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Worksheets

Internet and its uses

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statements describe how the SSL protocol secures data for transmission?

a)

It encrypts data before it is sent over the network.

b)

It uses digital certificates to authenticate parties.

c)

It changes the default HTTP port to 80.

d)

It compresses data to reduce transmission time.

e)

It hides the padlock symbol in the status bar.

2.

Ways that user can identify if website uses secure data transmission / HTTPS / SSL: Which URL format indicates a secure HTTPS connection?

a)

URL begins with HTTPS

b)

URL begins with HTTP

c)

URL uses ftp://

d)

URL ends with .ssl

3.

Ways that user can identify if website uses secure data transmission / HTTPS / SSL: Which browser indicator confirms a secure site?

a)

Padlock symbol is locked

b)

Padlock symbol is open

c)

Presence of pop-up ads

d)

Animated site logo

4.

Ways that user can identify if website uses secure data transmission / HTTPS / SSL: What should the browser verify about the website’s certificate?

a)

That the certificate is valid/authentic

b)

That the page uses cookies

c)

That the site loads quickly

d)

That the domain has many images

5.

How HTTPS protocol changes the data to transmit the data securely: What does HTTPS do to data before transmission?

a)

It encrypts it

b)

It compresses it without encryption

c)

It converts it to plaintext

d)

It removes metadata only

6.

How SSL protocol secures data for transmission: SSL will only send data if what condition is met?

a)

The (SSL) certificate is authentic

b)

The user is logged in

c)

JavaScript is enabled

d)

Cookies are accepted

7.

Benefit of using SSL connection: What is a direct benefit of using an SSL connection when data is intercepted?

a)

The data cannot be understood because it is encrypted/scrambled

b)

The data downloads faster

c)

The data becomes publicly viewable

d)

The data is converted to plain text

8.

Process of SSL (or TLS) and how it provides a secure connection // How secure connection is created for website: Which steps are part of establishing an SSL/TLS connection? Select all that apply.

a)

Browser/client sends a request to the web server to send/view the digital certificate

b)

Server sends SSL/digital certificate to browser/client

c)

Web browser checks that the certificate is valid/authentic

d)

If authentic, a secure connection/session key is generated

e)

The browser displays an open padlock because the connection is secure

9.

Process of SSL (or TLS) and how it provides a secure connection // How secure connection is created for website: Which kind(s) of encryption may be used in SSL/TLS?

a)

Both asymmetric and symmetric encryption

b)

Symmetric encryption only

c)

Asymmetric encryption only

d)

Hashing only without encryption

10.

Process of SSL (or TLS) and how it provides a secure connection // How secure connection is created for website: Which keys are used in SSL/TLS to secure communication?

a)

Public and private keys

b)

Only private keys

c)

Only public keys

d)

No keys are used

11.

Applications of SSL & TLS: Which of the following are common applications of SSL/TLS? Select all that apply.

a)

Online banking

b)

Online shopping / Online payment / Online booking

c)

Cloud storage facilities

d)

Intranet/extranet

e)

Local file compression utility

12.

What is a web browser?

a)

Software/application that allows the user to view the contents of a web page

b)

An operating system used to manage computer hardware

c)

An email client used to send and receive messages

d)

A hardware device that connects a computer to the internet

13.

Which statements describe the main purpose of a web browser? Select all that apply.

a)

Renders HTML

b)

Displays web pages

c)

Compiles Java programs

d)

Edits images

14.

Which browser function manages HTTP and HTTPS?

a)

Manages protocols

b)

Stores cookies

c)

Provides an address bar

d)

Records user history

15.

Which feature saves small text files containing user preferences and login details?

a)

Stores cookies

b)

Stores bookmarks/favourites

c)

Provides navigation tools

d)

Allows use of multiple tabs

16.

Which feature lets users quickly revisit recently viewed pages?

a)

Records user history

b)

Renders HTML

c)

Allows download of files

d)

Runs active scripts

17.

Which function enables several web pages to be open at the same time?

a)

Allows use of multiple tabs

b)

Provides navigation tools

c)

Stores bookmarks/favourites

d)

Manages protocols

18.

Which browser feature allows movement between web pages?

a)

Provides navigation tools

b)

Stores cookies

c)

Records user history

d)

Allows download of files

19.

Which feature allows users to enter a URL or search to navigate to websites?

a)

Provides an address bar

b)

Runs active scripts

c)

Renders HTML

d)

Allows use of multiple tabs

20.

Which function allows files to be obtained from the internet?

a)

Allows download of files

b)

Stores bookmarks/favourites

c)

Records user history

d)

Manages protocols

21.

Which browser capability runs small programs embedded in web pages, enabling animations, videos, and pop‑up windows?

a)

Runs active scripts (JavaScript)

b)

Renders HTML

c)

Stores cookies

d)

Provides an address bar

22.

When a user enters a URL, which service finds the matching IP address for that URL?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

FTP

d)

HTTP

23.

After the browser receives the IP address from DNS, what is the next step to obtain web pages?

a)

Browser sends request to the web server/IP address

b)

Browser immediately renders HTML without contacting a server

c)

Web server sends images only to the browser

d)

Security certificates are revoked

24.

Which protocol is used to secure data so any data sent is encrypted during web page retrieval?

a)

HTTPS/SSL

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

SMTP

25.

Immediately after a user enters a URL into the address bar, what does the browser send?

a)

The URL to DNS

b)

The IP address to DNS

c)

HTML to the web server

d)

A MAC address to the router

26.

How is a URL converted into an IP address for a website?

a)

It is sent to DNS, which looks up the corresponding/matching IP address

b)

It is converted by the browser without external services

c)

It is retrieved from the web server using HTTP only

d)

It is determined by the user’s local cache exclusively

27.

According to the "Cookies" section, what are cookies?

a)

Small text files used by websites

b)

Executable programs installed by the user

c)

Large media files downloaded from web servers

d)

Hardware devices that store browsing data

28.

Where are cookie files stored according to the worksheet?

a)

On the web server only

b)

By the web browser on the user’s HDD/SSD

c)

On the internet service provider’s router

d)

In the computer’s RAM only

29.

What kind of information can cookies contain based on the worksheet?

a)

A user’s browsing habits, details, and preferences

b)

Source code of the website

c)

Only the user’s operating system configuration

d)

Encrypted copies of all emails

30.

When are cookies sent between a web browser and a web server as described in the worksheet?

a)

When the user visits the website

b)

Only when the user updates their operating system

c)

When the computer is offline

d)

Only after the browser is closed

31.

Which function of cookies is described as storing usernames and passwords so the user does not have to enter them each time they visit a site?

a)

Saving personal details

b)

Storing login details

c)

Tracking user preferences

d)

Holding items in an online shopping basket

32.

Which cookie function tailors or customises a web page to a user’s presentation requirements such as language settings, font size, and colour scheme?

a)

Tracking user preferences

b)

Stores recent purchases

c)

Stores recently visited pages

d)

Saving personal details

33.

Which cookie function keeps items in an online/virtual shopping basket so that when the user leaves the site the items are still in their basket?

a)

Holding items in an online/virtual shopping basket

b)

Saving personal details

c)

Storing login details

d)

Stores recently visited pages

34.

Which cookie function allows the user to quickly reorder more items by storing past transactions?

a)

Stores recent purchases

b)

Tracking user preferences

c)

Saving personal details

d)

Storing login details

35.

Which cookie function is used to tailor adverts to a user through targeted advertising?

a)

Stores recently visited pages

b)

Holding items in an online/virtual shopping basket

c)

Storing login details

d)

Saving personal details

36.

Which statements correctly describe how cookies can be used to store and automatically enter a user’s payment details? Select all that apply.

a)

A web server sends a cookie file to the user’s browser

b)

The user’s payment details are stored in encrypted text within the cookie

c)

The cookie file is stored by the browser on the user’s HDD/SSD

d)

When the user revisits a website, the browser sends the cookie back to the web server to automatically enter the details

e)

The cookie is only stored on the web server and never on the user’s device

37.

Which concerns about personal data and online browsing habits being stored in cookies are mentioned? Select all that apply.

a)

The user may not see what information is stored and data might be collected without their knowledge

b)

The user’s privacy may be affected

c)

A profile could be built about the user

d)

Cookies automatically delete all stored data weekly

e)

Cookies prevent targeted advertising by default

38.

According to the table comparing cookie types, which cookie is lost when the browser is closed?

a)

Session cookie

b)

Persistent cookie

c)

Third-party cookie

d)

Secure cookie

39.

Based on the cookie comparison table, where is a session cookie stored?

a)

On the RAM

b)

On the hard drive

c)

In the browser cache only

d)

On a remote server

40.

From the cookie comparison table, where is a persistent cookie stored?

a)

On the RAM

b)

On the hard drive

c)

In temporary browser memory

d)

Only on a server

41.

Which statement defines digital currency as described?

a)

Currency that only exists in electronic form

b)

Currency backed by a physical commodity like gold

c)

Government-issued paper notes and coins

d)

Electronic records that must be tied to a central bank

42.

Which of the following is listed as an example of digital currency?

a)

Bitcoin

b)

PayPal

c)

Visa

d)

US Dollar

43.

What does it mean that digital currency is decentralised, according to the notes?

a)

It is controlled by a single government agency

b)

It is not controlled by any central authority; transactions are verified on a public ledger

c)

It can only be used within one country

d)

It exists only as physical tokens

44.

Which use of digital currency is NOT listed under "Used for Transactions"?

a)

Purchasing goods and services online

b)

Transferring money internationally

c)

As investments or a store of value

d)

Printing paper notes for cash use

45.

Which statements about the volatility of digital currency are highlighted? Select all that apply.

a)

Their value can fluctuate rapidly over short periods of time

b)

They are risk-free investments with guaranteed returns

c)

They are risky; difficult to use as a stable store of value

d)

Their prices are fixed by government regulations

46.

Which security risks are associated with cookies as listed? Select all that apply.

a)

Sensitive information in cookies could be intercepted during transmission

b)

Other websites could gain access to cookies stored on a user's computer

c)

A computer could be hacked to obtain data stored in cookies

d)

Payment information could be stolen and used by a third party

e)

Cookies cannot expose any user identity information

47.

According to the notes on data interception, which tool is specifically mentioned as being used to examine data during transmission?

a)

Packet sniffer

b)

Proxy server

c)

Botnet

d)

Firewall

48.

Which countermeasure is listed to make intercepted data meaningless during data interception?

a)

Encryption

b)

Firewall

c)

Anti-malware scan

d)

Two-factor authentication

49.

What is a stated purpose of data interception in the notes?

a)

To steal sensitive information for personal gain

b)

To test a system’s resilience

c)

To provide entertainment value

d)

To deny users access to a website

50.

In the described DDoS process, what happens to the server when bots flood it with many requests at the same time?

a)

The server crashes or times out

b)

The server encrypts all traffic

c)

Intercepted data is reported to a third party

d)

The connection is spoofed to a false destination

51.

Which motives for launching a DDoS attack are explicitly listed? Select all that apply.

a)

Revenge

b)

To demand ransom to stop it

c)

To affect a company’s reputation

d)

To steal personal passwords

52.

Which measures are listed as countermeasures against DDoS attacks? Select all that apply.

a)

Proxy server

b)

Firewall

c)

Scanning computers with anti-malware

d)

Packet sniffers

53.

What outcome do legitimate users face during a DDoS attack, according to the notes?

a)

They can no longer access websites

b)

Their data is examined during transmission

c)

Their traffic is rerouted to a spoofed address

d)

Their files are encrypted

54.

Which security control is listed under hacking as a preventative measure?

a)

Firewall

b)

Proxy server

c)

Packet sniffer

d)

Botnet

55.

Firewall has been turned off — what is the stated consequence for malware when entering the network?

a)

It blocks unknown sources automatically

b)

It would not be detected or checked when entering the network

c)

It speeds up bandwidth for safe traffic

d)

It encrypts files to protect them

56.

Anti-malware has been turned off — what is the stated consequence for malware when files are downloaded?

a)

It is quarantined immediately

b)

It is not detected or checked when files are downloaded

c)

It is deleted by the browser

d)

It is blocked by the firewall

57.

Which malware type is described as software/code that replicates itself when the user runs it with an active host, deletes or corrupts data/files, and takes up storage/memory space?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Trojan horse

d)

Ransomware

58.

Which malware type replicates itself without user input or an active host, takes up bandwidth and storage/memory space, and can open back doors to computers over the network?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Spyware

d)

Adware

59.

Which malware type is hidden within other software, is disguised as authentic software, and installs the other malware it contains when downloaded or installed?

a)

Adware

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Spyware

d)

Virus

60.

Which malware type is installed or downloaded on a user’s computer to record key presses and screen activity and relay it to a third party?

a)

Adware

b)

Spyware

c)

Worm

d)

Ransomware

61.

According to the listed prevention methods, which measures help minimise the risk from spyware? (Select all that apply)

a)

Anti-spyware

b)

Use data entry methods such as drop-down boxes

c)

Firewall

d)

Anti-malware

62.

Which malware type displays unwanted adverts on the user’s computer, may contain spyware or other malware, may link to viruses when clicked, reduces device performance or internet speed, and can redirect searches or the user to fake websites?

a)

Adware

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Virus

d)

Ransomware

63.

Which malware type stops a user from accessing or using their computer or data by encrypting the data/files/computer and demands a fee to decrypt or ‘release’ them?

a)

Worm

b)

Ransomware

c)

Virus

d)

Spyware

64.

Which prevention methods are listed for viruses in the table? (Select all that apply)

a)

Anti-virus software

b)

Do not download software or data from unknown sources

c)

Firewall

d)

Use data entry methods such as drop-down boxes

65.

When a virus is downloaded, which is a likely outcome on the computer?

a)

The computer may crash, run slowly, or generate errors

b)

Processing speed consistently increases

c)

The operating system automatically updates to the latest version

d)

Storage performance is optimized without issues

66.

Which statement describes a data risk from downloading a virus?

a)

It could delete or damage files

b)

It compresses files to save space safely

c)

It encrypts files to improve security by default

d)

It automatically creates backups

67.

What impact on storage is noted when a virus is downloaded?

a)

It could fill up the storage space

b)

It frees up storage by removing temporary files

c)

It defragments the drive to improve efficiency

d)

It reduces cache usage to save space

68.

Which hardware or communication effect can occur after a virus infection?

a)

It could stop the hardware from being able to communicate

b)

It improves wireless signal strength

c)

It calibrates peripherals for better accuracy

d)

It lowers power consumption of connected devices

69.

How can a virus affect other devices on a network?

a)

It could spread to other devices on the network

b)

It blocks all external websites permanently

c)

It enforces strong passwords on all devices automatically

d)

It disables screen savers on connected computers

70.

Which action helps prevent viruses?

a)

Use anti‑virus or anti‑malware software

b)

Disable all security software to avoid conflicts

c)

Install software from unverified sources to test new features

d)

Share unknown files freely to improve collaboration

71.

What is the recommended approach to virus scanning?

a)

Run an up‑to‑date virus scanner

b)

Rely on an outdated scanner if it was once effective

c)

Never run scans to avoid slowdowns

d)

Turn off automatic updates for scanning tools

72.

Which network protection method helps prevent viruses from entering a system?

a)

Use a firewall

b)

Turn off the firewall to speed up internet access

c)

Forward all ports to allow unrestricted traffic

d)

Allow unknown remote connections by default

73.

Which option is listed as a prevention measure against viruses related to network routing?

a)

Use a proxy server

b)

Disable proxies to reduce latency

c)

Share network credentials with untrusted users

d)

Bypass all network filtering

74.

Which safe practice reduces the chance of virus infection from software sources?

a)

Do not use or download software or files from unknown sources

b)

Install cracked software to avoid costs

c)

Accept all prompts to enable macros in any file

d)

Disable application vetting on the system

75.

How should email attachments and links from unknown sources be handled to prevent viruses?

a)

Do not open attachments, links, or emails from unknown sources

b)

Open them if the subject seems important

c)

Forward them to multiple contacts to verify authenticity

d)

Save all attachments before scanning

76.

Which external device practice helps prevent virus spread?

a)

Do not share external storage devices or USB pens

b)

Use any USB device without scanning

c)

Borrow USB drives from unknown users to transfer files quickly

d)

Keep all USB ports enabled for convenience

77.

Which connection choice can reduce the risk of virus transmission?

a)

Do not connect the computer to a network; use it as a stand‑alone computer

b)

Connect to any available public network by default

c)

Enable remote access for all users

d)

Share the device on peer‑to‑peer networks

78.

Which is an example of spyware used to discover login credentials?

a)

A keylogger

b)

A disk defragmenter

c)

A photo‑editing application

d)

A firewall client

79.

Which user action commonly leads to spyware installation?

a)

Clicking an email attachment or link from an untrusted website

b)

Updating software through the official vendor portal

c)

Using a hardware keyboard with strong typing habits

d)

Connecting only to trusted corporate Wi‑Fi

80.

What is true about how spyware is installed on a victim’s system?

a)

Spyware is downloaded without the user’s knowledge

b)

Spyware always requires explicit user permission

c)

Spyware installs only after a paid subscription

d)

Spyware cannot be installed from emails

81.

What activity does spyware such as a keylogger typically capture?

a)

All key presses, screen clicks, and screen activity

b)

Only device battery status

c)

Only software version numbers

d)

Only network bandwidth usage

82.

After spyware records activity, what happens to the data?

a)

Recorded data is sent back to the creator of the spyware or to a third party

b)

Data remains only on the local device and is never transmitted

c)

Data is deleted automatically to avoid detection

d)

Data is stored offline and mailed physically

83.

How do attackers use captured spyware data to uncover credentials?

a)

Patterns in the data are analyzed to reveal log‑in details such as a username or password

b)

They rely solely on random guesses without reviewing any data

c)

They ignore keyboard input and analyze battery statistics

d)

They use printer logs to find login names

84.

Which measure helps prevent spyware?

a)

Use anti‑spyware or anti‑malware software

b)

Disable all security tools to reduce pop‑ups

c)

Install browser toolbars from unknown vendors

d)

Share passwords with coworkers for convenience

85.

Which authentication approach reduces the risk from spyware?

a)

Enable two‑step verification or two‑factor authentication

b)

Use single‑factor authentication only

c)

Share recovery codes publicly for faster access

d)

Disable login alerts

86.

Which security method adds a biometric requirement to sign‑in?

a)

Use a device that requires biological data (e.g., fingerprint) in addition to a password

b)

Use only a simple password without any additional checks

c)

Rely on security questions alone

d)

Use a shared account for easier access

87.

Why can using an on‑screen virtual keyboard or drop‑down boxes reduce keylogger risk?

a)

Keyloggers cannot record key presses, so data cannot be relayed

b)

It disables internet access completely

c)

It hides the screen from all observers automatically

d)

It encrypts every file on the computer by default

88.

What is an advantage of requesting only part of a password when signing in on secure forms?

a)

A hacker does not get the full password if data is intercepted

b)

It makes passwords shorter for convenience

c)

It allows automatic login without user input

d)

It removes the need for any authentication

89.

Which network control can help prevent spyware?

a)

Use a firewall or proxy server

b)

Disable all proxies and firewalls for faster browsing

c)

Allow any application to bypass network filtering

d)

Share administrative access with untrusted users

90.

Which statement is listed as a similarity between phishing and pharming?

a)

Designed to obtain the user’s personal data/details

b)

Involves installing malicious code on a hard drive

c)

Creates a redirection

d)

Requires clicking a link or opening an attachment

91.

According to the differences table, which action is associated with phishing?

a)

Involves use of email

b)

Creates a redirection

c)

Involves installing malicious code on a hard drive

d)

Uses fake websites

92.

According to the differences table, which action is associated with pharming?

a)

Creates a redirection

b)

Involves clicking a link or opening an attachment

c)

Posing as an IT technician

d)

Enticing the victim with a desirable item

93.

In social engineering, what is described by impersonation?

a)

Posing as someone else (e.g., IT technician/bank representative) to gain trust/access to sensitive information

b)

Creating a fake scenario to extract sensitive information

c)

Installing malicious code on a hard drive

d)

Using a UPS during a power surge

94.

In social engineering, what is described by baiting?

a)

Enticing the victim with a desirable item to gain access to sensitive information

b)

Posing as a bank representative to gain trust

c)

Creating a redirection to a fake website

d)

Keeping a device in a waterproof box when not in use

95.

In social engineering, what is described by pretexting?

a)

Creating a fake scenario to extract sensitive information

b)

Leaving software always up to date

c)

Using electric items safely

d)

Installing malicious code on a hard drive

96.

For accidental damage, what prevention is listed for power failure/power surge?

a)

Use a UPS

b)

Keep device in a waterproof box when not in use

c)

Don’t have water near the device

d)

Correct care and maintenance of hardware

97.

For accidental damage, what prevention is listed for liquids being spilt?

a)

Don’t have water near the device

b)

Use a UPS

c)

Keep device in a fireproof box when not in use

d)

Create backups so data can be recovered

98.

For accidental damage, what prevention is listed for flooding?

a)

Keep device in a waterproof box when not in use

b)

Use electric items safely

c)

Set access levels to limit who can delete data

d)

Make sure software is always up to date

99.

For accidental damage, which preventions are listed for fire? Select all that apply.

a)

Use electric items safely

b)

Keep device in a fireproof box when not in use

c)

Use a UPS

d)

Keep device in a waterproof box when not in use

e)

Don’t have water near the device

100.

For accidental damage, what prevention is listed for hardware failure?

a)

Correct care and maintenance of hardware

b)

Use electric items safely

c)

Create backups so data can be recovered

d)

Add verification for data deletion

101.

For accidental damage, what prevention is listed for software failure/crashing?

a)

Making sure software is always up to date

b)

Correct care and maintenance of hardware

c)

Keep device in a fireproof box when not in use

d)

Use a UPS

102.

For human error (accidentally deleting file/data), which preventions are listed? Select all that apply.

a)

Create backups so data can be recovered

b)

Add verification for data deletion so the user can confirm they want to delete data

c)

Set access levels to limit who can delete data

d)

Install malicious code to prevent deletion

e)

Entice victims with a desirable item

103.

While entering a password, why does a system ask for 4 characters chosen at random?

a)

hacker never finds all characters on the first hack

b)

makes it more difficult for hackers to find the order of the characters

c)

hacker needs to hack the system several times to gain the whole password

d)

shoulder surfing will not give person full password

104.

Why it's more secure to use drop-down boxes rather than entering characters using a keyboard

a)

to protect against keylogging software/spyware

b)

can stop key presses being recorded

c)

can stop key presses being relayed

d)

drop down boxes can be placed in different location on the screen each time (to overcome screen capture issues)

105.

Which function is described by "filters web traffic by monitoring/examining incoming and outgoing traffic and can block traffic that does not meet set rules (blacklist/whitelist)"?

a)

Proxy server acting as a cache

b)

Firewall traffic filtering

c)

Email spam filter

d)

Intrusion detection report

106.

What benefit is provided when frequently viewed web pages are cached?

a)

Slower response time for requests

b)

Faster response time and fewer server requests

c)

Automatic IP address masking for all users

d)

Immediate virus removal without scanning

107.

Which statement is a similarity between proxy servers and firewalls according to the notes?

a)

Both hide a user’s IP address by default

b)

Both can store whitelist/blacklist and filter traffic

c)

Both guarantee faster access using cache

d)

Both are only hardware devices

108.

According to the differences table, what is the primary aim of a firewall?

a)

To divert attacks away from a server

b)

To stop unauthorized access

c)

To increase web page caching speed

d)

To anonymize the user’s IP address

109.

According to the differences table, which device can hide a user’s IP address?

a)

Firewall

b)

Proxy server

c)

Email server

d)

Router

110.

Which statement about caching in the differences table is correct?

a)

A firewall allows faster access using cache

b)

A proxy server allows faster access using cache

c)

Neither proxy servers nor firewalls use any cache

d)

Both proxy servers and firewalls have built-in caches

111.

Which description best matches phishing as an email-based attack?

a)

Emails encourage clicking a link that takes the user to a fake website

b)

Emails trigger the download of malicious code that redirects to a fake website

c)

Emails overwhelm a server by sending a very large number of messages at the same time

d)

Emails automatically hide the sender’s IP address

112.

Which description best matches pharming as an email-based attack?

a)

Emails contain a link to a legitimate website with enhanced security

b)

Emails encourage clicking a link or downloading an attachment that triggers malicious code redirecting the user to a fake website

c)

Emails request password changes from official support teams

d)

Emails block incoming and outgoing signals

113.

Which description best matches a virus/malware attack carried out using email?

a)

Emails encourage clicking a link or downloading an attachment that triggers the download of virus/malware

b)

Emails contain a whitelist/blacklist of safe senders

c)

Emails route traffic through a cache for faster access

d)

Emails filter incoming and outgoing traffic to enforce rules

114.

In a denial of service (DoS) email attack, what action causes the disruption?

a)

Sending a single email with a large attachment

b)

Sending a very large number of emails to a server/network at the same time, crashing it

c)

Sending encrypted emails that bypass filters

d)

Sending emails that mask the user’s IP address

115.

Which of the following is listed as a shared capability of proxy servers and firewalls?

a)

Keeping a log of traffic

b)

Automatically removing malware

c)

Redirecting users to fake websites

d)

Providing faster access using cache

116.

Which statement correctly contrasts proxy servers and firewalls based on the notes?

a)

Proxy servers protect individual computers; firewalls protect servers

b)

Proxy servers aim to stop unauthorized access; firewalls divert attacks from servers

c)

Proxy servers protect servers; firewalls protect individual computers

d)

Proxy servers and firewalls have identical roles and features

117.

Which are ways that stored data can be maliciously damaged? Select all that apply.

a)

Hacking

b)

Virus

c)

Malware

d)

Backups

e)

Two-factor authentication

118.

Which security measures could be used to make sure that a file can be opened only after a specific time? Select all that apply.

a)

Password protection with the password released on the release date

b)

Encryption with the key released on the release date

c)

Backup stored away from the main computer

d)

Surge protection (UPS)

119.

Which method directly allows data to be restored if it is lost?

a)

Backups

b)

Install firewall

c)

Access rights

d)

Two-factor authentication

120.

Which measures help prevent viruses or hackers from corrupting or deleting data? Select all that apply.

a)

Install antivirus/anti malware

b)

Install firewall

c)

Spyware

d)

Phishing

121.

Which method helps prevent unauthorised access and deletion or corruption of data by requiring two steps?

a)

Two-factor authentication

b)

Backups

c)

Surge protection (UPS)

d)

Follow correct procedure

122.

Which actions are part of the physical method for protecting stored data? Select all that apply.

a)

Keep data in a fireproof/waterproof/protective case

b)

Helps prevent unauthorised access and deletion/corruption of data

c)

Eject offline devices before removal

d)

Regularly saving

123.

Which option helps prevent loss of unsaved data and damage to hardware that stores data?

a)

Surge protection/Uninterrupted power supply (UPS)

b)

Passwords/Biometrics

c)

Network/usage policy

d)

Use verification methods (for deleting files)

124.

Which methods could be used to steal bank details electronically? Select all that apply.

a)

Phishing

b)

Pharming

c)

Hacking

d)

Spyware

e)

Backups

125.

What is an Internet service provider (ISP)?

a)

A company that provides a connection to access the Internet

b)

A device that stores data

c)

A program that deletes viruses

d)

A policy that guides data use

126.

Which method gives users guidance on data use by example?

a)

Network/usage policy

b)

Encryption key

c)

Biometrics

d)

Phishing

127.

Which measure verifies identity to allow access to data?

a)

Passwords/Biometrics

b)

Backups

c)

Surge protection (UPS)

d)

Firewall

128.

Which method should be used when deleting files to ensure they are properly removed?

a)

Use verification methods (for deleting files)

b)

Create multiple backups

c)

Enable two-step verification

d)

Copy the data away from the main computer

129.

According to the list titled Role of ISP, which service is typically provided by an Internet Service Provider?

a)

Provide access to the internet (dial up/broadband)

b)

Design and manufacture computer CPUs

c)

Publish printed newspapers

d)

Operate satellite TV channels

130.

Which statement reflects an ISP’s responsibility regarding bandwidth?

a)

Determines maximum bandwidth available for users

b)

Guarantees unlimited bandwidth at all times

c)

Sets the clock speed of a user’s processor

d)

Controls the resolution of a user’s monitor

131.

What unique network information does an ISP provide to a user?

a)

IP address

b)

MAC address for the network card

c)

Serial number for the hard drive

d)

Username for the operating system

132.

Which activity described in the Role of ISP list relates to tracking customer usage?

a)

Monitors the volume of data downloaded by customers

b)

Counts the number of keyboard presses per minute

c)

Records printer toner levels

d)

Measures ambient room temperature

133.

Which item from the Role of ISP list concerns domain management?

a)

Supports domain names

b)

Registers vehicle license plates

c)

Allocates postal codes

d)

Issues software licenses

134.

Which service do ISPs commonly offer for hosting, as listed under Role of ISP?

a)

Provide web hosting facilities

b)

Develop video game titles

c)

Manufacture Wi‑Fi routers

d)

Run university admissions

135.

Which security‑related function is noted in the Role of ISP list?

a)

Provide security services

b)

Approve government security clearances

c)

Install home door locks

d)

Encrypt all files on a user’s computer without consent

136.

Which communication service do ISPs provide according to the Role of ISP list?

a)

Provide access to Email/Mailbox

b)

Issue mobile phone SIM cards only

c)

Host in‑person town hall meetings

d)

Offer voice coaching services

137.

Which storage capability appears in the Role of ISP list?

a)

Provides online data storage

b)

Installs physical filing cabinets at user homes

c)

Ships external hard drives monthly

d)

Archives paper records in local libraries

138.

What is the typical billing practice of an ISP as stated in the Role of ISP list?

a)

Usually charges a monthly fee

b)

Never charges any fees

c)

Requires a one‑time lifetime payment

d)

Collects daily cash payments only