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HST - Specialty Exams - Part 2

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In gynecological settings, what is a key responsibility of the Medical Assistant (MA) during exams?

a)

Remain in the room to assist and act as a chaperone for legal protection

b)

Leave the room during intimate portions to ensure patient privacy

c)

Perform the full pelvic exam independently without supervision

d)

Focus only on scheduling and avoid clinical involvement

2.

When taking patient history in gynecology, which detail should be determined as part of routine intake?

a)

Average cycle length over the past year

b)

First day of the last menstrual period (LMP)

c)

Number of pregnancies in lifetime

d)

Age at first menstruation

3.

According to the guidelines provided, how often should a clinical breast exam be performed for women in their 20s and 30s?

a)

Every year

b)

Every two years

c)

Every three years

d)

Only if a lump is felt

4.

Per the guidance, how frequently should women over 40 receive a clinical breast exam?

a)

Every six months

b)

Every year

c)

Every three years

d)

Only during annual physicals without exception

5.

How often should a pelvic exam, defined as inspection with a speculum, be performed?

a)

Only when symptomatic

b)

Every five years

c)

Annually

d)

Twice a year

6.

Which statement best describes a Pap smear?

a)

A test that detects breast cancers by imaging

b)

A procedure collecting cells from the cervix to screen for abnormal cells indicative of cervical cancer

c)

A blood test evaluating hormone levels related to menstruation

d)

A culture swab used to detect sexually transmitted infections

7.

Which test primarily looks for the presence of human papillomavirus (HPV), responsible for most cervical cancers?

a)

Pap smear

b)

Cervical smear

c)

Mammogram

d)

Colposcopy

8.

Culture swabs in gynecology are used to detect which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Sexually transmitted infections (STDs)

b)

Pregnancy

c)

HPV infection during Pap smear

d)

Various infections

9.

Which screening tool is specifically mentioned for detecting breast abnormalities and is often ordered alongside clinical exams?

a)

Mammogram

b)

Colposcopy

c)

Cryosurgery

d)

Wet mount microscopy

10.

Which procedure is used to visually examine the cervix after abnormal screening results?

a)

Mammogram

b)

Colposcopy

c)

Pap smear

d)

Cryosurgery

11.

Which treatment uses extreme cold to destroy abnormal cervical tissue identified during follow-up?

a)

Biopsy

b)

Cryosurgery

c)

Electrocautery

d)

Laser ablation

12.

Select all statements that are accurate about cryosurgery as described in this section.

a)

It uses cold temperature to freeze and destroy abnormal tissues.

b)

It is primarily an imaging technique to visualize breast tissue.

c)

It can be used to treat venereal warts or precancerous tumors.

d)

It is generally avoided during pregnancy unless crucial.

13.

In the context of this section, which scenario most appropriately warrants avoiding a mammogram?

a)

A non-pregnant adult with a breast lump

b)

A pregnant patient when the imaging is not crucial

c)

A patient with venereal warts

d)

A patient scheduled for cryosurgery

14.

Which statement best defines obstetrics in the context of health care?

a)

The branch of medicine focused on diseases of the heart

b)

The specialty dealing with care during pregnancy, labor, delivery, and postpartum

c)

The field that studies childhood infectious diseases

d)

The discipline focused exclusively on infertility treatments

15.

A standard pregnancy test detects the presence of which hormone?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

d)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

16.

Which sample types are commonly used to perform a pregnancy test?

a)

Blood

b)

Saliva

c)

Urine

d)

Sweat

17.

According to the typical prenatal schedule, how often are routine appointments during the second trimester?

a)

Weekly

b)

Every two weeks

c)

Monthly

d)

Only at 36 weeks

18.

During the third trimester, what is the usual appointment frequency until 36 weeks gestation?

a)

Daily visits

b)

Every two weeks

c)

Monthly

d)

Only once at 28 weeks

19.

From 36 weeks until birth, what is the typical prenatal appointment frequency?

a)

Twice per week

b)

Every two weeks

c)

Monthly

d)

Weekly

20.

Ultrasound in prenatal care primarily serves which function?

a)

Measures maternal hormone levels

b)

Translates echoes of sound waves into pictures

c)

Removes amniotic fluid for genetic testing

d)

Collects placental tissue for analysis

21.

Select all procedures that are used for prenatal genetic testing.

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

c)

Ultrasound imaging

d)

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

22.

In amniocentesis, what is removed using a needle for analysis?

a)

Maternal blood

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Placental chorionic villi

d)

Fetal tissue biopsy

23.

Dilation and curettage (D&C) is commonly used for which clinical purpose after a miscarriage?

a)

To measure AFP levels

b)

To clear the uterine lining

c)

To collect chorionic villi

d)

To perform an ultrasound

24.

Select all clinical indications listed for D&C.

a)

Clear uterine lining after miscarriage

b)

Remove tumors or fibroids

c)

Genetic testing of the fetus

d)

Detect neural tube defects

25.

Hysterectomy refers to which general action?

a)

Surgical removal of reproductive organs

b)

Ultrasound imaging of the fetus

c)

Sampling amniotic fluid

d)

Widening the cervix and scraping the lining

26.

Which term describes removal of the uterus and one or both fallopian tubes?

a)

Oophorectomy

b)

Hysterosalpingectomy

c)

Salpingotomy

d)

Hysterosalpingectomy with oophorectomy

27.

Which operation removes the uterus, fallopian tubes, and the ovaries?

a)

Hysterosalpingectomy

b)

Hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy

c)

Dilation and curettage

d)

Amniocentesis

28.

Which statement best defines urology?

a)

The study of digestive organs and nutrient absorption

b)

The specialty focused on the urinary system and related care

c)

The branch of medicine dealing only with the heart and blood vessels

d)

The science of skin disorders and treatments

29.

Which organs are components of the urinary system that work together to filter blood and eliminate waste through urine? Select all that apply.

a)

Kidneys

b)

Ureters

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

e)

Adrenal glands

30.

In the labeled urinary system diagram, what structure drains urine from each kidney to the bladder?

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal artery

c)

Adrenal gland

d)

Aorta

31.

During a urologic exam, women are usually positioned in which manner?

a)

Prone position

b)

Lithotomy position

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Supine with arms overhead

32.

Which rationale best explains why the urinary system is considered a filtration and elimination system?

a)

It circulates oxygen to tissues

b)

It breaks down food for nutrient absorption

c)

It removes waste from blood and forms urine for excretion

d)

It controls body temperature via sweating

33.

Which pair correctly matches structure to primary function in the urinary system?

a)

Kidneys—store urine until voiding

b)

Bladder—filters blood to remove waste

c)

Ureters—carry urine from kidneys to bladder

d)

Urethra—returns filtered blood to circulation

34.

Which urologic test is defined as the analysis of urine to assess properties such as composition and possible abnormalities?

a)

Semen analysis

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Cystometry

d)

Cystoscopy

35.

What is the main purpose of cystoscopy as described in the section?

a)

To measure bladder capacity and pressure

b)

To analyze the chemical composition of urine

c)

To examine the walls of the bladder and urethra using a cystoscope

d)

To assess the number and viability of sperm

36.

Which statement best describes a straight (intermittent) catheter?

a)

A flexible tube left in the bladder with an inflated balloon to prevent slipping

b)

A flexible tube inserted to drain urine immediately and removed after the bladder is emptied

c)

A rigid scope used to visualize the bladder walls

d)

A device used to measure bladder pressure continuously

37.

Which features characterize a Foley (indwelling) catheter? Select all that apply.

a)

Remains in the bladder for an extended period

b)

Has a small balloon inflated to keep it in place

c)

Removed immediately after the bladder is emptied

d)

Used for patients unable to urinate independently

38.

In cardiology, which task is commonly performed by a Medical Assistant for patients with cardiac symptoms or diseases?

a)

Administer cardiac surgery

b)

Perform electrocardiograms (EKGs) and Holter monitoring

c)

Prescribe antiarrhythmic medications

d)

Interpret echocardiograms independently

39.

Which statement best describes the purpose of both EKGs and Holter monitoring?

a)

They measure blood pressure variability over 24 hours

b)

They monitor and record the heart’s electrical activity

c)

They assess lung capacity during exercise

d)

They image coronary arteries using X-ray contrast

40.

Which device is specifically intended for extended ambulatory recording of cardiac electrical activity over many hours?

a)

Three-channel electrocardiograph

b)

Holter monitor

c)

Pulse oximeter

d)

Doppler ultrasound probe

41.

An EKG is primarily used for which diagnostic application according to the overview provided?

a)

Detecting pulmonary embolism by imaging the lungs

b)

Assessing the heart’s electrical rhythm to identify arrhythmias

c)

Measuring kidney filtration rate

d)

Evaluating bone density

42.

Which of the following best defines cardiology based on the section title and context?

a)

The study of the nervous system and brain function

b)

The medical field focused on the heart and its disorders

c)

The investigation of musculoskeletal injuries

d)

The specialty dealing with endocrine gland regulation

43.

When performing an EKG, which component captures the heart’s electrical signals from the patient’s skin?

a)

Transducer gel

b)

Electrodes

c)

Capillary tubes

d)

Spirometer mouthpiece

44.

Refer to the EKG image shown. What does the EKG tracing represent in cardiac testing?

a)

A pressure curve of blood vessels

b)

An electrical recording of cardiac activity over time

c)

An ultrasound image of heart chambers

d)

A chemical assay of cardiac enzymes