sits upright after eating
e)
-
72.
The nurse knows that a symptom of right-sided heart failure is:
a)
Pulmonary edema.
b)
Hepatomegaly.
c)
Orthopnea.
d)
Rales.
e)
-
73.
The physician has ordered atropine sulfate 0.4mg IM before surgery. The medication is supplied in 0.8mg per milliliter. The nurse should administer how many milliliters of the medication?
a)
0.25mL
b)
0.5mL
c)
1mL
d)
1.25mL
e)
-
74.
When planning to teach an adolescent female patient about PID, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
a)
Good hygiene practices prevent the development of PID.
b)
The use of hormonal contraceptives decreases the risk of PID.
c)
PID can lead to long-term complications of the reproductive tract.
d)
Infants born to adolescents with PID are at risk for birth defects.
e)
-
75.
The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
a)
Promethazine
b)
Aspirin
c)
Sitz baths
d)
Ice packs
e)
-
76.
A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:
a)
Force fluids 24 hours before the procedure
b)
Ask the client to void immediately before the study
c)
Hold medication that affects the central nervous system for 12 hours pre- and post-test
d)
Cover the client's reproductive organs with an x-ray shield
e)
-
77.
What information should the nurse give a new mother regarding the introduction of solid foods for her infant?
a)
Solid foods should not be given until the extrusion reflex disappears, at 8-10 months of age.
b)
Solid foods should be introduced one at a time, with 4- to 7-day intervals.
c)
Solid foods can be mixed in a bottle or infant feeder to make feeding easier.
d)
Solid foods should begin with fruits and vegetables.
e)
-
78.
A client has come to the physician's office complaining of recent constipation. The nurse takes a health history. Which statement made by the client suggests a likely cause of the constipation?
a)
I walk with a group of friends every day at the mall for an hour.
b)
My spouse died 20 years ago, but my family is very loving and supportive. They live just around the corner and come over a few times a week to visit.
c)
The fast food place near my home has really good food. I eat there most of the time.
d)
What is a laxative?
e)
-
79.
A medication is said to have inotropic, chronotropic, or dromotropic effects on cardiac tissue. The nurse knows medications that have a chronotropic effect can cause:
a)
A change in heart rate.
b)
A change in force of cardiac contraction.
c)
A change in conduction of cardiac impulses.
d)
A change in valvular strength.
e)
-
80.
The nurse is caring for a client with a hip fracture who is being discharged with a prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which statement would indicate a need for further teaching?
a)
I should take the medication immediately before bedtime.
b)
I should remain in an upright position for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
c)
The medication should be taken by mouth with water.
d)
I should not have any food intake with this medication.
e)
-
81.
During which stage of illness should the nurse orient teaching to meet the client's family's needs?
a)
Developing awareness.
b)
Disbelief.
c)
Identifying change.
d)
Reorganization and resolution.
e)
-
82.
Which brain structures regulate sleep and wakefulness?
a)
Thalamus and hypothalamus.
b)
Reticular activating system and bulbar synchronizing region.
c)
Cerebral cortex and reticular activating system.
d)
Hypothalamus and bulbar synchronizing region.
e)
-
83.
When performing Leopold's maneuvers, which of the following would the nurse ask the client to do to ensure optimal comfort and accuracy?
a)
Breathe deeply for 1 minute.
b)
Empty her bladder.
c)
Drink a full glass of water.
d)
Lie on her left side.
e)
-
84.
A client has come to the physician's office complaining of recent constipation. The nurse takes a health history. Which statement made by the client suggests a likely cause of the constipation?
a)
I walk with a group of friends every day at the mall for an hour.
b)
My spouse died 20 years ago, but my family is very loving and supportive. They live just around the corner and come over a few times a week to visit.
c)
The fast food place near my home has really good food. I eat there most of the time.
d)
What is a laxative?
e)
-
85.
A neurological consult has been ordered for a pediatric client with suspected absence seizures. The client with absence seizures can be expected to have:
a)
Short, abrupt muscle contraction
b)
Quick, bilateral severe jerking movements
c)
Abrupt loss of muscle tone
d)
A brief lapse in consciousness
e)
-
86.
A 52-year-old patient reports weight gain and fatigue. On assessment, her vital signs are a blood pressure of 120/74 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 52 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a temperature of 98º F (36.7º C). Laboratory results show low T4 and T3 levels. The nurse knows these signs and symptoms are associated with which condition?
a)
Tetany
b)
Hypothyroidism
c)
Hyperthyroidism
d)
Hypokalemia
e)
-
87.
After instructing a primigravid client about the functions of the placenta, the nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching when she says that which of the following hormones is produced by the placenta?
a)
Estrogen.
b)
Progesterone.
c)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
d)
Testosterone.
e)
-
88.
The nurse assesses his client's dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. The nurse understands that this assessment is an important part of the physical exam because:
a)
It determines heart rate.
b)
It examines pulse rate.
c)
It monitors perfusion of the lower extremities.
d)
It assesses adequacy of oxygenation.
e)
-
89.
A patient with SLE who receives immunosuppressants develops a fever. The nurse should:
a)
administer prescribed antipyretics.
b)
place the patient in isolation.
c)
apply cooling measures immediately.
d)
help identify the cause.
e)
-
90.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?
a)
Whole-wheat bread
b)
Spaghetti and meatballs
c)
Hamburger on white bread with ketchup
d)
Cheese omelet
e)
-
91.
The physician prescribes regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect:
a)
In 5-10 minutes
b)
In 10-20 minutes
c)
In 30-60 minutes
d)
In 60-120 minutes
e)
-
92.
The client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care?
a)
Use Karaya powder to seal the bag.
b)
Irrigate the ileostomy daily.
c)
Stomahesive is the best skin protector.
d)
Neosporin ointment can be used to protect the skin.
e)
-
93.
A 20-year-old is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a motorcycle accident. Which would be the appropriate method for measuring the client for crutches?
a)
Measuring five finger breaths under the axilla
b)
Measuring 3 inches under the axilla
c)
Measuring the client with the elbows flexed 10°
d)
Measuring the client with the crutches 20 inches from the side of the foot
e)
-
94.
The nurse is reviewing results for clients who are having antenatal testing. The assessment data from which client warrants prompt notification of the health care provider and a further plan of care?
a)
Primigravida who reports fetal movement 6 times in 2 hours.
b)
Multigravida who had a positive oxytocin challenge test.
c)
Primigravida whose infant has a biophysical profile of 9.
d)
Multigravida whose infant has a reactive nonstress test.
e)
-
95.
A patient with SLE who receives immunosuppressants develops a fever. The nurse should:
a)
administer prescribed antipyretics.
b)
place the patient in isolation.
c)
apply cooling measures immediately.
d)
help identify the cause.
e)
-
96.
The nurse places an overweight client on a bedpan and notices that the plastic bedpan does not retain its shape under the client's weight. The bedpan flattens, spilling the contents into the client's bed, and necessitating an additional bed bath for the client. The nurse must place three bedpans together in order for the bedpan to be used effectively by the overweight client. What action by the nurse would demonstrate good resource management practice?
a)
The nurse should pass on in shift report that the bedpans currently purchased by the facility do not hold their shape under heavier clients and that multiple bedpans must be used together for the bedpans to retain their shape and be used correctly.
b)
The nurse should notify the unit supervisor or manager of the problem with the bedpans not supporting the weight of the clients and that multiple bedpans must be stacked together in order for the bedpans to be used effectively.
c)
The nurse should call the facility's distribution department and report the defective or weak bedpan issue.
d)
The nurse should remember to stack three bedpans together before placing them under a client to increase the strength and retain the shape of the bedpans while in use.
e)
-
97.
A client at the clinic reports to the nurse, "I have trouble seeing signs at a distance, but no trouble seeing things close up." The nurse identifies the correct term for this vision problem as:
a)
Myopia
b)
Emmetropia
c)
Hyperopia
d)
Astigmatism
e)
-
98.
A child is hospitalized with a fractured femur involving the epiphysis. Epiphyseal fractures are serious because:
a)
Bone marrow is lost through the fracture site.
b)
Normal bone growth is affected.
c)
Blood supply to the bone is obliterated.
d)
Callus formation prevents bone healing.
e)
-
99.
The nurse knows that a symptom of right-sided heart failure is:
a)
Pulmonary edema.
b)
Hepatomegaly.
c)
Orthopnea.
d)
Rales.
e)
-
100.
During a routine clinic visit, a 25-year-old multigravid client who initiated prenatal care at 10 weeks' gestation and is now in her third trimester states, "I've been having strange dreams about the baby. Last week I dreamed he was covered with hair." The nurse should tell the mother:
a)
Dreams like the ones that you describe are very unusual. Please tell me more about them.
b)
Commonly when a mother has these dreams, she is trying to cope with becoming a parent.
c)
Dreams about the baby late in pregnancy usually mean that labor is about to begin soon.
d)
It's not uncommon to have dreams about the baby, particularly in the third trimester.
e)
-