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Sports Medicine Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is there major concern for the spread of infectious disease in sports and sports medicine?

a)

Athletes travel a lot

b)

Coaches yell during practice

c)

Equipment is expensive

d)

There is close physical contact between athletes

2.

What is an infectious disease?

a)

Any injury to soft tissue

b)

A genetic problem

c)

A mental health condition

d)

A disease caused by a pathogen

3.

What is a pathogen?

a)

A type of white blood cell

b)

A medication that kills germs

c)

A nutrient found in food

d)

A microorganism that causes disease

4.

What are the two most common immune responses to disease?

a)

Passive and active

b)

Primary and secondary

c)

Viral and bacterial

d)

Innate and adaptive

5.

Which of the following are common pathogens?

a)

Only viruses

b)

Only bacteria and fungi

c)

Only parasites

d)

Viruses, bacteria, fungi, parasites

6.

How is an infectious disease considered contagious?

a)

It causes a fever

b)

It only affects the skin

c)

It is always airborne

d)

It can spread from one person to another

7.

What is the difference between direct and indirect transmission?

a)

Direct = through water, indirect = through air

b)

Direct = through insects, indirect = through blood

c)

Direct = no contact, indirect = contact

d)

Direct = physical contact, indirect = through an object/air

8.

Which body system can infectious disease enter through?

a)

Skeletal system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Urinary system only

d)

Respiratory system

9.

What step can the athletic trainer take to prevent the spread of disease?

a)

Share water bottles

b)

Wear the same gloves all day

c)

Avoid cleaning wounds

d)

Sanitize equipment and treatment areas

10.

What are bloodborne pathogens?

a)

Pathogens found only in air

b)

Pathogens found in food

c)

Pathogens that only infect plants

d)

Pathogens present in human blood that can cause disease

11.

Which bloodborne pathogens are most significant in sports medicine?

a)

Influenza, RSV, COVID

b)

MRSA, strep, flu

c)

Mono, strep, flu

d)

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV

12.

Hepatitis is a disease of what organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lungs

d)

Liver

13.

Hepatitis is an example of what kind of pathogenic infection?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Fungal infection

c)

Parasitic infection

d)

Viral infection

14.

Typical recovery for Hepatitis B is:

a)

1–2 days

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

6–8 weeks

15.

How long can Hepatitis B live on a surface?

a)

A few minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

30 days

d)

Up to 7 days

16.

What does OSHA stand for?

a)

Official Sports Health Association

b)

Occupational Sports Hygiene Agency

c)

Organized Safety and Hazard Authority

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

17.

What vaccine does OSHA mandate be available for employees who may be exposed to blood?

a)

Flu vaccine

b)

Tetanus booster

c)

MMR vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

18.

How is Hepatitis B and C most commonly spread in sports medicine settings?

a)

Coughing in class

b)

Sharing food

c)

Mosquito bites

d)

Contact with infected blood or body fluids

19.

How is HCV (Hepatitis C virus) treated?

a)

With only rest and water

b)

With over-the-counter pain meds only

c)

It cannot be treated at all

d)

With antiviral/anti-hepatitis medication

20.

What is HIV?

a)

A type of bacteria that causes pneumonia

b)

A fungal infection of the skin

c)

A parasite in the digestive tract

d)

A virus that attacks the immune system

21.

How is HIV spread?

a)

Through casual contact like hugging

b)

Through the air

c)

By sharing school supplies

d)

Through certain body fluids/blood-to-blood/sexual contact

22.

How long can the asymptomatic phase of HIV last?

a)

1–2 days

b)

1 week

c)

1 month

d)

Up to 10 years

23.

What can HIV develop into if untreated?

a)

MRSA

b)

Mono

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

AIDS

24.

What should you do with a uniform that has blood on it?

a)

Let it dry and keep playing

b)

Throw it in a regular trash can

c)

Spray perfume on it

d)

Place it in a biohazard/labeled bag for cleaning

25.

Following glove removal, you should:

a)

Put on the same gloves again

b)

Touch your face

c)

Skip handwashing if no blood was seen

d)

Wash your hands immediately

26.

What is a wound?

a)

A bruise under the skin

b)

A muscle spasm

c)

A joint dislocation

d)

A break in the continuity of the skin

27.

Which mechanical forces can injure soft tissue?

a)

Only gravity

b)

Only twisting

c)

Only stretching

d)

Compression, tension, and shearing forces

28.

What is an abrasion?

a)

A deep puncture from a nail

b)

A clean cut from a sharp object

c)

A complete tissue tear

d)

A scrape of the skin against a rough surface

29.

What is a laceration?

a)

A scrape

b)

A clean straight cut

c)

A bruise

d)

A wound with jagged, irregular edges

30.

What is an incision?

a)

A jagged cut from a fall

b)

A scrape

c)

A puncture wound

d)

A clean, straight cut made by a sharp object

31.

What is a puncture wound?

a)

A scrape

b)

A clean cut

c)

A bruise

d)

A deep hole made by a pointed object

32.

What is an avulsion wound?

a)

A shallow scrape

b)

A blister

c)

A clean cut

d)

A wound where tissue is torn away from the body

33.

Who should be trained in first aid/CPR/AED usage?

a)

Only the principal

b)

Only varsity coaches

c)

Only athletes

d)

Everyone involved in athletics/events

34.

What is an EAP?

a)

Emergency Athlete Program

b)

Emergency Ambulance Procedure

c)

Event Athletic Policy

d)

Emergency Action Plan

35.

Where should EAPs be created for?

a)

Only the main gym

b)

Only games, not practices

c)

Only indoor facilities

d)

Every venue, field, gym, or event site

36.

Who is typically most knowledgeable regarding equipment removal?

a)

The athlete

b)

The head coach

c)

The referee

d)

The athletic trainer

37.

When does implied consent factor in?

a)

When the athlete says no

b)

When the coach signs a paper

c)

When the athlete is angry

d)

When the patient is unconscious or a minor without a parent present

38.

What is the purpose of the primary survey?

a)

To get a full injury history

b)

To check grades

c)

To tape an ankle

d)

To quickly find and treat life-threatening conditions

39.

Which of the following is part of the primary survey?

a)

Measure height

b)

Check flexibility

c)

Do a concussion test first

d)

Check responsiveness, airway, breathing, and severe bleeding

40.

What is the purpose of the secondary survey?

a)

To call the parents

b)

To schedule rehab

c)

To check locker rooms

d)

To perform a detailed evaluation of injuries and vital signs

41.

What is an AED?

a)

Automatic Emergency Device

b)

Athletic Emergency Data

c)

Automatic EMS Dialer

d)

Automated External Defibrillator

42.

When should an AED be used?

a)

For ankle sprains

b)

For bleeding wounds

c)

For fractures

d)

When an athlete is unresponsive and not breathing normally

43.

What is hemorrhage?

a)

Swelling of a joint

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Infection of blood

d)

Severe or uncontrolled bleeding

44.

What are 3 ways to control bleeding?

a)

Only ice

b)

Only elevation

c)

Only rest

d)

Direct pressure, elevation, pressure bandage/tourniquet

45.

What is shock?

a)

A muscle spasm

b)

A head injury

c)

A bone fracture

d)

A condition where the circulatory system fails to deliver enough blood/oxygen

46.

Normal adult pulse rate is about:

a)

20–30 beats per minute

b)

120–160 beats per minute

c)

30–40 beats per minute

d)

60–100 beats per minute

47.

Red skin color can indicate:

a)

Low blood flow

b)

Lack of oxygen

c)

Shock only

d)

Heat stroke, high blood pressure, or high temperature

48.

Blue (cyanotic) skin color can indicate:

a)

Infection

b)

High blood sugar

c)

Normal condition

d)

Lack of oxygen or poor blood flow

49.

What does HOPS stand for?

a)

Head, Orientation, Pulse, Shock

b)

Heat, Oxygen, Pulse, Survey

c)

History, Oxygen, Pressure, Support

d)

History, Observation, Palpation, Special tests

50.

What does POLICE stand for?

a)

Protect, Oxygen, Lift, Immobilize, Evaluate

b)

Pressure, Observation, Lift, Ice, Elevate

c)

Protect, Optimal Lift, Ice, Control, Elevate

d)

Protection, Optimal Loading, Ice, Compression, Elevation