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Imaging I: Chpt 9-Radiographic Image Quality

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pair of factors directly contributes to the visibility of anatomic structures in a quality radiographic image as defined in this lesson?

a)

Brightness and contrast

b)

Spatial resolution and distortion

c)

Exposure time and patient motion

d)

Tube current and source-to-image distance

2.

A radiograph is judged by both visibility and accuracy. Which combination best represents accuracy of structural lines recorded?

a)

Sharpness characterized by spatial resolution and distortion

b)

Brightness characterized by exposure and window level

c)

Contrast characterized by kVp and subject density

d)

Noise characterized by quantum mottle and scatter

3.

During latent image creation, x-ray attenuation varies across tissues. Which term describes this process and explains why some structural lines are recorded more distinctly than others?

a)

Differential absorption

b)

Uniform transmission

c)

Constant scatter

d)

Isotropic emission

4.

Radiographic image quality is defined by two overarching aspects. Which pair best represents these aspects?

a)

Brightness and contrast alone

b)

Visibility of anatomic structures and accuracy of structural lines

c)

Exposure factors and patient positioning

d)

Pixel size and bit depth

5.

Which statement best distinguishes brightness from contrast in radiographic imaging?

a)

Brightness determines the difference between adjacent structures, while contrast sets the overall lightness of the image.

b)

Brightness controls overall image lightness or darkness on the display, while contrast governs how different structures appear relative to each other.

c)

Brightness and contrast are identical measures with no functional difference.

d)

Contrast is adjusted only on the monitor, whereas brightness is fixed during acquisition.

6.

Which image quality component primarily deals with the accuracy of structural lines rather than their visibility?

a)

Brightness

b)

Contrast

c)

Sharpness (spatial resolution)

d)

Distortion of size or shape

7.

According to the instructional text, what does density represent in a processed radiographic image?

a)

The sharpness of edges throughout the image

b)

The amount of overall blackness on the processed image

c)

The visibility of soft tissue structures only

d)

The uniformity of pixel size across the detector

8.

Which exposure or processing factor primarily controls density in film screen and computed radiography (CR)?

a)

Kilovoltage peak (kVp) exclusively

b)

Milliampere-seconds (mAs) and processing chemicals

c)

Focal spot size and source-to-image distance (SID)

d)

Collimation width and grid ratio

9.

In image formation, what is identified as the main factor affecting radiographic density at the receptor?

a)

The quantity of x-ray photons reaching the image receptor

b)

The duration of post-processing algorithms

c)

The number of pixels displayed on the monitor

d)

The brand of the imaging system

10.

Which outcome is correctly matched with the exposure error described for digital imaging?

a)

Underexposure leads to saturation (severely degraded image).

b)

Extreme overexposure increases quantum noise, producing a grainy image.

c)

Underexposure may increase quantum noise, causing a grainy image.

d)

Moderate overexposure is fully corrected by film chemicals without any degradation.

11.

Which statement best describes the exposure indicator in digital imaging?

a)

It is a numeric value indicating the level of radiation exposure to the digital image receptor.

b)

It is a color scale that adjusts contrast after the image is captured.

c)

It is a physical knob on the x-ray tube that sets patient dose directly.

d)

It is a histogram that displays pixel frequencies without any exposure information.

12.

According to the visual, what should radiographers do before deciding whether to repeat an exposure?

a)

Increase the mAs until the image appears darker.

b)

Review the exposure indicator value along with the image quality.

c)

Ignore the exposure indicator and rely on patient feedback.

d)

Rely solely on standardized numbers without considering the anatomy imaged.

13.

Which control on the display monitor sets how light or dark the image appears overall by determining the midpoint of the visible gray values?

a)

Window width

b)

Window level

c)

Exposure indicator

d)

Bit depth

14.

Displayed image brightness should be optimized primarily for which purpose in clinical practice?

a)

Reducing file size

b)

Matching the x-ray technique chart

c)

Human perception so the radiologist can see needed structures

d)

Standardizing monitor calibration across departments

15.

When the window level is moved up to a higher pixel value, what is the expected effect on visibility?

a)

Decreases overall brightness and reveals brighter regions

b)

Increases overall brightness and improves visibility of darker regions

c)

Has no effect on overall brightness, only contrast

d)

Increases noise and reduces detail in all regions

16.

In a chest radiograph, why might increasing window level be useful?

a)

It enhances visualization of structures inside the lungs that otherwise appear too dark

b)

It reduces motion blur caused by breathing

c)

It increases the exposure indicator value to match protocol

d)

It prevents image saturation in bright bone areas

17.

Lowering the window level to a low pixel value primarily helps with which imaging goal?

a)

Seeing more detail in bright or overexposed regions

b)

Highlighting darker soft-tissue regions

c)

Eliminating quantum noise

d)

Correcting geometric distortion

18.

What happens when an image lacks sufficient contrast between brightness levels or densities?

a)

It becomes sharper but noisier

b)

It appears homogeneous, making different tissues hard to differentiate

c)

It shows increased saturation in dark regions

d)

It displays more anatomic detail due to wider dynamic range

19.

Why are differences in brightness levels (contrast) necessary in radiographic images?

a)

To reduce radiation dose to the patient

b)

To differentiate among different anatomic tissues by showing adjacent structures

c)

To calibrate the exposure indicator automatically

d)

To prevent saturation in the detector at high exposures

20.

Human perception in imaging is optimized by controlling which of the following?

a)

The range of gray values mapped for display using window level.

b)

The mechanical movement of the x-ray tube during exposure.

c)

The total number of pixels collected during acquisition.

d)

The compression ratio used when saving the file.

21.

Which statement best defines subject contrast in radiography?

a)

The visible range of grays on the final image

b)

The natural differences in how body tissues absorb x‑rays

c)

The amount of scatter produced by the x‑ray beam

d)

The brightness setting selected on the monitor

22.

Subject contrast primarily depends on which combination of factors?

a)

Thickness, density, and composition of the body part, plus x‑ray beam energy (kVp)

b)

Tube current (mA) and exposure time only

c)

Monitor brightness and ambient room light

d)

Image receptor brand and pixel pitch

23.

In a chest radiograph, bone appears lighter and lungs appear darker. What principle explains this difference?

a)

Radiographic post‑processing enhances bones only

b)

Bone absorbs more x‑rays than air, producing subject contrast

c)

Air scatters less radiation, reducing image brightness

d)

Lungs produce inherent gray levels unrelated to absorption

24.

Which statement best defines radiographic contrast?

a)

Differences in patient anatomy thickness

b)

The visible difference in shades of gray on the final image

c)

The energy output of the x‑ray tube (kVp)

d)

The amount of radiation dose delivered to the patient

25.

Radiographic contrast depends on subject contrast and which additional set of factors?

a)

Only patient positioning

b)

Technical and processing factors such as kVp, scatter radiation, image receptor response, and digital post‑processing

c)

Ambient light and display brand

d)

Collimation and grid ratio exclusively

26.

A digitally processed image shows clear differences between bone, soft tissue, and air as a good range of grays. What does this indicate?

a)

Low radiographic contrast

b)

High radiographic contrast

c)

No subject contrast

d)

Overexposure with reduced brightness

27.

Contrast resolution refers to the imaging system’s ability to do what?

a)

Distinguish very small positional changes

b)

See small differences between tissues that absorb x‑rays almost the same way

c)

Produce maximum spatial resolution regardless of dose

d)

Eliminate all scatter radiation

28.

Why is window width adjustment used in digital radiography displays?

a)

To increase patient dose for better clarity

b)

Because the human eye cannot detect very small differences in gray shades, so the computer changes how many shades of gray are visible

c)

To correct geometric distortion caused by magnification

d)

To remove motion blur created during exposure

29.

Which statement best defines subject contrast in radiography?

a)

The visible difference between light and dark areas on the final image

b)

The variation in X-ray absorption by different tissues within the patient

c)

The difference in pixel values produced by digital windowing controls

d)

The sharpness of structural lines determined by pixel pitch

30.

Radiographic contrast is primarily described as which of the following?

a)

The inherent absorption differences among tissues before imaging

b)

The visible difference in densities on the final image influenced by technique and processing

c)

The number of pixels and their size that determine sharpness

d)

The total brightness of the monitor set by window level

31.

Refer to the diagram of radiographic images labeled “Higher contrast” and “Lower contrast.” Which statement best describes higher contrast in terms of tissue absorption differences and image appearance?

a)

Large differences in tissue absorption produce images with pronounced black‑and‑white separation and fewer visible gray shades.

b)

Small differences in tissue absorption produce images with subtle tonal changes and many gray shades.

c)

Uniform tissue absorption produces uniformly gray images with minimal structure visibility.

d)

Higher contrast occurs when soft tissues absorb more than bone, creating mostly light tones.

32.

In the diagram comparing contrast levels, what scenario most likely yields lower contrast?

a)

Tissues with similar composition and closely matched attenuation coefficients.

b)

A mix of air and dense bone with markedly different attenuation.

c)

Use of a technique that increases absorption differences between soft tissue and bone.

d)

Presence of metal implants next to soft tissue causing extreme brightness differences.

33.

Which statement best defines contrast resolution in medical imaging?

a)

The ability to see small tissue differences by distinguishing subtle shades of gray

b)

The maximum number of line pairs per millimeter an imaging system can display

c)

The capacity to enlarge images without pixelation

d)

The process of reducing motion blur using shorter exposure times

34.

A radiograph appears to have greater contrast (more pronounced differences between light and dark regions). Which window parameter adjustment most directly produces this effect?

a)

Narrowing the window width to include fewer shades of gray

b)

Widening the window width to include more shades of gray

c)

Increasing window level to shift the image brightness upward

d)

Decreasing spatial frequency to lower image sharpness

35.

Why is computer adjustment of window width important for tissue differentiation on a radiograph?

a)

It controls the number of gray levels displayed, enhancing visibility of small tissue differences

b)

It changes the physical resolution limit of the detector to reveal smaller objects

c)

It compensates for patient motion by re-aligning pixels

d)

It replaces the need for proper exposure by automatically setting mAs and kVp

36.

In digital image windowing, what is the primary effect of adjusting the window level on the displayed image?

a)

It alters overall brightness by choosing which pixel value range is centered

b)

It sharpens edges by increasing spatial resolution

c)

It changes detector efficiency, reducing patient dose

d)

It modifies the number of pixels in the matrix

37.

A technologist wants to visualize fine lung markings that are close in pixel values to surrounding tissue. Based on windowing principles shown in the diagram, which strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Use a narrow window width to enhance contrast between similar pixel values

b)

Use a wide window width to include more pixel values, reducing contrast

c)

Lower the window level to darken the entire image uniformly

d)

Raise the window level to brighten the entire image without affecting contrast

38.

Recall: Which statement best defines spatial resolution in digital imaging?

a)

The range of brightness values captured by a sensor

b)

The sharpness and accuracy of detail displayed in an image

c)

The amount of compression applied during file saving

d)

The color gamut a monitor can reproduce

39.

Which statement best describes the relationship between field of view (FOV) and pixel size when matrix size is held constant?

a)

Increasing FOV increases pixel size

b)

Increasing FOV decreases pixel size

c)

FOV and pixel size are unrelated

d)

Decreasing FOV increases pixel size

40.

When matrix size increases while FOV remains the same, what happens to pixel size and image detail?

a)

Pixel size decreases and image detail improves

b)

Pixel size increases and image detail worsens

c)

Pixel size remains the same and detail is unchanged

d)

Pixel size decreases but detail worsens

41.

Which statement best defines spatial resolution in medical imaging?

a)

The amount of radiation hitting the image receptor

b)

The ability of an imaging system to distinguish small or closely spaced structures as separate

c)

The difference in brightness between two areas on an image

d)

The degree of magnification caused by geometric factors

42.

Recorded detail is most directly assessed using which measurement approach?

a)

Counting pixels per inch on a display

b)

Evaluating line pairs per millimeter as an indicator of image sharpness

c)

Measuring exposure time in milliseconds

d)

Comparing grayscale values across regions of interest

43.

A system with higher spatial resolution will most likely show which outcome when imaging fine anatomical structures?

a)

Increased unsharpness and blur at edges

b)

Reduced ability to distinguish adjacent structures

c)

Enhanced visibility of smaller detectable objects and sharper edges

d)

Greater graininess due to noise

44.

Consider two imaging systems: System A resolves 5 line pairs per millimeter, and System B resolves 10 line pairs per millimeter. Which inference is most reasonable?

a)

System A provides better recorded detail because fewer line pairs reduce noise

b)

System B provides higher recorded detail, indicating greater image sharpness

c)

Both systems have equal spatial resolution because millimeters are the same unit

d)

System A will better distinguish adjacent structures due to lower frequency

45.

Which statement best defines spatial frequency in imaging systems?

a)

The rate at which image brightness changes over time

b)

The number of line pairs per millimeter that the system can distinguish

c)

The total number of pixels in the detector array

d)

The wavelength of the x‑ray beam used during exposure

46.

MTF describes how well an imaging system can

a)

Control radiation dose

b)

Transfer detail from object to image

c)

Enlarge small structures for clarity

d)

Filter our scatter

47.

A system with an MTF of 1.0 indicates

a)

Some loss of detail

b)

No detail transferred

c)

Perfect reproduction of detail

d)

Excessive quantum noise

48.

DQE measures how efficiently the receptor

a)

Reduces scatter

b)

Converts x-rays into a useful image

c)

Compresses digital data

d)

Changes magnification

49.

Shape distortion occurs when

a)

kVp is too low

b)

Beam, part, or IR are misaligned

c)

Exposure time is too short

d)

Collimation is opened too wide

50.

Elongation means the image appears

a)

Shorter than it really is

b)

Sharper than expected

c)

More magnified with no cause

d)

Longer than it really is

51.

Scatter primarily affects image

a)

Brightness

b)

Contrast

c)

Spatial Resolution only

d)

Pixel depth

52.

Scatter creates

a)

Useful anatomical detail

b)

Increased patient dose without image change

c)

Fog that reduces visibility of structures

d)

Higher MTF values

53.

Quantum noise appears most when

a)

Too many photons reach the IR

b)

Too few photons reach the IR

c)

The collimation is too tight and cuts off

d)

The mAs is set too high

54.

Quantum noise makes an image look

a)

Sharper and more detailed

b)

Grainy and lacking detail

c)

More magnified

d)

Overexposed

55.

Higher SNR means

a)

Noise is stronger than signal

b)

Signal is stronger than noise

c)

Image will be grainier

d)

The image cannot be used

56.

Increasing SNR results in

a)

Poorer detail

b)

Clearer image quality

c)

Lower contrast visibility

d)

More scatter production

57.

High CNR makes it easier to

a)

See small contrast differences

b)

Increase elongation

c)

Create more digital artifacts

d)

Reduce spatial resolution

58.

Digital systems have a wide dynamic range, meaning

a)

They require perfect exposure

b)

They can display both dark and light areas well

c)

They cannot handle underexposure

d)

They always reduce patient dose

59.

An artifact refers to

a)

Any intentional enhancement feature

b)

Any unwanted image appearance

c)

A type of pixel used in digital imaging

d)

A standard test tool

60.

A minus-density artifact appears

a)

Lighter than expected

b)

Darker than expected

61.

A plus-density artifact appears

a)

Lighter than expected

b)

Darker than expected