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Chapter 14 Hypersensitivity_MEDL 201

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines hypersensitivity in immunology?

a)

A diminished immune response to a pathogenic antigen

b)

An exaggerated immune response to a typically harmless antigen that can cause tissue injury and disease

c)

A normal immune response that clears infectious agents without inflammation

d)

A genetic inability to recognize foreign antigens

2.

According to the material, which outcome is directly associated with hypersensitivity?

a)

Enhanced resistance to pathogens

b)

Autoimmune tolerance maintenance

c)

Tissue injury and disease

d)

Rapid wound healing without inflammation

3.

Match each hypersensitivity category with its typical reaction timing based on the instructional graphic.

a)

Type I

1.

Immediate: minutes to hours after antigen exposure

b)

Type II

2.

Immediate: minutes to hours after antigen exposure

c)

Type III

3.

Immediate: minutes to hours after antigen exposure

d)

Type IV

4.

Delayed: develops 24 to 48 hours after antigen exposure

4.

Which statement best defines Type I hypersensitivity based on the lecture notes?

a)

A delayed T-cell–mediated response occurring days after exposure

b)

An anaphylactic hypersensitivity typically thought of as allergies

c)

A complement-dependent cytotoxic reaction against self-antigens

d)

A serum sickness–type response driven by immune complexes

5.

Identify the component that binds to FcεRI receptors on mast cells and basophils during the sensitization phase.

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

Complement C3b

6.

Match each step of the sensitization phase to its correct description.

a)

APC function

1.

Processes allergens and presents them to Th cells

b)

Th2 role

2.

Induces production of allergen-specific IgE

c)

IgE interaction

3.

Binds to FcεRI receptors on mast cells and basophils

7.

During the activation phase of Type I hypersensitivity, which event initiates mast cell and basophil degranulation?

a)

Allergen cross-linking of adjacent cell-bound IgEs

b)

Th2 secretion of IL-2 and IFN-γ

c)

APC presentation of peptide on MHC I

d)

Formation of immune complexes depositing in tissues

8.

Select all statements that accurately describe the timing and key components associated with Type I hypersensitivity.

a)

Commonly occur within minutes after exposure to an allergen

b)

Primarily involve IgE, mast cells, and basophils

c)

Depend mainly on neutrophils and IgM

d)

Typically thought of as allergies

9.

Which sequence correctly outlines the sensitization phase?

a)

Mast cells release mediators → IgE produced → APC presents allergen

b)

APC presents allergen to Th cells → Th2 induces allergen-specific IgE → IgE binds FcεRI on mast cells/basophils

c)

Allergen cross-links IgE → Th2 activation → APC phagocytosis

d)

Complement activation → IgM binding → eosinophil degranulation

10.

In the activation phase, what is the immediate consequence of allergen cross-linking adjacent cell-bound IgEs?

a)

APCs increase antigen presentation to CD8+ T cells

b)

Mast cells and basophils degranulate, releasing chemical mediators

c)

IgE production ceases and tolerance is induced

d)

Immune complexes deposit and trigger complement

11.

Match each activation-phase event to its outcome.

a)

Allergen cross-linking of IgE

1.

Triggers degranulation

b)

Mast cell/basophil degranulation

2.

Produces allergy symptoms

c)

Mediator release and binding

3.

Acts on target organs

12.

Based on the listed common allergens, which option is a typical trigger for Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

Pollen

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Distilled water

d)

Vitamin C supplements

13.

Select all items that are recognized as common allergens implicated in Type I hypersensitivity.

a)

Mold spores

b)

Animal dander

c)

Dust mites

d)

Insect venom

e)

Granulated sugar

14.

Match each clinical manifestation of Type I hypersensitivity to its concise description.

a)

Rhinitis

1.

Seasonal nasal symptoms often called hay fever

b)

Allergic asthma

2.

Lower airway hyperreactivity with bronchoconstriction

c)

Urticaria

3.

Wheal-and-flare lesions on the skin known as hives

d)

Systemic anaphylaxis

4.

A potentially fatal, whole-body reaction

15.

Which clinical feature of urticaria is specifically highlighted in Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Wheal and flare

b)

Productive cough

c)

Purulent exudate

d)

Petechiae

16.

A patient rapidly develops hypotension, airway swelling, and diffuse rash after exposure to an allergen. Which Type I hypersensitivity manifestation best fits this presentation?

a)

Systemic anaphylaxis

b)

Eczema

c)

Rhinitis

d)

Contact dermatitis

17.

Which intervention is correctly categorized as drug therapy for Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Elimination diet only

c)

Cold compresses

d)

Surgical excision of the allergen source

18.

Select all pharmacologic agents that are included in drug therapy for Type I hypersensitivity.

a)

Bronchodilators

b)

Mast cell stabilizers

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Oral antibiotics for viral infections

19.

Which statement best describes allergy immunotherapy (AIT) in the management of Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Administer gradually increasing doses of the allergen

b)

Provide a single high dose of allergen to induce tolerance

c)

Avoidance is the only principle; AIT is contraindicated

d)

Replace IgE with IgM using plasma exchange

20.

In vivo testing for Type I hypersensitivity can be performed using which approaches to introduce allergens into the skin?

a)

Percutaneous or intradermal methods

b)

Oral ingestion challenge

c)

Intravenous allergen infusion

d)

Nasal provocation only

21.

During a standard skin test for Type I hypersensitivity, what procedural sequence is followed before interpreting results?

a)

Apply a panel of allergens to separate skin sites, then wait 15–20 minutes

b)

Apply a single allergen to one site, wait 2 hours

c)

Draw blood immediately after allergen application

d)

Wash the skin with alcohol and interpret immediately

22.

Which finding indicates a positive result in in vivo skin testing for Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Development of a wheal and flare at the application site

b)

A painless blanching without swelling

c)

No visible change after 30 minutes

d)

Diffuse erythema over the entire back

23.

Allergen-specific IgE testing is used for what primary purpose in evaluating Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Detect IgE directed to a specific allergen in patient serum

b)

Quantify mast cell numbers in tissue biopsies

c)

Measure total immunoglobulin concentrations across all isotypes

d)

Confirm complement activation by the classical pathway

24.

Match each assay type with what it detects.

a)

Percutaneous/intradermal skin test

1.

Wheal and flare response at the application site

b)

Allergen-specific IgE assay

2.

IgE directed against a defined allergen in serum

c)

Total IgE assay

3.

Overall concentration of IgE in serum

25.

Which statements correctly describe total IgE testing?

a)

Its known as the RadioImmunoSorbent Test

b)

Its known as the Radioallergosorbent Test

c)

It distinguishes which allergen the IgE targets by including antigen in the assay.

d)

It is conceptually different from allergen-specific testing because no defined antigen is required.

26.

A clinician wants to avoid potential systemic reactions from skin testing. Which alternative test provides evidence of sensitization without applying allergens to the skin?

a)

Serum allergen-specific IgE assay

b)

Percutaneous skin prick panel

c)

Intradermal injection testing

d)

Patch testing for contact dermatitis

27.

Which statement best defines Type II hypersensitivity in immunology?

a)

A T-cell–mediated delayed inflammatory response

b)

An antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity targeting cell surface antigens

c)

An IgE-driven immediate hypersensitivity against soluble allergens

d)

A complement-independent reaction that only affects viral particles

28.

Identify the key antibody components involved in Type II hypersensitivity.

a)

IgA and IgE

b)

IgG and IgM

c)

IgD and IgE

d)

IgA and IgG

29.

In Type II hypersensitivity, antibodies bound to cell surface antigens can lead to which effects on the target cell? Select all that apply.

a)

Cell destruction through cytotoxic mechanisms

b)

Inhibition of target-cell function

c)

Increase in target-cell function

d)

Induction of granuloma formation

30.

Match each mechanism of cell damage in Type II hypersensitivity with its description.

a)

Complement activation

1.

Classical pathway triggers lysis of the bound cell

b)

Opsonization

2.

Antibody coats the cell to enhance phagocytosis by macrophages

c)

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

3.

Fc receptor–bearing NK cells or macrophages kill the antibody-tagged cell

31.

Which process is correctly paired with its immune effector in Type II hypersensitivity?

a)

Opsonization — neutrophil Fc receptors recognizing IgE

b)

ADCC — NK cell Fc receptors engaging antibody-coated cells

c)

Complement activation — alternative pathway triggered by IgA

d)

Cell destruction — eosinophil degranulation via IL-5

32.

Which clinical scenario is most consistent with Type II hypersensitivity?

a)

Serum sickness due to immune complex deposition

b)

Contact dermatitis from poison ivy

c)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) due to maternal antibodies

d)

Anaphylaxis after peanut exposure mediated by IgE

33.

Which description best characterizes Type III hypersensitivity?

a)

Cell-mediated destruction by cytotoxic T cells

b)

Antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity against membrane-bound antigens

c)

Immune complex–mediated reaction where antigen–antibody complexes deposit in tissues

d)

Immediate mast cell degranulation triggered by IgE binding to allergens

34.

In Type III hypersensitivity, which immunoglobulins are the key components directed against a soluble antigen?

a)

IgA and IgE

b)

IgG and IgM

c)

IgD and IgA

d)

IgE and IgM

35.

Select all events that occur after small antigen–antibody complexes precipitate and deposit in tissues during Type III hypersensitivity.

a)

Complement binds to the complexes

b)

Vasodilation increases

c)

Vasopermeability decreases

d)

Neutrophils migrate to the affected area

e)

Lysosomal enzymes released cause tissue damage

36.

Which antigen form is typically targeted in Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

Cell-associated antigen fixed on membranes

b)

Soluble antigen circulating in fluid

c)

Hapten bound to carrier protein on cell surface

d)

Allogeneic MHC molecules on donor cells

37.

Match each clinical entity with its classification related to Type III hypersensitivity.

a)

Arthus reaction

1.

Local immune complex–mediated reaction

b)

Serum sickness

2.

Immune complex disease following exposure to foreign serum proteins

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

3.

Autoimmune disease with immune complex deposition

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

4.

Autoimmune disease with immune complexes in joints

38.

Which step most directly explains why tissue damage occurs in Type III hypersensitivity?

a)

IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation releases histamine

b)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes perforate target cells

c)

Activated macrophages phagocytose RBCs causing hemolysis

d)

Neutrophils and macrophages release lysosomal enzymes at sites of immune complex deposition

39.

A patient develops a painful, localized reaction after repeated antigen injection at the same site. Which mechanism best explains this Arthus reaction?

a)

Delayed-type hypersensitivity mediated by Th1 cells forming granulomas

b)

Immune complex precipitation in local tissues with complement activation

c)

Direct antibody binding to cell-surface antigens causing ADCC

d)

Immediate IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation in the skin

40.

Which sequence correctly orders key events in Type III hypersensitivity from initiation to tissue injury?

a)

Complement activation → immune complex deposition → neutrophil migration → enzyme release

b)

Soluble antigen binds IgG/IgM → small complexes precipitate in tissues → complement binds → vasodilation/vasopermeability increase → neutrophils migrate → lysosomal enzymes released

c)

Neutrophil migration → antigen recognition by TCR → cytokine release → complement activation

d)

IgE binding to FcεRI → allergen cross-linking → immediate degranulation → tissue damage