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Ujian Chief Kardiologi JAN 2026

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 66-year-old man with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and active smoking presents to the emergency department with severe retrosternal chest pain lasting 2 hours. The pain radiates to the left shoulder and jaw and is associated with diaphoresis and nausea. On arrival, his vital signs are: blood pressure 84/56 mmHg, heart rate 48 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Physical examination reveals cool extremities, markedly elevated jugular venous pressure, clear lung fields, and no audible pulmonary crackles. Electrocardiography shows 3–4 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL. ST elevation is greater in lead III than lead II. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

a)

Intravenous loop diuretics

b)

Immediate intravenous beta-blocker

c)

Rapid isotonic saline bolus

d)

Immediate intravenous nitroglycerin infusion

e)

Intravenous morphine followed by noninvasive ventilation

2.

A 58-year-old woman with no prior history of coronary artery disease presents with chest tightness at rest for 45 minutes. High-sensitivity troponin I is elevated. ECG demonstrates horizontal ST-segment depression in leads V4–V6. She is hemodynamically stable, pain-free after initial medical therapy, and has no signs of heart failure. Her GRACE score is calculated at 158. According to contemporary ESC guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate timing for invasive coronary angiography?

a)

Only if ischemia recurs

b)

Immediate (<2 hours)

c)

Within 72 hours

d)

Early (<6 hours)

e)

Within 24 hours

3.

A 72-year-old man presents 4 days after an untreated anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He suddenly develops acute pulmonary edema, hypotension, and a new harsh holosystolic murmur best heard at the cardiac apex with radiation to the axilla. Bedside echocardiography reveals severe acute mitral regurgitation with a hyperdynamic, nondilated left ventricle. Which mechanical complication is MOST likely responsible for this presentation?

a)

Ventricular free wall rupture

b)

Acute fibrinous pericarditis

c)

Reinfarction

d)

Papillary muscle rupture

e)

Ventricular septal rupture

4.

A 60-year-old man with inferior STEMI receives sublingual nitrates shortly after arrival. Within minutes, his blood pressure falls from 120/75 mmHg to 80/50 mmHg. Lung fields remain clear, and jugular venous pressure is elevated. Which pathophysiologic mechanism BEST explains this hemodynamic deterioration?

a)

Acute aortic regurgitation

b)

Anaphylactoid reaction to nitrates

c)

Right ventricular infarction with preload dependence

d)

Pulmonary embolism

e)

Acute papillary muscle dysfunction

5.

A 63-year-old man presents 36 hours after the onset of chest pain that resolved spontaneously. ECG shows pathological Q waves in leads V1–V4 without ongoing ST elevation. He is asymptomatic, hemodynamically stable, and has no evidence of ongoing ischemia. What is the MOST appropriate reperfusion strategy?

a)

Primary PCI

b)

Rescue PCI

c)

Late fibrinolytic therapy

d)

No reperfusion therapy

e)

Emergency CABG

6.

A 55-year-old woman with NSTEMI is planned for invasive management. She has a prior history of spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage 3 years ago with full neurological recovery. Which antiplatelet agent is CONTRAINDICATED in this patient?

a)

Clopidogrel

b)

Ticagrelor

c)

Cangrelor

d)

Prasugrel

e)

Aspirin

7.

A 61-year-old man with stable multivessel coronary artery disease undergoes stress imaging that demonstrates moderate-to-severe ischemia. He reports minimal angina (CCS class I) while on optimal medical therapy. Based on the ISCHEMIA trial, which statement is MOST accurate?

a)

Medical therapy increases sudden cardiac death

b)

Routine PCI reduces all-cause mortality

c)

Early invasive strategy prevents myocardial infarction

d)

Invasive strategy improves quality of life in symptomatic patients

e)

CABG is superior in all stable CAD patients

8.

An ECG obtained in a patient with chest pain shows diffuse ST-segment depression in multiple leads with ST-segment elevation in lead aVR. This pattern MOST strongly suggests:

a)

Left main or severe multivessel coronary disease

b)

Inferior STEMI

c)

Acute pericarditis

d)

Early repolarization

e)

Proximal LAD occlusion

9.

A 57-year-old woman presents with chest pain and elevated troponin. Coronary angiography reveals no obstructive coronary lesions. Cardiac MRI demonstrates subendocardial late gadolinium enhancement in the inferior wall. Which diagnosis BEST explains these findings?

a)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

b)

Coronary vasospasm without infarction

c)

Acute myocarditis

d)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

e)

Myocardial infarction with non-obstructive coronary arteries (MINOCA)

10.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of early (<30 days) stent thrombosis?

a)

Late stent malapposition

b)

Hypersensitivity reaction

c)

Neoatherosclerosis

d)

Premature discontinuation of dual antiplatelet therapy

e)

Drug resistance

11.

A 45-year-old man presents with recurrent palpitations and dizziness. ECG shows irregular wide-complex tachycardia with varying QRS morphologies. Blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate immediate management?

a)

IV procainamide

b)

IV adenosine

c)

IV verapamil

d)

IV digoxin

e)

Immediate synchronized cardioversion

12.

A patient with Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. Which drug is MOST appropriate for acute rate control?

a)

Verapamil

b)

Procainamide

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Adenosine

e)

Digoxin

13.

Which antiarrhythmic drug exhibits reverse use-dependence and increases the risk of torsades de pointes at low heart rates?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Sotalol

c)

Mexiletine

d)

Flecainide

e)

Lidocaine

14.

A 70-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 30%) remains symptomatic (NYHA II) despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. Which additional therapy provides mortality benefit regardless of diabetic status?

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Digoxin

c)

SGLT2 inhibitor

d)

Ivabradine

e)

Hydralazine–nitrate

15.

A patient with restrictive cardiomyopathy is MOST likely to demonstrate which echocardiographic feature?

a)

Markedly dilated ventricles

b)

Dynamic LVOT obstruction

c)

Severe functional mitral regurgitation

d)

Reduced ejection fraction early

e)

Normal ventricular size with impaired diastolic filling

16.

Which physical maneuver increases the murmur intensity in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

a)

Passive leg raise

b)

Squatting

c)

Handgrip

d)

Valsalva maneuver

e)

Afterload increase

17.

A patient with constrictive pericarditis is MOST likely to exhibit which echocardiographic sign?

a)

Systolic anterior motion

b)

Apical ballooning

c)

Septal bounce

d)

Reduced E/e′ ratio

e)

Severe LV dilation

18.

Which echocardiographic parameter BEST reflects left ventricular filling pressure?

a)

Isovolumic relaxation time

b)

E/A ratio

c)

Left atrial volume index

d)

Mitral E/e′ ratio

e)

Deceleration time

19.

A 34-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnea. Physical examination reveals fixed splitting of the second heart sound. Echocardiography shows right atrial and right ventricular enlargement with Qp/Qs of 2.2. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return

b)

Ostium primum atrial septal defect

c)

Ventricular septal defect

d)

Patent ductus arteriosus

e)

Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

20.

A patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension undergoes vasoreactivity testing during right heart catheterization and demonstrates a positive response. Which therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Beta-blocker

b)

High-dose calcium channel blocker

c)

Prostacyclin analog

d)

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor

e)

Endothelin receptor antagonist

21.

A 69-year-old man with a history of anterior myocardial infarction presents with progressive dyspnea and lower-extremity edema. Blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg, heart rate 96 bpm. Physical examination reveals bibasilar crackles and an S3 gallop. Echocardiography shows LVEF 28%, LV end-diastolic diameter 70 mm, and moderate functional mitral regurgitation. He is receiving maximally tolerated doses of ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which additional intervention is MOST appropriate at this stage?

a)

Add digoxin for mortality benefit

b)

Discontinue beta-blocker

c)

Upgrade therapy to sacubitril/valsartan

d)

Immediate mitral valve surgery

e)

Start high-dose loop diuretics only

22.

A 74-year-old woman with chronic atrial fibrillation presents for elective electrical cardioversion. She has been anticoagulated with apixaban for 3 weeks but admits to missing several doses. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Switch to warfarin and cardioversion in 1 week

b)

Perform transesophageal echocardiography before cardioversion

c)

Proceed with cardioversion immediately

d)

Administer IV heparin and cardiovert

e)

Cancel cardioversion permanently

23.

A 62-year-old man presents with syncope. ECG shows complete atrioventricular block with a junctional escape rhythm at 35 bpm. Blood pressure is stable, and he is asymptomatic at rest. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

b)

Temporary transvenous pacing

c)

IV atropine

d)

Observation only

e)

Isoproterenol infusion

24.

A 54-year-old woman presents with episodic chest pain occurring at rest, often in the early morning hours. Coronary angiography reveals angiographically normal coronary arteries. During acetylcholine provocation, focal coronary spasm is induced with ST elevation. What is the MOST appropriate long-term therapy?

a)

High-dose beta-blocker

b)

Long-acting nitrate and calcium channel blocker

c)

Aspirin alone

d)

Statin monotherapy

e)

Coronary stent implantation

25.

A 48-year-old man with no prior cardiac history presents with acute heart failure following a viral prodrome. Echocardiography shows global hypokinesia with LVEF 25%. Coronary angiography is normal. Cardiac MRI shows subepicardial late gadolinium enhancement in the lateral wall. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

b)

Ischemic cardiomyopathy

c)

Acute myocarditis

d)

Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

e)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

26.

A patient with long-standing hypertension presents with concentric LV hypertrophy on echocardiography. Global longitudinal strain shows relative apical sparing. Which diagnosis should be MOST strongly suspected?

a)

Hypertensive heart disease

b)

Fabry disease

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d)

Cardiac amyloidosis

e)

Athlete’s heart

27.

A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease undergoes coronary angiography for NSTEMI. Which strategy MOST effectively reduces the risk of contrast-induced acute kidney injury?

a)

Adequate isotonic saline hydration

b)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion only

c)

Use of low-osmolar contrast alone

d)

Prophylactic dialysis

e)

High-dose loop diuretics

28.

A 71-year-old woman with severe aortic stenosis presents with exertional syncope. Echocardiography shows valve area 0.7 cm², mean gradient 38 mmHg, and LVEF 55%. Which finding would MOST strongly indicate the need for urgent valve intervention?

a)

Mild left atrial enlargement

b)

Asymptomatic status

c)

Symptoms with exertion

d)

Normal BNP

e)

Sinus rhythm

29.

A patient with mechanical mitral valve replacement presents for routine follow-up. Which INR target is MOST appropriate?

a)

2.0–3.0

b)

2.5–3.5

c)

2.0–2.5

d)

3.5–4.5

e)

1.5–2.0

30.

A 60-year-old man presents with acute pericarditis. He has pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward and diffuse ST elevation with PR depression. Which therapy has been shown to REDUCE recurrence?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Antibiotics

c)

High-dose corticosteroids

d)

Colchicine

e)

Anticoagulation

31.

A 56-year-old woman with pulmonary arterial hypertension undergoes right heart catheterization. Mean pulmonary artery pressure is 32 mmHg, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure 9 mmHg, and pulmonary vascular resistance 5 Wood units. This condition is BEST classified as:

a)

Group 5 pulmonary hypertension

b)

Group 4 pulmonary hypertension

c)

Group 3 pulmonary hypertension

d)

Group 2 pulmonary hypertension

e)

Group 1 pulmonary hypertension

32.

A patient with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) is deemed operable. What is the treatment of choice?

a)

Oral pulmonary vasodilators only

b)

Lung transplantation

c)

Balloon pulmonary angioplasty as first-line

d)

Pulmonary endarterectomy

e)

Lifelong anticoagulation alone

33.

A 35-year-old man with repaired tetralogy of Fallot presents with reduced exercise tolerance. Cardiac MRI shows severe pulmonary regurgitation and RV end-diastolic volume index of 170 mL/m². What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Pulmonary valve replacement

b)

ICD implantation

c)

Beta-blocker therapy

d)

Pulmonary vasodilator therapy

e)

Observation only

34.

A 7-year-old child presents with exertional syncope and a harsh systolic murmur. Echocardiography shows asymmetric septal hypertrophy. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Innocent murmur

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

e)

Endocarditis

35.

A 78-year-old man with multiple comorbidities presents with NSTEMI. He is frail with limited functional reserve. What is the MOST important factor guiding management decisions?

a)

Chronological age

b)

Troponin level

c)

Frailty and functional status

d)

Coronary anatomy alone

e)

ECG changes only

36.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has persistently elevated lactate levels despite normalization of blood pressure. What does this MOST likely indicate?

a)

Ongoing global hypoperfusion

b)

Adequate tissue perfusion

c)

Measurement error

d)

Primary liver disease

e)

Excess oxygen delivery

37.

Which mechanical circulatory support device provides direct left ventricular unloading?

a)

VA-ECMO

b)

Pulmonary artery catheter

c)

Intra-aortic balloon pump

d)

Impella

e)

VV-ECMO

38.

A patient with atrial fibrillation and CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5 is scheduled for elective surgery. What is the MOST appropriate perioperative anticoagulation strategy?

a)

Switch to aspirin

b)

Continue full-dose anticoagulation

c)

Interrupt anticoagulation with appropriate bridging if indicated

d)

Stop anticoagulation permanently

e)

No change needed

39.

Which lifestyle intervention provides the GREATEST reduction in cardiovascular mortality?

a)

Vitamin supplementation

b)

Genetic screening

c)

Antioxidant therapy

d)

Smoking cessation

e)

Low-fat diet alone

40.

The MOST important goal of advanced cardiovascular care is:

a)

Procedural success

b)

Improvement of patient-centered outcomes and quality of life

c)

Maximizing technology use

d)

Prolongation of life at all costs

e)

Strict guideline adherence

41.

A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure (LVEF 32%) and left bundle branch block presents with persistent exertional dyspnea (NYHA III) despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. ECG shows QRS duration of 168 ms with typical LBBB morphology. Which intervention is MOST likely to improve survival and symptoms?

a)

Implantable cardioverter–defibrillator (ICD) only

b)

Upgrade to dual-chamber pacemaker

c)

Ivabradine initiation

d)

Digoxin uptritation

e)

Cardiac resynchronization therapy with defibrillator (CRT-D)

42.

A 59-year-old woman presents with palpitations and lightheadedness. ECG shows narrow-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm. Vagal maneuvers transiently terminate the arrhythmia. She remains hemodynamically stable. What is the MOST appropriate next step to prevent recurrence?

a)

Catheter ablation of the slow pathway

b)

Oral amiodarone

c)

Chronic beta-blocker therapy only

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Observation without therapy

43.

A 72-year-old man with known coronary artery disease presents with syncope. Telemetry reveals sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia at 160 bpm. He is hemodynamically stable after termination. Which strategy is MOST appropriate for secondary prevention of sudden cardiac death?

a)

Implantable cardioverter–defibrillator implantation

b)

Observation after revascularization

c)

Antiarrhythmic drug therapy only

d)

Beta-blocker therapy alone

e)

Pacemaker implantation

44.

A 50-year-old man presents with exertional dyspnea. ECG shows right axis deviation and tall R waves in V1. Echocardiography reveals RV dilation and dysfunction. CT pulmonary angiography shows no acute thrombus. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

a)

Acute pulmonary embolism

b)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

c)

Constrictive pericarditis

d)

Left-sided heart failure

e)

Acute coronary syndrome

45.

A patient with suspected infective endocarditis undergoes transesophageal echocardiography, which reveals a mobile vegetation measuring 12 mm on the anterior mitral leaflet. Which factor MOST strongly supports early surgical intervention?

a)

Absence of fever

b)

Vegetation size >10 mm

c)

Negative blood cultures

d)

Mild mitral regurgitation

e)

Preserved LV function

46.

A 64-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation and heart failure has difficulty achieving adequate rate control despite maximally tolerated beta-blockers and digoxin. Which strategy is MOST appropriate to improve symptoms and ventricular function?

a)

Increase digoxin dose

b)

Switch to amiodarone

c)

Observation only

d)

AV node ablation with permanent pacing

e)

Electrical cardioversion once

47.

A 70-year-old woman with hypertension presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows concentric LV hypertrophy, preserved EF, enlarged left atrium, and elevated E/e′ ratio. Which diagnosis BEST explains these findings?

a)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

b)

Acute myocarditis

c)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

e)

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

48.

A 55-year-old man presents with chest pain. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation with PR depression. Troponin is mildly elevated. Echocardiography shows no regional wall motion abnormality. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

a)

Myocarditis

b)

Acute pericarditis

c)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

d)

STEMI

e)

Pulmonary embolism

49.

A patient with nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 28%) and no prior arrhythmic events is evaluated for primary prevention. Which criterion supports ICD implantation?

a)

Normal QRS duration

b)

NYHA class I symptoms

c)

Age >70 years

d)

Presence of nonsustained VT only

e)

LVEF ≤35% after ≥3 months of optimal medical therapy

50.

A 62-year-old man presents with acute pulmonary edema and hypertension. Blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. ECG shows LV hypertrophy. What is the MOST appropriate immediate therapy?

a)

IV nitroglycerin infusion

b)

IV fluids

c)

High-dose beta-blocker

d)

Immediate intubation without therapy

e)

Oral ACE inhibitor

51.

A 58-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis presents with progressive dyspnea. Right heart catheterization shows mPAP 36 mmHg, PCWP 8 mmHg, PVR 6 Wood units. Which pulmonary hypertension classification applies?

a)

Group 1 pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Group 5 pulmonary hypertension

c)

Group 4 pulmonary hypertension

d)

Group 2 pulmonary hypertension

e)

Group 3 pulmonary hypertension

52.

A patient with long-standing atrial fibrillation undergoes successful catheter ablation. Sinus rhythm is restored. Which statement regarding anticoagulation is MOST accurate?

a)

Anticoagulation is no longer required

b)

Anticoagulation depends on CHA2DS2-VASc score

c)

Anticoagulation can be stopped immediately

d)

Anticoagulation is required only if AF recurs

e)

Aspirin alone is sufficient

53.

A patient with severe symptomatic mitral regurgitation and high surgical risk is referred for transcatheter intervention. Which condition BEST predicts benefit from transcatheter edge-to-edge repair?

a)

Active endocarditis

b)

Secondary MR with optimized GDMT and LV not excessively dilated

c)

Severe pulmonary hypertension

d)

Primary MR with normal LV size

e)

End-stage dilated cardiomyopathy

54.

A 60-year-old man with diabetes is found to have asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis of 75%. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Immediate carotid endarterectomy

b)

Carotid stenting

c)

Optimal medical therapy and risk factor modification

d)

Anticoagulation

e)

No therapy required

55.

A patient presents with syncope during exertion. ECG shows prolonged QT interval. Which intervention MOST reduces the risk of sudden cardiac death?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Beta-blocker therapy

c)

Digoxin

d)

Calcium channel blocker

e)

Catheter ablation

56.

A patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis develops severe calcific aortic stenosis. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Balloon aortic valvuloplasty

b)

Medical therapy only

c)

No intervention

d)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

e)

Surgical AVR contraindicated

57.

A 45-year-old man presents with chest pain after emotional stress. ECG shows ST elevation in precordial leads. Coronary angiography is normal. Echo shows apical ballooning. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Coronary vasospasm

b)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

c)

Myocarditis

d)

Pericarditis

e)

Acute MI

58.

A patient with persistent atrial flutter undergoes catheter ablation. Which anatomic structure is the typical ablation target?

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

AV node

c)

His bundle

d)

Cavotricuspid isthmus

e)

Left atrial appendage

59.

A patient with severe tricuspid regurgitation presents with ascites and peripheral edema. Which physical finding is MOST characteristic?

a)

Pericardial knock

b)

Giant V waves in jugular venous pulse

c)

Pulsus paradoxus

d)

Wide pulse pressure

e)

Decreased JVP

60.

Which population-based intervention has produced the LARGEST decline in cardiovascular mortality over the past decades?

a)

Novel pharmacotherapy only

b)

Cardiac surgery

c)

Risk factor modification and preventive strategies

d)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

e)

Advanced imaging

61.

A 67-year-old man with long-standing hypertension and diabetes presents with exertional dyspnea and decreased exercise tolerance. Echocardiography reveals concentric LV hypertrophy, preserved LVEF (60%), enlarged left atrium, and elevated E/e′ ratio. BNP is mildly elevated. Which pathophysiologic mechanism MOST strongly explains his symptoms?

a)

Acute volume overload

b)

Primary pulmonary vascular disease

c)

Impaired left ventricular relaxation and increased stiffness

d)

Dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction

e)

Reduced myocardial contractility

62.

A 59-year-old woman presents with sudden onset pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. CT pulmonary angiography confirms acute pulmonary embolism. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 105 bpm. Troponin is mildly elevated, and echocardiography shows RV dilation. How should this pulmonary embolism be BEST classified?

a)

Low-risk PE

b)

Intermediate–low risk PE

c)

Intermediate–high risk PE

d)

High-risk (massive) PE

e)

Chronic thromboembolic disease

63.

A 72-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%) and NYHA class III symptoms is evaluated for advanced therapies. Peak VO2 on cardiopulmonary exercise testing is 10 mL/kg/min despite optimal therapy. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Implant CRT-P

b)

Refer for heart transplantation evaluation

c)

Initiate digoxin

d)

Start pulmonary vasodilators

e)

Continue current medical therapy

64.

A 54-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with chest pain and fever. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. Echocardiography reveals a moderate pericardial effusion without tamponade physiology. What is the MOST appropriate initial therapy?

a)

Pericardiocentesis

b)

NSAIDs plus colchicine

c)

High-dose corticosteroids immediately

d)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

e)

Anticoagulation

65.

A 61-year-old man with known coronary artery disease presents with recurrent angina despite optimal medical therapy. Stress PET imaging shows balanced ischemia with globally reduced myocardial blood flow reserve. Which coronary pathology is MOST likely?

a)

Myocarditis

b)

Severe multivessel or left main disease

c)

Pericardial constriction

d)

Epicardial coronary spasm

e)

Single-vessel disease

66.

A 70-year-old woman undergoes TAVR for severe aortic stenosis. Post-procedure ECG shows new-onset left bundle branch block. Which complication is she at INCREASED risk for?

a)

Acute coronary occlusion

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

Aortic annular rupture

d)

High-grade atrioventricular block requiring pacemaker

e)

Stroke within 24 hours

67.

A 48-year-old man presents with syncope during exercise. ECG shows bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Genetic testing confirms a RyR2 mutation. Which diagnosis BEST explains this presentation?

a)

Idiopathic VT

b)

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

c)

Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

d)

Brugada syndrome

e)

Long QT syndrome

68.

A 63-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and prior ischemic stroke is on warfarin with subtherapeutic INR values. He reports difficulty with frequent monitoring. Which anticoagulation strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Add clopidogrel

b)

Switch to a direct oral anticoagulant

c)

Continue warfarin without monitoring

d)

Discontinue anticoagulation

e)

Aspirin monotherapy

69.

A patient with severe chronic mitral regurgitation remains asymptomatic. Echocardiography shows LVEF 55% and LV end-systolic diameter 42 mm. Which management strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Continue close surveillance

b)

Initiate diuretics

c)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

d)

Immediate mitral valve surgery

e)

Start anticoagulation

70.

A 58-year-old man presents with acute decompensated heart failure and severe hypertension (BP 200/120 mmHg). He is dyspneic with pulmonary edema. Which therapy MOST rapidly improves symptoms?

a)

Oral ACE inhibitor

b)

IV fluids

c)

IV nitroprusside or nitroglycerin

d)

IV beta-blocker

e)

Urgent dialysis

71.

A 46-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows RV hypertrophy and dilation. Right heart catheterization demonstrates mPAP 38 mmHg, PCWP 22 mmHg. Which etiology of pulmonary hypertension is MOST likely?

a)

Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension

b)

Left heart disease

c)

Lung parenchymal disease

d)

Chronic thromboembolic disease

e)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

72.

A patient with nonischemic cardiomyopathy and LVEF 30% has QRS duration of 110 ms. Which device therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

ICD only

b)

CRT-P

c)

No device indicated

d)

Dual-chamber pacemaker

e)

CRT-D

73.

A 60-year-old man with severe symptomatic tricuspid regurgitation presents with fatigue and edema. He is deemed high surgical risk. Which transcatheter therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Balloon tricuspid valvotomy

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge tricuspid repair

c)

Observation only

d)

Valve-in-valve TAVR

e)

Surgical annuloplasty

74.

A patient with suspected cardiac amyloidosis undergoes nuclear scintigraphy with technetium-99m pyrophosphate. Which result MOST strongly supports transthyretin amyloidosis?

a)

Myocardial uptake equal to or greater than bone

b)

Uptake only in the liver

c)

Mild myocardial uptake less than bone

d)

Patchy uptake

e)

No myocardial uptake

75.

A 52-year-old man presents with recurrent syncope. ECG shows alternating bundle branch block. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Beta-blocker therapy

b)

Observation only

c)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

d)

ICD implantation

e)

Catheter ablation

76.

A patient with acute inferior MI develops hypotension, clear lungs, and elevated JVP. Which additional ECG lead would MOST likely show ST elevation?

a)

V4R

b)

V1

c)

V6

d)

V2

e)

V3

77.

A patient with atrial fibrillation undergoes left atrial appendage occlusion. Which patient profile MOST benefits from this strategy?

a)

Contraindication to long-term anticoagulation

b)

No bleeding risk

c)

Paroxysmal AF only

d)

Young age

e)

Low CHA2DS2-VASc score

78.

A 65-year-old man with chronic heart failure presents with worsening renal function after initiation of ACE inhibitor. Which interpretation is MOST appropriate?

a)

ACE inhibitor should be stopped immediately

b)

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in HF

c)

Mild creatinine rise is acceptable and expected

d)

Switch to NSAIDs

e)

This indicates acute tubular necrosis

79.

A 55-year-old woman presents with acute chest pain. ECG shows ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5–V6. Which coronary artery is MOST likely occluded?

a)

Proximal LAD

b)

Left circumflex artery

c)

Posterior descending artery

d)

Acute marginal branch

e)

Right coronary artery

80.

A patient with advanced heart failure has persistent symptoms despite maximal therapy and expresses concern about quality of life. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

a)

Focus solely on survival extension

b)

Integrate palliative care alongside disease-directed therapy

c)

Immediate hospice referral without discussion

d)

Escalate all therapies indefinitely

e)

Discontinue all cardiac medications

81.

A 64-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with exertional chest discomfort. Stress echocardiography demonstrates inducible ischemia in the anterior wall at moderate workload. Resting echocardiography shows concentric LV hypertrophy with preserved EF. Which mechanism MOST likely explains his exertional ischemia?

a)

Acute plaque rupture

b)

Fixed epicardial coronary stenosis

c)

Dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction

d)

Coronary microvascular dysfunction

e)

Coronary vasospasm at rest

82.

A 70-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows severe tricuspid regurgitation, dilated right atrium, and preserved RV systolic function. Which mechanism MOST likely underlies her tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Rheumatic valve disease

b)

Primary leaflet degeneration

c)

Infective endocarditis

d)

Functional annular dilation due to atrial enlargement

e)

Carcinoid heart disease

83.

A 58-year-old man presents with syncope. ECG shows Brugada type 1 pattern. He has no structural heart disease. Which management strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

ICD implantation for primary prevention

b)

Pacemaker implantation

c)

Quinidine therapy in all patients

d)

Observation only

e)

Catheter ablation of RVOT

84.

A patient with chronic heart failure (LVEF 30%) is initiated on sacubitril/valsartan. Two weeks later, serum potassium is 5.6 mmol/L. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Switch to NSAIDs

b)

Discontinue sacubitril/valsartan immediately

c)

Reduce dose and address contributing factors

d)

Add potassium supplementation

e)

Ignore the finding

85.

A 62-year-old man with chest pain has ECG showing ST depression in V1–V3 with tall R waves. Posterior leads demonstrate ST elevation. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent?

a)

Posterior myocardial infarction

b)

Anterior STEMI

c)

Right ventricular infarction

d)

Inferior STEMI

e)

Acute pericarditis

86.

A 47-year-old woman presents with episodic palpitations. ECG during symptoms shows narrow-complex tachycardia with short RP interval. Which arrhythmia is MOST likely?

a)

Junctional tachycardia

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Atrial tachycardia

d)

Typical AVNRT

e)

Atrial flutter

87.

A patient with advanced chronic kidney disease presents with acute coronary syndrome. Coronary angiography is planned. Which strategy MOST reduces contrast exposure?

a)

Intravascular ultrasound–guided PCI

b)

High-dose diuretics

c)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion alone

d)

Use of radial access

e)

Prophylactic dialysis

88.

A 71-year-old man with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis undergoes TAVR. One month later, echocardiography shows paravalvular aortic regurgitation. Which factor MOST strongly predicts worse long-term outcomes?

a)

Moderate or severe regurgitation

b)

Central aortic regurgitation

c)

Regurgitation resolved by 3 months

d)

Trace regurgitation only

e)

Mild regurgitation without symptoms

89.

A patient with suspected infective endocarditis has persistently negative blood cultures. Which organism is MOST likely?

a)

Coxiella burnetii

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Viridans streptococci

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Enterococcus faecalis

90.

A 60-year-old woman with nonischemic cardiomyopathy presents with worsening dyspnea. Cardiac MRI shows patchy mid-wall late gadolinium enhancement. What does this finding MOST strongly predict?

a)

Complete reversibility of LV dysfunction

b)

Favorable prognosis

c)

Acute myocarditis

d)

Increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias

e)

Absence of fibrosis

91.

A 55-year-old man presents with chest pain. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with ST depression in V1–V3. Which coronary artery is MOST likely involved?

a)

Right coronary artery with posterior extension

b)

Left circumflex artery

c)

Proximal LAD

d)

Left main coronary artery

e)

Diagonal branch

92.

A patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension is treated with dual oral therapy. He remains intermediate-high risk on follow-up. What is the MOST appropriate next escalation?

a)

Switch PDE-5 inhibitor

b)

Lung transplantation referral only

c)

Observation

d)

Add parenteral prostacyclin therapy

e)

Increase diuretics only

93.

A 65-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy and LVEF 28% undergoes successful CRT implantation. Which parameter BEST predicts response to CRT?

a)

NYHA class

b)

Sex

c)

QRS morphology and duration

d)

Age

e)

Baseline BNP

94.

A patient with suspected constrictive pericarditis undergoes echocardiography. Which finding MOST supports this diagnosis?

a)

Global LV hypokinesia

b)

Septal bounce with respiratory variation

c)

Severe mitral regurgitation

d)

Apical ballooning

e)

Reduced EF

95.

A 52-year-old woman presents with exertional syncope. Echocardiography shows severe hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. Which maneuver would REDUCE the murmur intensity?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Squatting

c)

Standing suddenly

d)

Nitrate administration

e)

Valsalva maneuver

96.

A patient with atrial fibrillation has CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1 (male). Which strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Dual antiplatelet therapy

b)

Oral anticoagulation

c)

Left atrial appendage occlusion

d)

Aspirin

e)

No antithrombotic therapy

97.

A patient with cardiogenic shock is supported with VA-ECMO. Pulmonary edema worsens. Which adjunctive strategy BEST addresses this problem?

a)

Add inotropes

b)

Increase ECMO flow

c)

Stop ECMO

d)

LV unloading with Impella or IABP

e)

Aggressive diuresis only

98.

A 73-year-old woman presents with NSTEMI. Coronary angiography shows severe multivessel disease and diabetes mellitus. Which revascularization strategy MOST improves long-term survival?

a)

Deferred revascularization

b)

Medical therapy only

c)

CABG

d)

Multivessel PCI

e)

PCI of culprit lesion only

99.

A patient with repaired atrial septal defect presents in adulthood with atrial arrhythmias. Which long-term complication is MOST common?

a)

Ventricular arrhythmias

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

Progressive pulmonary hypertension

d)

Atrial fibrillation or flutter

e)

LV systolic dysfunction

100.

A patient with advanced cardiovascular disease asks about goals of care. Which principle BEST defines high-quality cardiovascular care?

a)

Avoid invasive procedures at all times

b)

Shared decision-making aligning care with patient values

c)

Strict adherence to guidelines regardless of context

d)

Prolong life at any cost

e)

Maximal intervention for all patients