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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the module introduction on industrial safety, what is identified as the primary objective of industrial safety?

a)

To increase production

b)

To prevent accidents and injuries

c)

To reduce workforce

d)

To improve profit margins

2.

Which option is presented as a direct cause of an industrial accident in the introduction to industrial safety?

a)

Unsafe act

b)

Good housekeeping

c)

Adequate training

d)

Proper supervision

3.

In an organization’s safety framework described in the module, who is primarily responsible for implementing the safety policy?

a)

Workers

b)

Safety Officer

c)

Suppliers

d)

Visitors

4.

In the given safety terminology, what does an "unsafe condition" refer to?

a)

A situation likely to cause harm

b)

A safe working environment

c)

A company policy

d)

A training session

5.

If an organization wants to align with the stated primary objective of industrial safety, which initiative most directly supports that objective?

a)

Increasing output quotas to meet demand

b)

Implementing hazard identification and control

c)

Reducing staffing to cut costs

d)

Expanding marketing campaigns for products

6.

Based on the listed direct causes of accidents, which action would most likely reduce the occurrence of the identified cause?

a)

Establishing strict disciplinary policies for tardiness

b)

Training workers to recognize and avoid unsafe acts

c)

Outsourcing non-core tasks to suppliers

d)

Increasing visitor access to shop floors

7.

Given the roles outlined, which scenario best illustrates the Safety Officer’s primary responsibility?

a)

Approving vendor contracts for raw materials

b)

Drafting and enforcing the organization’s safety policy

c)

Designing product packaging for retail

d)

Scheduling visitor tours of the facility

8.

Which choice best distinguishes an unsafe condition from a safe working environment using the module’s definition?

a)

A clear evacuation route with illuminated signage

b)

A machine guard missing on a high-speed press

c)

A properly labeled chemical storage cabinet

d)

Routine housekeeping checks completed daily

9.

When investigating an incident described as caused by a direct factor, which focal point is most consistent with the module’s framing?

a)

Assessing marketing strategy for the product line

b)

Reviewing worker behavior for unsafe acts

c)

Evaluating supplier delivery timelines

d)

Analyzing visitor feedback forms

10.

Which policy priority most closely aligns with the module’s stated objective for industrial safety outcomes?

a)

Maximizing profit margins through overtime

b)

Preventing accidents and injuries through systematic controls

c)

Reducing workforce via automation alone

d)

Improving production speed without safety checks

11.

In safety management, what is the best definition of a hazard?

a)

A situation likely to cause harm

b)

A completed risk assessment report

c)

A routine checklist item

d)

A minor inconvenience without consequences

12.

What is the primary purpose of theories of accident causation in organizations?

a)

To reduce productivity by slowing operations

b)

To analyze and prevent accidents using causal models

c)

To prepare financial reports for quarterly audits

d)

To recruit employees based on safety credentials

13.

The safety committee in an organization is formed mainly to:

a)

Supervise workers in daily tasks

b)

Enforce discipline through penalties

c)

Promote and monitor safety across operations

d)

Increase production output directly

14.

Which option best describes a dangerous occurrence?

a)

An event causing injury to personnel

b)

A near‑miss event with potential for injury

c)

A routine inspection by supervisors

d)

Daily maintenance performed by technicians

15.

How are safety and productivity best characterized in organizational contexts?

a)

Independent with no interaction

b)

Mutually exclusive and cannot coexist

c)

Interdependent and reinforcing

d)

Opposing concepts in constant conflict

16.

Which department plays a crucial role in safety promotion within an organization?

a)

Finance department focusing on budgets

b)

Maintenance department scheduling repairs

c)

Management department providing leadership and policy

d)

External suppliers managing equipment

17.

A near‑miss event is significant primarily because it:

a)

Confirms that controls are unnecessary

b)

Indicates potential for injury and system weakness

c)

Documents routine operations for archives

d)

Eliminates the need for inspections

18.

Applying accident causation theories can most directly help an organization to:

a)

Identify root causes and implement preventive controls

b)

Accelerate production quotas regardless of risk

c)

Replace safety committees with external auditors

d)

Shift all accountability to maintenance staff

19.

What is the most effective role of a safety committee when promoting safety culture?

a)

Issuing fines without guidance

b)

Monitoring safety metrics and facilitating improvements

c)

Limiting communication to monthly memos

d)

Delegating all safety tasks to one department

20.

If safety and productivity are interdependent, which strategic implication follows for leadership?

a)

Investing in safety will undermine productivity

b)

Balancing safety with productivity requires trade‑offs only

c)

Strengthening safety systems can enhance reliable productivity

d)

Productivity targets should ignore safety considerations

21.

Which department is identified as responsible for organizational functions related to safety oversight in the provided context?

a)

Finance

b)

Operations

c)

Management

d)

Marketing

22.

What is the primary purpose of a safety policy as stated?

a)

To set guidelines for accident reporting

b)

To define the organization’s safety commitment

c)

To manage employee salaries

d)

To maintain attendance records

23.

According to the material, the main goal of industrial safety is to:

a)

Reduce production cost

b)

Increase downtime

c)

Prevent accidents and injuries

d)

Improve machinery speed

24.

An unsafe act is best defined as:

a)

A violation of safety rules by a worker

b)

A mechanical fault in a machine

c)

A dangerous workplace condition

d)

An unavoidable accident

25.

Which of the following is NOT a function of a safety committee?

a)

Accident prevention

b)

Promoting safety awareness

c)

Replacing top management

d)

Investigating accidents

26.

A reportable accident refers to:

a)

Any minor injury

b)

Only fatal accidents

c)

Any accident requiring official reporting

d)

A property damage only incident

27.

The role of management in safety includes:

a)

Ignoring unsafe conditions

b)

Ensuring compliance and providing resources

c)

Punishing workers for injuries

d)

Delegating safety to workers only

28.

Which of the following agencies is voluntary in nature, according to the context provided?

a)

Directorate of Industrial Safety

b)

Factory Inspectorate

c)

A professional safety association

d)

Occupational health statutory authority

29.

Reasoning based on the provided definitions: If a worker bypasses a lockout-tagout procedure leading to near-miss injuries, how should this behavior be classified?

a)

Unsafe act due to rule violation

b)

Unsafe condition due to equipment defect

c)

Unavoidable accident outside control

d)

Reportable accident only if fatal

30.

Strategic application: Management wants to reduce injury rates. Based on the stated role of management in safety, which initial step aligns best with the guidance?

a)

Increase production targets to motivate vigilance

b)

Ensure compliance and allocate resources for safety programs

c)

Replace the safety committee with top management

d)

Focus reporting only on property damage incidents

31.

According to the material, a Safety Policy should include which key element?

a)

Production targets

b)

Salary structures

c)

Management commitment to safety

d)

List of daily tasks

32.

Theories of accident causation primarily help organizations to do which of the following?

a)

Reduce safety investment

b)

Identify root causes of accidents

c)

Increase work pressure

d)

Avoid audits

33.

Which option is identified as an example of an unsafe condition?

a)

Ignoring warning signs

b)

Wet floor near machinery

c)

Wearing PPE

d)

Following procedure

34.

Who is responsible for enforcing the safety policy according to the text?

a)

Government

b)

Supervisor

c)

Safety Officer

d)

All of the above

35.

Which law governs safety and health in Indian factories?

a)

The Factories Act, 1948

b)

The Labor Act, 1965

c)

The OSHA Act, 1970

d)

The Safety Code, 1999

36.

ISO 45001:2018 relates to which domain?

a)

Environmental management

b)

Occupational health and safety management

c)

Quality management systems

d)

Information security management

37.

Choose the most appropriate rationale for including management commitment in a Safety Policy.

a)

It ensures production quotas are met faster.

b)

It signals leadership prioritizes safety culture across operations.

c)

It replaces the need for training and PPE.

d)

It allows audits to be skipped when targets are achieved.

38.

Select the best application of accident causation theories for improving workplace safety.

a)

Using them to justify budget cuts to safety programs

b)

Applying them to trace contributing factors and prevent recurrence

c)

Focusing solely on individual negligence without system analysis

d)

Delaying incident reporting to gather more data

39.

Identify the most effective immediate control for the unsafe condition described as a wet floor near machinery.

a)

Posting a general safety slogan in the break room

b)

Issuing a memo about punctuality

c)

Implementing spill cleanup and slip-resistant controls in the area

d)

Scheduling a social event to boost morale

40.

Which combination best reflects a shared responsibility model for enforcing safety policy?

a)

Only Government agencies with statutory power

b)

Only Supervisors at the line level

c)

Only dedicated Safety Officers

d)

Government, Supervisors, and Safety Officers working together

41.

According to the summarized content, which domain is the primary focus of the discussed standards and practices?

a)

Financial auditing procedures

b)

Occupational health and safety

c)

Product quality management systems

d)

Human resources compensation policies

42.

Which element is highlighted as central to the Factories Act, 1948 in the material?

a)

Tax compliance and financial reporting

b)

Employee bonuses and incentives

c)

Health, safety, and welfare

d)

Marketing and public relations

43.

IS 14489:1998 is specified in the content as relating to which activity?

a)

Environmental impact assessment

b)

Occupational safety and health audit

c)

Industrial equipment procurement

d)

Emergency medical services coordination

44.

Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis (HIRA) is described as part of which broader category?

a)

Product quality control frameworks

b)

Risk management standards

c)

Corporate financial analysis

d)

Sales and marketing strategies

45.

Which organization is indicated as issuing national safety standards in India?

a)

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)

b)

World Health Organization (WHO)

c)

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

d)

International Labour Organization (ILO)

46.

Which code of practice is noted as relating to hazard identification in the material?

a)

Code of practice for financial audits

b)

Code of practice for hazard identification

c)

Code of practice for employee benefits

d)

Code of practice for marketing compliance

47.

In the context provided, the Factories Act, 1948 most directly supports which workplace outcome?

a)

Enhanced tax deductions for factories

b)

Structured employee wellness through safety and welfare

c)

Accelerated marketing approvals for industrial goods

d)

Standardized payroll disbursement schedules

48.

Within the scope of IS 14489:1998, which activity would be most aligned with compliance?

a)

Conducting scheduled occupational safety and health audits

b)

Negotiating supplier contracts for machinery

c)

Preparing quarterly financial statements

d)

Designing a marketing campaign for safety gear

49.

Based on the material, HIRA contributes primarily to which organizational function?

a)

Evaluating brand recognition in target markets

b)

Identifying hazards and aligning with risk management standards

c)

Estimating depreciation of industrial assets

d)

Calculating tax liabilities under corporate law

50.

Which body, as indicated, would you reference for nationally recognized safety standards in India?

a)

ISO technical committees for international norms

b)

BIS for Indian national standards

c)

ILO conventions for labor rights

d)

WHO guidance for public health programs

51.

Which Indian Standard specifies safety requirements for mobile elevating work platforms as cited in the material?

a)

IS 15656:2006

b)

IS 1200:1992

c)

IS 875:2008

d)

IS 2345:2001

52.

Which international organization is identified as promoting global occupational safety standards?

a)

ILO

b)

UNESCO

c)

WHO

d)

FAO

53.

According to the material, which document defines welfare provisions for workers within industrial settings?

a)

Factories Act

b)

ISO Manual

c)

OSHA Guidelines

d)

HR Handbook

54.

What is the primary aim of an occupational safety audit as stated in the content?

a)

Ensure financial compliance

b)

Evaluate safety management systems

c)

Train accountants

d)

Replace safety officers

55.

The Factories Act, 1948 is mainly concerned with which of the following areas?

a)

Taxation

b)

Industrial health, safety, and welfare

c)

Production increase

d)

Employee bonuses

56.

ISO 45001:2018 primarily addresses which management system domain?

a)

Food Safety Management

b)

Environmental Management

c)

Occupational Health and Safety Management

d)

Quality Management

57.

Given the stated aim of safety audits, which conclusion best aligns with their role in continuous improvement?

a)

Audits prioritize cutting operational costs over safety outcomes

b)

Audits systematically assess safety management systems to identify improvements

c)

Audits are designed to replace frontline safety personnel with automated tools

d)

Audits mainly verify adherence to tax regulations

58.

Which pairing correctly matches the organization or act to its scope as presented?

a)

ILO — environmental conservation directives

b)

Factories Act — industrial health, safety, and welfare provisions

c)

ISO 45001 — food hygiene protocols

d)

WHO — machinery design standards

59.

Based on the material, which policy document would you consult to determine minimum sanitation and welfare facilities in a manufacturing plant?

a)

ISO 9001 Quality Manual

b)

Factories Act

c)

Company Marketing Policy

d)

UNESCO Cultural Charter

60.

Which standard would be most appropriate to reference when evaluating worker safety management systems rather than product quality systems?

a)

ISO 45001:2018

b)

ISO 22000:2018

c)

ISO 14001:2015

d)

IS 1200:1992

61.

IS 14489:1998 primarily relates to which occupational health and safety practice?

a)

Firefighting techniques

b)

Safety audits

c)

Risk insurance

d)

Disaster management plans

62.

Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis (HIRA) aims to:

a)

Eliminate hazards completely

b)

Identify and evaluate workplace risks

c)

Create a safety committee

d)

Reduce salaries

63.

Under the Factories Act, which welfare measures are ensured?

a)

Leave policies only

b)

Canteens, restrooms, and first aid

c)

Bonus and gratuity

d)

Worker insurance only

64.

What is the main objective of safety standards?

a)

Increase work pressure

b)

Maintain uniform safety practices

c)

Decrease documentation

d)

Promote unregulated work

65.

IS 15656:2006 is a code of practice for:

a)

Hazard identification and risk analysis

b)

Fire safety management

c)

Personal Protective Equipment

d)

Disaster relief

66.

Safety signs are classified into which categories?

a)

Prohibition, Warning, Mandatory, and Emergency

b)

Informative and decorative

c)

Color-based only

d)

Temporary and permanent

67.

Which standard emphasizes continual improvement in Occupational Health & Safety (OH&S)?

a)

ISO 9001

b)

ISO 45001

c)

IS 14489

d)

IS 15656

68.

Which of the following best describes the role of HIRA in an OH&S management system?

a)

A periodic audit checklist for compliance

b)

A method to identify hazards and assess risks to prioritize controls

c)

A financial tool for calculating insurance premiums

d)

A training module for emergency drills

69.

Select the statement that aligns with the objective of safety standards across workplaces.

a)

They standardize documentation volume across departments

b)

They maintain uniform safety practices to reduce variability and risk

c)

They primarily focus on increasing productivity through overtime

d)

They remove the need for welfare facilities

70.

In the context of safety signs, which grouping correctly captures their functional categories used in workplaces?

a)

Mandatory, Decorative, Temporary, and Color-only

b)

Prohibition, Warning, Mandatory, and Emergency

c)

Restroom, Canteen, First Aid, and Insurance

d)

Informative, Inspective, and Financial

71.

Risk assessment primarily aims to do which of the following?

a)

Eliminate hazard source

b)

Identify and control potential risks

c)

Assign safety officers

d)

Design layout

72.

In workplace safety practices, what is the main purpose of a toolbox talk?

a)

Discuss production targets

b)

Review daily safety procedures

c)

Assign overtime

d)

Handle employee grievances

73.

Mock drills are conducted chiefly to achieve which outcome?

a)

Train workers for emergencies

b)

Increase profits

c)

Reduce insurance costs

d)

Improve attendance

74.

Within the safety governance structure described, who leads the safety committee?

a)

HR manager

b)

Safety officer

c)

Senior technician

d)

Supervisor

75.

According to the listed activities, which statement best describes the focus of risk assessment compared to toolbox talks?

a)

Risk assessment allocates staff while toolbox talks set production targets

b)

Risk assessment designs layouts while toolbox talks handle grievances

c)

Risk assessment identifies and controls risks while toolbox talks review procedures

d)

Risk assessment reduces insurance costs while toolbox talks improve attendance

76.

Which activity is most directly intended to prepare personnel for unexpected events?

a)

Toolbox talk

b)

Mock drill

c)

Safety committee meeting

d)

Risk assessment

77.

Select the option that best aligns the leader with the activity they oversee in the described framework.

a)

HR manager — toolbox talks

b)

Safety officer — safety committee

c)

Senior technician — risk assessment

d)

Supervisor — mock drills

78.

Which statement is most accurate about the scope of a toolbox talk versus a mock drill?

a)

Toolbox talks provide emergency simulations; mock drills review daily procedures

b)

Toolbox talks review procedures; mock drills simulate emergency training

c)

Both toolbox talks and mock drills focus on assigning overtime

d)

Mock drills and toolbox talks primarily aim to increase profits

79.

In planning a safety program, which sequence best aligns with the purposes given: assessment, communication, practice?

a)

Mock drill → toolbox talk → risk assessment

b)

Risk assessment → toolbox talk → mock drill

c)

Toolbox talk → mock drill → safety committee

d)

Safety committee → risk assessment → toolbox talk

80.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a purpose or leader within the provided safety activities?

a)

Safety training to improve attendance

b)

Mock drills to train for emergencies

c)

Toolbox talks to review procedures

d)

Safety officer leading the safety committee

81.

Which initiative specifically aims to build safety awareness and skills among employees?

a)

Improve work speed

b)

Build safety awareness and skills

c)

Reduce workforce size

d)

Improve marketing

82.

Human error assessment primarily helps in which activity?

a)

Evaluating machine design

b)

Identifying operator mistakes

c)

Reducing wages

d)

Increasing work hours

83.

Which list correctly represents the 5S of housekeeping?

a)

Sorting, set in order, shine, standardize, sustain

b)

Simplify, standardize, save, sustain, sort

c)

Sort, simplify, save, standardize, shine

d)

Simplify, shine, store, sort, sustain

84.

Monitoring safety performance commonly involves calculating which metrics?

a)

Profit rate

b)

Frequency and severity rate

c)

Tax rate

d)

Recruitment rate

85.

The main purpose of safety posters and displays is to:

a)

Advertise company products

b)

Motivate employees on safety

c)

Record daily output

d)

Monitor time logs

86.

Select the best description of the ‘Set in order’ step within 5S.

a)

Arrange tools and materials so they are easy to find and return

b)

Eliminate all non-essential equipment from the workplace

c)

Establish visual standards for cleaning frequencies

d)

Create a schedule to sustain audits across departments

87.

Which outcome would most directly result from calculating both frequency and severity rates?

a)

Understanding tax liabilities of incidents

b)

Quantifying how often injuries occur and how serious they are

c)

Estimating marketing impact of safety campaigns

d)

Determining the number of employees to recruit

88.

In the context of human error assessment, which choice best aligns with the primary goal stated?

a)

To redesign wage structures

b)

To identify operator mistakes for targeted interventions

c)

To expand working hours to boost output

d)

To compare brands of machinery

89.

Which action aligns with the stated purpose of safety posters and displays?

a)

Tracking time per task to inform payroll

b)

Encouraging adherence to safety practices through visual reminders

c)

Promoting new consumer products to external audiences

d)

Recording equipment maintenance intervals

90.

Which sequence places the 5S elements in their correct order, matching the exact terms provided?

a)

Sort, set in order, shine, standardize, sustain

b)

Set in order, sort, shine, sustain, standardize

c)

Sort, shine, set in order, sustain, standardize

d)

Shine, sort, standardize, set in order, sustain

91.

According to the material, on-site emergency plans are required for which scenario?

a)

Natural disasters

b)

Factory accidents and fire

c)

Office parties

d)

Staff recruitment

92.

Off-site emergency plans are primarily coordinated with which parties?

a)

Fire department and local authorities

b)

Employees only

c)

HR team

d)

Suppliers

93.

Toolbox talks are conducted to achieve which primary purpose?

a)

Train workers on job-specific safety topics

b)

Discuss production rates

c)

Review payrolls

d)

Allocate shifts

94.

What is the primary role of the Safety Committee?

a)

Conducts recruitment

b)

Encourages participation in safety programs

c)

Sets marketing goals

d)

Handles finance

95.

How often should safety training be conducted, according to the material?

a)

Only for new employees

b)

Regularly for all employees

c)

Only after an accident

d)

Once a year

96.

Mock drills are used to test which capability?

a)

Worker skills

b)

Emergency preparedness

c)

Production targets

d)

Shift timings

97.

The frequency rate measures which of the following?

a)

Number of hours lost

b)

Number of incidents occurring over a period

c)

Average time between drills

d)

Percentage of employees trained

98.

Which statement best distinguishes on-site from off-site emergency planning based on the material?

a)

On-site planning focuses on routine HR tasks, off-site involves suppliers.

b)

On-site planning addresses factory accidents and fire, off-site is coordinated with external authorities.

c)

On-site planning addresses natural disasters only, off-site is internal.

d)

On-site planning is optional, off-site is mandatory.

99.

Choose the statement that aligns with the purpose of toolbox talks.

a)

They are meetings to determine shift schedules.

b)

They are brief sessions that train workers on job-specific safety topics.

c)

They are audits of financial expenditures.

d)

They are discussions about marketing campaigns.

100.

Which practice supports a culture of safety according to the content?

a)

Conduct safety training only for new hires.

b)

Hold mock drills to evaluate emergency preparedness.

c)

Limit safety committee tasks to finance.

d)

Coordinate off-site plans with employees only.

101.

Which metric is explicitly identified as a safety performance measure rather than a production metric?

a)

Production speed

b)

Number of safety audits

c)

Number of injuries per working hours

d)

Shift rotation

102.

In the 5S framework of housekeeping, which element is NOT included among the five S’s?

a)

Sort

b)

Shine

c)

Safety

d)

Sustain

103.

The On-site Emergency Plan is implemented primarily for which purpose?

a)

Only after an accident

b)

To handle emergencies within the plant

c)

For community awareness programs

d)

For routine operations

104.

Human error assessment most directly contributes to which outcome in a safety program?

a)

Improving safety training

b)

Reducing machine speed

c)

Increasing costs

d)

Reducing manpower

105.

According to the material, good housekeeping most directly improves which aspect?

a)

Morale and productivity

b)

Sales only

c)

Shift rotation

d)

Reporting time

106.

Management’s role in safety monitoring includes which activity?

a)

Conducting safety reviews

b)

Reducing manpower

c)

Hiring only skilled labor

d)

Ignoring safety audits

107.

Which option is a mechanical hazard as categorized under Hazards and Risks?

a)

Moving machinery parts

b)

Electric shock

c)

Chemical exposure

d)

Thermal radiation

108.

Choose the statement that best aligns with proactive safety management principles described:

a)

Emergency plans should be prepared only after incidents occur.

b)

Safety audits are unrelated to injury rates.

c)

Human error assessment informs targeted training improvements.

d)

Housekeeping practices focus solely on aesthetic shine.

109.

If a plant aims to lower its number of injuries per working hours, which of the following actions is most consistent with the guidance provided?

a)

Increase production speed to minimize exposure time.

b)

Conduct safety reviews as part of management monitoring.

c)

Reduce manpower to simplify supervision.

d)

Ignore safety audits to avoid disruption.

110.

Which interpretation of 5S is most accurate based on the description provided?

a)

It explicitly lists Safety as one of the S’s along with Sort, Shine, and Sustain.

b)

It includes Sort, Shine, and Sustain; Safety is not one of the original five S’s.

c)

It replaces Shine with Safety to emphasize risk reduction.

d)

It focuses on community awareness rather than workplace organization.

111.

Which hazard is most directly associated with unguarded equipment in an industrial setting?

a)

Moving machinery parts

b)

Noise exposure

c)

Radiation

d)

Biological agents

112.

Improper wiring primarily presents which type of hazard?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Biological

d)

Ergonomic

113.

Which practice increases the likelihood of a fire?

a)

Storing flammable materials near heat

b)

Keeping exits open and unobstructed

c)

Maintaining proper ventilation in work areas

d)

Conducting regular fire training

114.

On what basis are fire extinguishers classified?

a)

Type of fire

b)

Size of cylinder

c)

Weight of the extinguisher

d)

Duration of spray

115.

Which control is most effective for mitigating noise hazards?

a)

Using silencers and ear protection

b)

Increasing work hours to acclimate workers

c)

Playing background music to mask noise

d)

Avoiding PPE to improve communication

116.

A musculoskeletal disorder is most likely caused by which workplace factor?

a)

Poor ergonomic design and repetitive strain

b)

Short exposure to moderate noise

c)

Occasional contact with disinfectants

d)

Brief exposure to low-level radiation

117.

Which scenario best illustrates a mechanical hazard?

a)

Exposed conveyor belt with pinch points

b)

Overloaded electrical circuit

c)

Improper storage of solvents near a heater

d)

Prolonged typing without wrist support

118.

Which prevention strategy aligns with electrical hazard control?

a)

Routine inspection and proper insulation of wiring

b)

Adding more flammable storage cabinets near heat sources

c)

Issuing only earplugs to all workers

d)

Encouraging manual lifting without aids

119.

Which statement best differentiates fire classes for extinguisher selection?

a)

Classes correspond to the fuel type involved in the fire

b)

Classes are determined by the weight of the extinguisher

c)

Classes depend on the ambient temperature of the room

d)

Classes are based on the operator’s experience level

120.

Which immediate action most reduces injury risk when working near powered machinery?

a)

Install guards and follow lockout/tagout procedures

b)

Increase music volume to maintain alertness

c)

Reduce the number of posted warning signs

d)

Wear loose clothing to stay comfortable

121.

Which condition is most commonly associated with ergonomic injury in a workstation setting?

a)

Repetitive motion and poor posture

b)

Chemical exposure to solvents

c)

Electric shock from equipment

d)

Heat radiation from furnaces

122.

What is a primary method to reduce ergonomic hazards in a workplace?

a)

Proper workstation design

b)

Reducing rest breaks

c)

Increasing production quotas

d)

Ignoring signs of fatigue

123.

Which index is specifically used to assess the risk of fire and explosion in industrial environments?

a)

Fire and explosion index

b)

Profit index

c)

Audit checklist score

d)

Production record

124.

In safety management terminology, what does an "unsafe act" refer to?

a)

Violation of safety procedures

b)

Following standard operating procedures

c)

Wearing personal protective equipment

d)

Attending safety meetings

125.

Which type of personal protective equipment is designed to protect against respiratory hazards such as fumes and dust?

a)

Helmet

b)

Gloves

c)

Respirator

d)

Safety boots

126.

A workstation redesign includes adjustable chairs, monitor height alignment, and neutral wrist positioning. Which hazard category is this redesign targeting?

a)

Ergonomic hazards

b)

Thermal hazards

c)

Electrical hazards

d)

Chemical hazards

127.

A plant manager compares several departments using a standardized metric to quantify potential combustion risk. Which metric should be used?

a)

Fire and explosion index

b)

Quality control index

c)

Employee satisfaction index

d)

Energy consumption index

128.

During a safety audit, an employee bypasses a machine guard to speed up work. How is this behavior classified?

a)

Unsafe act

b)

Near miss

c)

Incident report

d)

Permitted variance

129.

To address frequent wrist strain among data-entry staff, which intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Install ergonomic keyboards and adjust desk height

b)

Increase mandatory overtime

c)

Provide thicker chemical-resistant gloves

d)

Add more space heaters to the office

130.

For tasks involving airborne particulates, which control is most directly protective for the worker’s lungs when engineering controls are insufficient?

a)

Respirator

b)

Ear plugs

c)

Face shield

d)

Steel-toe boots

131.

According to the provided definitions, what is a hazard?

a)

A potential source of harm

b)

An unavoidable event

c)

A safety measure

d)

A rule violation

132.

Which option best represents a mechanical hazard?

a)

Electrical shock

b)

Moving machinery parts

c)

Noise exposure

d)

Poor posture

133.

Fire caused by electrical equipment is classified under which fire class?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

134.

What does PPE stand for in workplace safety?

a)

Personal Performance Equipment

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Public Protection Establishment

d)

Personal Protection Evaluation

135.

Ergonomics primarily focuses on which area?

a)

Machine design

b)

Work environment design to fit workers

c)

Production planning

d)

Marketing

136.

Which is an example of an unsafe condition?

a)

Slippery floor

b)

Running on site

c)

Lack of training

d)

Wrong attitude

137.

Which agent is recommended for extinguishing electrical fires?

a)

Water

b)

Foam

c)

CO₂

d)

Sand

138.

REBA is an assessment tool. What does REBA stand for?

a)

Rapid Entire Body Assessment

b)

Risk Evaluation and Behavior Analysis

c)

Radiation Exposure Body Assessment

d)

Rapid Ergonomic Benchmark Assessment

139.

A safety manager is choosing equipment for a task involving live wiring. Based on classification, which fire class should be considered in the risk plan?

a)

Class A, for ordinary combustibles like paper

b)

Class B, for flammable liquids only

c)

Class C, for energized electrical equipment

d)

Class D, for reactive metals like magnesium

140.

A facility reports frequent wrist strain among data-entry staff. Which domain would directly address workstation layout to fit the worker?

a)

Industrial marketing

b)

Ergonomics focusing on work environment design

c)

Hazard analysis of mechanical parts only

d)

Fire safety planning for Class D incidents

141.

Which category of personal protective equipment includes electrical insulating gloves?

a)

Hand protection

b)

Head protection

c)

Body protection

d)

Foot protection

142.

Fire-resistant clothing (FRC) primarily protects against which hazard?

a)

Burns and ignition hazards

b)

Noise exposure

c)

Ergonomic stress

d)

Radiation only

143.

Job Safety Analysis (JSA) focuses on which core objective?

a)

Production improvement

b)

Identifying job-related hazards

c)

HR management

d)

Marketing strategies

144.

Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA) is conducted to achieve which outcome?

a)

Identify potential hazards early

b)

Finalize project budgets

c)

Train workers

d)

Conduct financial audits

145.

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is primarily used to:

a)

Predict system failures

b)

Improve product marketing

c)

Reduce worker attendance

d)

Maintain records

146.

A worker is assigned to a task with potential arc-flash exposure. Which PPE selection aligns with the stated protection?

a)

Fire-resistant clothing (FRC) to mitigate ignition hazards

b)

Earplugs to address noise only

c)

Knee pads to reduce ergonomic stress

d)

Regular cotton clothing to disperse radiation

147.

When planning a new process, which technique should be applied first to systematically uncover hazards before detailed design?

a)

Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)

b)

Marketing strategy review

c)

Post-incident investigation

d)

Routine financial audit

148.

Which analysis method best supports proactively identifying how a component could fail and the effects of that failure?

a)

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

b)

Time-and-motion study

c)

Noise dosimetry survey

d)

Performance appraisal

149.

Select the most appropriate tool to break down a job into steps and pinpoint the hazards at each step.

a)

Job Safety Analysis (JSA)

b)

Capital budgeting

c)

Ergonomic seating assessment

d)

Customer satisfaction survey

150.

Which statement best distinguishes PHA from JSA in intent?

a)

PHA targets early-stage identification of potential hazards in processes; JSA focuses on hazards within specific job steps.

b)

JSA is used only for budgeting early projects; PHA documents HR policies.

c)

PHA measures noise exposure; JSA predicts system failures.

d)

JSA conducts financial audits; PHA manages marketing strategies.