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Sample Questions in Soil Science — Section 1: Soil Microbiology

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Net nitrogen immobilization in soil occurs if the C/N is

a)

Less than 20:1

b)

Greater than 20:1

c)

Greater than 35:1

d)

Less than 15:1

e)

None of the above

2.

Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the least biomass?

a)

Actinomycetes

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Protozoa

e)

Earthworm

3.

Which among the following soil organisms are acid-loving?

a)

Fungi

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

d)

Actinomycetes

e)

A and B above

4.

Ammonia volatilization from NH4+-bearing fertilizers is not favored by which of the following?

a)

High pH

b)

High Temperature

c)

High CEC

d)

a and b above

e)

b and c above

5.

Soil microorganisms degrade organic residues primarily for

a)

Phosphorus and ATP

b)

Carbon and energy

c)

Nitrogen and energy

d)

Phosphorus and energy

e)

Nitrogen and phosphorus

6.

The root-nodule bacteria belong to the genus

a)

Clostridium

b)

Azotobacter

c)

Rhizobium

d)

Agrobacterium

e)

None of the above

7.

The anaerobic non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria belong to the genus

a)

Derxia

b)

Clostridium

c)

Azotobacter

d)

Bradyrhizobium

e)

Nitrobacter

8.

Algae are considered as

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Photoautotrophs

c)

Chemoautotrophs

d)

Both a and b above

e)

None of the above

9.

The source of energy for blue-green algae is

a)

Sunlight

b)

Metabolism of glucose

c)

Organic matter decomposition

d)

Oxidation of inorganic compounds

e)

None of the above

10.

The predominant available form of N under flooded soil condition is

a)

NO3-N

b)

Organic-N

c)

NH4-N

d)

NO2-N

e)

None of the above

11.

The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is

a)

Ammonium

b)

Nitrite

c)

Nitrate

d)

Microbial biomass N

e)

Fixed N

12.

The conversion of NO3 to N2 is referred to as

a)

Nitrogen fixation

b)

Denitrification

c)

Immobilization

d)

Volatilization

e)

None of the above

13.

The percentage of organic N in the soil is approximately

a)

95-96%

b)

80-85%

c)

68-75%

d)

50-60%

e)

60-70%

14.

Nitrogen is added to the soil system by which of the following processes?

a)

Leaching

b)

Nitrogen fixation

c)

Ammonia volatilization

d)

a and b above

e)

b and c above

15.

The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as

a)

Immobilization

b)

Nitrification

c)

Mineralization

d)

Ammonification

e)

None of the above

16.

The conversion of N2 to NH3 is referred to as

a)

Denitrification

b)

Nitrate reduction

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Volatilization

e)

None of the above

17.

Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called

a)

Aerobes

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Obligate aerobes

d)

Microaerophillic

e)

None of the above

18.

The fixation and regeneration of CO2 in the biosphere is referred to as

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

CO2 evolution

c)

Respiration

d)

Nutrient cycle

e)

None of the above

19.

The optimum temperature requirement of thermophiles is

a)

Greater than 45°C

b)

Less than 45°C

c)

Greater than 30°C

d)

Less than 30°C

e)

30-40°C

20.

Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and energy are

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Heterotrophs

c)

Chemoautotrophs

d)

Photoautotrophs

e)

None of the above

21.

It refers to the entrapment of ammonium ions in-between crystal lattices of clays thus rendering them unavailable for plant use. This process is called

a)

Nitrogen fixation

b)

Microbial fixation

c)

Ammonium fixation

d)

Nutrient fixation

e)

None of the above

22.

Rhizobia are generally associated with nitrogen fixation in

a)

Rice

b)

Peanut

c)

Corn

d)

Sorghum

e)

Sugarcane

23.

Bacteria belonging to this genus are non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers

a)

Nitrobacter

b)

Aerobacter

c)

Azotobacter

d)

Arthrobacter

e)

Nitrosomonas

24.

If a crop residue contains 60% organic carbon and 5% total nitrogen, its C/N ratio is

a)

10:1

b)

12:1

c)

15:1

d)

20:1

e)

25:1

25.

The C/N ratio of soil microbial biomass is about

a)

5-8:1

b)

12-15:1

c)

15-20:1

d)

20-25:1

e)

None of the above

26.

The most abundant microorganisms found in the soil are generally the

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Actinomycetes

d)

Algae

e)

Protozoa

27.

The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissues is

a)

Mineralization

b)

Immobilization

c)

Nitrification

d)

Denitrification

e)

Ammonification

28.

Which of the following microorganisms is very sensitive to potassium levels in soil and therefore useful in diagnosing potassium deficiency?

a)

Pseudomonas denitrificans

b)

Aspergillus flavus

c)

Aspergillus niger

d)

Azotobacter chroococcum

e)

Nitrobacter agilis

29.

A deficiency of this element will not enable a legume and its bacterial partner to perform nitrogen fixation. This element is

a)

Boron

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Molybdenum

d)

Zinc

e)

Magnesium

30.

The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic matter is the

a)

Heterotrophs

b)

Autotrophs

c)

Phototrophs

d)

Chemoautotrophs

e)

None of the above

31.

Organic materials with wide C/N ratios are not ready sources of available nitrogen because the nitrogen that they contain is subject to

a)

Nitrification

b)

Volatilization

c)

Immobilization

d)

Fixation

e)

None of the above

32.

The soil microbial population is generally highest in the

a)

A horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

C horizon

d)

B2 horizon

e)

A0 horizon

33.

Chemoautotrophs are those organisms which derive their energy from

a)

Sunlight

b)

Oxidation of organic materials

c)

Fermentation

d)

Oxidation of inorganic substances

e)

None of the above

34.

For soil bacteria, growth results in an increase in the

a)

Size of the individuals

b)

Number of the individuals

c)

Form of the individuals

d)

Size and number of the individuals

e)

None of the above

35.

The most efficient organic matter decomposers under acidic soil conditions are the

a)

Bacteria

b)

Actinomycetes

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

e)

Algae

36.

Pesticides will be retained much longer in soils with

a)

Low organic matter

b)

High moisture content

c)

2:1 dominant clay type

d)

Low pH

e)

1:1 dominant clay type

37.

Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is less than

a)

20:1

b)

30:1

c)

40:1

d)

50:1

e)

60:1

38.

The initial substrate for nitrification is

a)

Nitrite

b)

Nitrate

c)

Ammonium

d)

Amine

e)

None of the above

39.

The ultimate end-product of denitrification is

a)

N2

b)

NO

c)

N2O

d)

NH3

e)

None of the above

40.

A gas which can be used as an indicator of the level of microbial activity in the soil is

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon dioxide

e)

Methane

41.

Associative nitrogen fixation is undertaken by bacteria in association with

a)

Rice

b)

Corn

c)

Sugar cane

d)

Pasture grasses

e)

All of the above

42.

Frankia spp. are soil microorganisms which are responsible for the nodulation in

a)

Casuarina

b)

Alnus

c)

Eleagnus

d)

Coriaria

e)

All of the above

43.

The number and activity of bacteria in the soil are affected by

a)

pH

b)

Moisture

c)

Oxygen supply

d)

Salinity

e)

All of the above

44.

A type of microscope which provides a 3-dimensional view of the soil microorganisms is called

a)

Light microscope

b)

Scanning electron microscope

c)

Transmission electron microscope

d)

Immuno-fluorescent microscope

e)

None of the above

45.

A 1:1000 soil-water dilution means that one part of soil is suspended in

a)

9 parts of sterile H2O

b)

99 parts of sterile H2O

c)

999 parts of sterile H2O

d)

1000 parts of sterile H2O

e)

None of the above

46.

In a legume biological nitrogen fixing system, the microsymbiont is

a)

Bacteria

b)

Actinomycete

c)

Algae

d)

Fungi

e)

None of the above

47.

CO2 evolution in soil is a function of

a)

Microbial population

b)

Aeration

c)

pH

d)

Temperature

e)

All of the above

48.

The amount of molecular nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is about

a)

88%

b)

78%

c)

68%

d)

58%

e)

48%

49.

When NO3 is denitrified all the way to N2, there is a shift in the valence of N from +5 to

a)

+4

b)

+3

c)

+2

d)

+1

e)

0

50.

Which of the following bacterial genera had been known to be capable of denitrification?

a)

Agrobacterium

b)

Azospirillum

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

Thiobacillus

e)

All of the above

51.

A soil consist of the three components; namely: solid, liquid and gas

a)

The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter

b)

The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it

c)

The gas component is about 80% nitrogen gas (N2)

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

52.

A soil consist of three components; namely: solid liquid and gas

a)

The solid is composed of inorganic matter

b)

The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it

c)

The gas is 80% oxygen gas

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

53.

A soil consist of three components; namely: solid, liquid and gas.

a)

The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter

b)

The liquid is a pure water

c)

The gas is 80% oxygen gas

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

54.

Under its natural occurrence a soil is aggregated and porous.

a)

An aggregate is composed of millions of individual particles

b)

Water and air occupy the pores

c)

The pores are interconnected channels to other pores

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

55.

The solid particles of a soil vary in composition, size and shape.

a)

The solid is composed of inorganic and organic matter

b)

The solid is composed of soil separates called sand, silt and clay

c)

The solids stick or cluster together to form soil aggregate

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

56.

The inorganic solid particles vary in size which are classified as soil separates.

a)

The size range of soil particle is equal to or less than 5 mm

b)

Sand is medium size soil separate

c)

Clay is the smallest or the finest soil separate

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

57.

The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil texture.

a)

Sand, silt and clay are soil separates

b)

Soil texture changes easily with poor methods of cultivation

c)

Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

58.

Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil.

a)

Sand is gritty

b)

Silt is sticky and plastic

c)

Clay is smooth

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

59.

Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil.

a)

Sand is coarse and gritty

b)

Silt is powdery and smooth

c)

Clay is sticky and plastic

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

60.

Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture.

a)

Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil

b)

Loamy soil are rich in silt

c)

Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

61.

In relation to crop production sandy soils are known to be:

a)

Droughty

b)

Easy to be cultivated

c)

Easy to drain

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

62.

In relation to crop production clayey soils are known to be:

a)

Sticky to cultivate

b)

Fertile than sand

c)

High water holding capacity than sand

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

63.

Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture.

a)

Clayey soils are more porous than sandy soil

b)

Silt texture is associated to poor physical properties

c)

Sandy soil is chemically more reactive than clay soil

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

64.

Soil texture could be determined by:

a)

"Feel" method

b)

Pipette method

c)

Hydrometer method

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

65.

Soil texture could be determined in the laboratory by:

a)

Ammonium acetate method

b)

Buoyancy method

c)

Hydrometer method

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

66.

The upper diameter size limit of clay particles is:

a)

2.0 mm

b)

0.2 mm

c)

0.02 mm

d)

0.002 mm

e)

0.0002 mm

67.

The upper diameter size limit of silt particles is:

a)

2.0 mm

b)

0.2 mm

c)

0.02 mm

d)

0.002 mm

e)

0.0002 mm

68.

The upper diameter size limit of sand particles is:

a)

2.0 mm

b)

0.2 mm

c)

0.02 mm

d)

0.002 mm

e)

0.0002 mm

69.

Soil textural class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness feel of silt and the stickiness of clay are manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil mass.

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Loam

e)

None of the above

70.

Soil texture that would be best for growing lowland rice.

a)

Sandy loam

b)

Silty loam

c)

Clay loam

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

71.

Characteristic feel of sand separates when rubbed in between the finger is:

a)

Coarse

b)

Smooth

c)

Sticky when moist

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

72.

Characteristic feel of clay separates when rubbed in between the finger is:

a)

Coarse

b)

Smooth

c)

Sticky when moist

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

73.

Characteristic feel of silt separates when rubbed in between the finger is:

a)

Coarse

b)

Smooth

c)

Sticky when moist

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

74.

Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure.

a)

Loam is the soil structure that most crops prefer

b)

Dispersed clay soil possesses good soil structure

c)

Compacted soil structure allows fast movement of air in the soil

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

75.

Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure.

a)

Crumb is the best structure that most crops prefer

b)

Dispersed clay soil possesses poor soil structure

c)

Poor water movement in platy soil structure

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

76.

Which among the following is not a soil structure?

a)

Loam

b)

Crumb

c)

Platy

d)

Sub-angular blocky

e)

Prismatic

77.

Soil densities and porosities are affected by soil texture and soil structure.

a)

Porosity increases with increasing bulk density

b)

Soil compaction increases bulk density

c)

Soil aggregation increases bulk density

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

78.

Soil densities and porosities are affected by soil texture and soil structure.

a)

Porosity increases with decreasing bulk density

b)

Soil compaction decreases bulk density

c)

Soil aggregation improves porosity

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

79.

Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil.

a)

Macro-pores retain water

b)

Macro-pores are important in root respiration

c)

Micro-pores are more important than macro-pores

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

80.

Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil.

a)

Micro-pores retain water

b)

Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration

c)

Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

81.

A soil with a bulk density of 1.3 g/cm31.3\ \text{g/cm}^3 and a particle density of 2.60 g/cm32.60\ \text{g/cm}^3 will have a porosity of:

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

82.

Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation.

a)

Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices

b)

Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition

c)

Decreasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

83.

Particle density is a stable soil property. Most agricultural soils would have particle densities close to this value.

a)

1.65 g/cm31.65\ \text{g/cm}^3

b)

2.65 g/cm32.65\ \text{g/cm}^3

c)

3.65 g/cm33.65\ \text{g/cm}^3

d)

4.65 g/cm34.65\ \text{g/cm}^3

84.

Type of soil structure that is best for growing upland crops.

a)

Massive

b)

Platy

c)

Crumb

d)

Loam

e)

Single-grain

85.

The soil structure of a compacted plow soil is:

a)

Massive

b)

Platy

c)

Crumb

d)

Loam

e)

Single-grain

86.

The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions.

a)

Dark or black color indicates high organic matter

b)

Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron

c)

Yellowish color indicates that the portion of lowland soil is at oxidized state

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

87.

The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions.

a)

Dark or black color indicates high organic matter

b)

Dark or black color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron

c)

Dark or black color indicates that the soil is at oxidized state

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

88.

The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions.

a)

Reddish color indicates high organic matter

b)

Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron

c)

Reddish color indicates that the soil is young

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

89.

Plants depend on the water stored in the soil.

a)

The upper limit of available water is saturated moisture content

b)

The upper limit of available water is hygroscopic point

c)

The upper limit of available water is field capacity

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

90.

Plants depend on the water stored in the soil.

a)

The upper limit of available water is field capacity

b)

The lower limit of available water is permanent wilting point

c)

Available water capacity is field capacity minus permanent wilting point

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

91.

Available water capacity is calculated as

a)

Saturation minus permanent wilting point

b)

Field capacity minus permanent wilting point

c)

Hygroscopic point minus permanent wilting point

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

92.

Gravitational water capacity is equal to

a)

Saturated moisture minus permanent wilting point

b)

Saturated moisture minus field capacity

c)

Saturated moisture minus hygroscopic point

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

93.

The moisture content of an air dry soil is known as

a)

Saturation

b)

Field capacity

c)

Permanent wilting point

d)

Hygroscopic coefficient

e)

Zero point

94.

Movement of water in the soil is always from:

a)

Higher to lower soil moisture content

b)

Higher to lower total potential energy

c)

Higher to lower soil moisture tension

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

95.

If soil moisture content is 50%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point is 20%, the amount of available water in the soil is:

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

96.

If soil moisture content is 35%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point is 20%, the amount of available water in the soil is:

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

97.

Calculate the gravimetric moisture content of a soil sample if its fresh weight = 25 gm and oven dry weight = 20 gm.

a)

25%

b)

20%

c)

15%

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

98.

Calculate the volumetric moisture content of a soil sample if its fresh weight = 25 gm, oven dry weight = 20 gm and bulk density = 1.2 g/cm31.2\ \text{g/cm}^3 .

a)

30%

b)

24%

c)

20%

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

99.

Soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is:

a)

Hard

b)

Friable

c)

Plastic

d)

Viscous

100.

Lowland rice land is prepared to have a soil consistency that is:

a)

Hard

b)

Friable

c)

Plastic

d)

Viscous

101.

Bacteria belong to this factor of soil formation.

a)

Climate

b)

Living organisms

c)

Time

d)

Parent material

102.

Horizontal layers of soil differentiation.

a)

Concretions

b)

Structure

c)

Horizons

d)

Hardpans

103.

A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock.

a)

Profile

b)

Parent material

c)

Pedon

d)

Aquifer

104.

Mature soil have the following horizons:

a)

AB

b)

ABC

c)

BC

d)

AC

105.

Young soils have the following horizons:

a)

AB

b)

ABC

c)

ABCD

d)

AC

106.

The solum is composed of these horizons:

a)

ABC

b)

BC

c)

ABCR

d)

AB

107.

The regolith is composed of these horizons:

a)

AB

b)

BC

c)

ABC

d)

ABCR

108.

The topsoil usually refers to this horizon:

a)

AB

b)

A

c)

E

d)

C

109.

The subsoil usually refers to this horizon:

a)

AB

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

110.

Blocks of soil from each horizon pasted on a hard board.

a)

Regolith

b)

Monolith

c)

Litolith

d)

Pedon

111.

The government agency in charge of the survey and classification of soils in the Philippines.

a)

BPI

b)

BSWM

c)

NAFC

d)

DPWH

112.

Basis for mapping the distribution of Philippine soils.

a)

Soil series/type

b)

Soil order

c)

Soil Family

d)

Great Group

113.

A group of soils which developed from the same parent material and whose profile characteristics are the same.

a)

Soil Order

b)

Soil Series

c)

Soil Family

d)

Great Group

114.

Soil profile characteristic important to a civil engineer:

a)

Color

b)

Structure

c)

Texture

d)

Microbial population

115.

Soil profile characteristic important to a biologist:

a)

Roots and faunal activity signs

b)

Color

c)

Texture

d)

Bulk density

116.

Standard reference system for soil color.

a)

Soil Taxonomy

b)

Soil map

c)

Soil survey report

d)

Munsell color chart

117.

Soil color description.

a)

Hue, value, chroma

b)

Tint, lightness, mixture

c)

Shade, reflection

d)

Intensity

118.

Describes darkness or lightness of a soil color.

a)

Hue

b)

Value

c)

Chroma

d)

Intensity

119.

Sign of poor drainage

a)

Yellowish mottles

b)

Bluish gray mottles

c)

Reddish concretion

d)

Reddish orange mottles

120.

Natural soil aggregates.

a)

Crumbs

b)

Clods

c)

Peds

d)

Pebbles

121.

A simple test for limestone parent materials.

a)

H2SO4 reaction

b)

HCl reaction

c)

Brittleness

d)

Stickyness

122.

Structureless soil:

a)

Granular

b)

Crumb

c)

Prismatic

d)

Massive/single-grained

123.

Soils with no diagnostic horizons:

a)

Entisols

b)

Mollisols

c)

Oxisols

d)

Alfisols

124.

Broadest category of soil taxonomy:

a)

Great Group

b)

Sub order

c)

Order

d)

Family

125.

Soils which are predominantly montmorillonitic:

a)

Vertisols

b)

Entisols

c)

Inceptisols

d)

Histosols

126.

The Haber Bosch process for making N fertilizer.

a)

N2 + N2O → NH3

b)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

c)

N2 + 2O2 → NO3

d)

N2 + H2O → NO3

127.

The highest analysis (grade) solid N fertilizer.

a)

Ammonium sulfate

b)

Anhydrous ammonia

c)

Urea

d)

Ammonium nitrate

128.

The reaction during biological N fixation.

a)

N2 → NH3

b)

N2 + H2O → amino acid

c)

N2 + H2O → protein

d)

N2 + H2 → ammonium sulfate

129.

The enzyme needed to transform urea to (NH4)2CO3 in soil.

a)

Carboxylase

b)

Anhydrase

c)

Urease

d)

Papase

130.

The weak acid formed upon hydrolysis and subsequent reaction of urea in soils.

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Carbonic acid

c)

Uric acid

d)

Silicic acid

131.

The other essential nutrient element present in ammonium sulfate but absent in urea.

a)

Calcium

b)

Sulfur

c)

Iron

d)

Magnesium

132.

The percent N, P2O5, and K2O in a fertilizer is:

a)

Fertilizer ratio

b)

Fertilizer grade

c)

Fertilizer recommendation

d)

Fertilizer brand

133.

A single-element or straight fertilizer.

a)

Complete fertilizer (14-14-14)

b)

Ammonium phosphate

c)

Urea

d)

All of the above

134.

The fertilizer nutrients that are generally applied all at planting time (basal).

a)

N and P

b)

P and K

c)

N and K

d)

P and Ca

135.

The fertilizer nutrients which are usually split applied.

a)

N and K

b)

P and K

c)

N and P

d)

N and S

136.

The available form of nitrogen.

a)

N2

b)

N2O

c)

NH4+

d)

NH3

137.

Enzyme in nitrogen transformation in legumes.

a)

Nitrogenase

b)

Dehydrogenase

c)

Decarboxylase

d)

Anhydrase

138.

This ratio determines mineralization rate of organic matter.

a)

N/S

b)

C/N

c)

P/N

d)

N/K

139.

Application of N fertilizer in alkaline soils causes.

a)

NH3 volatilization

b)

Nitrification

c)

Denitrification

d)

Mineralization

140.

This is an acid forming reaction of NH4+.

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Ammonification

d)

Mineralization

141.

This metal ion is usually present in toxic amounts in strongly acid soils.

a)

Aluminum

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Magnesium

142.

Binding of an organic compound and a metal ion.

a)

Coordination

b)

Complexation

c)

Chelation

d)

Oxidation

143.

Most micronutrients become less available at:

a)

Decreasing soil pH

b)

Increasing pH

c)

Neutral pH

d)

Strongly acid pH

144.

When nutrients are immobile, deficiency first shows up in:

a)

Youngest leaves

b)

Oldest leaves

c)

Senescent leaves

d)

Stems

145.

Deficiency of these elements causes chlorosis.

a)

N and Ca

b)

P and Ca

c)

N and S

d)

Fe and Cl

146.

Deficiency of sulfur first shows up as chlorosis of:

a)

Oldest leaves

b)

Youngest leaves

c)

Middle leaves

d)

Stems

147.

The suitable fertilizer for an alkaline N deficient soil.

a)

Anhydrous NH3

b)

Urea

c)

Calcium nitrate

d)

Ammonium sulfate

148.

The appropriate N fertilizer for a sulfur deficient soil.

a)

Urea

b)

Ammonium nitrate

c)

Potassium nitrate

d)

Ammonium sulfate

149.

Application of fertilizer at planting.

a)

Topdressing

b)

Foliar

c)

Band

d)

Basal

150.

Application of fertilizer after plant emergence.

a)

Basal

b)

Topdressing

c)

Foliar

d)

Deep placement

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