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HST - Specialty Exams - Part 1

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a scratch test for allergies, which tool is used to apply extracts of suspected allergens to the skin, typically on the arm or back?

a)

Syringe

b)

Lancet

c)

Cotton swab

d)

Adhesive patch

2.

Which step is always included in a scratch test to ensure validity of the results?

a)

Use of a positive control containing histamine

b)

Application of a negative control with no allergen

c)

Measurement of reaction after 24 hours

d)

Intramuscular injection of dilute allergen

3.

During a scratch test, why is the skin intentionally scratched?

a)

To reduce contamination risk

b)

To allow penetration of allergen extracts

c)

To create a uniform testing surface

d)

To delay the immune response

4.

Which statement best describes the intradermal test procedure for allergies?

a)

Allergen extracts are rubbed onto intact skin of the forearm

b)

Dilute allergen solutions are injected into the skin of the forearm or back

c)

Patches soaked with allergen are taped to the thigh

d)

A lancet is used to scratch the epidermis on the hand

5.

Compared with the scratch test, the intradermal test is characterized by which property?

a)

Lower sensitivity and longer reaction time

b)

Higher sensitivity and reaction time of 15–30 minutes

c)

Equal sensitivity and no visible skin reaction

d)

Requires cellophane covering to read results

6.

A clinician performing an intradermal test expects to read initial results within what time frame?

a)

Immediately after injection

b)

5–10 minutes

c)

15–30 minutes

d)

24–48 hours

7.

Which allergy test involves placing a patch on the skin and using a dropper to soak the patch with allergen, then covering it with cellophane?

a)

Scratch test

b)

Intradermal test

c)

Patch test

d)

Serum IgE test

8.

In patch testing, what is the purpose of the cellophane covering mentioned in the procedure?

a)

To deliver the allergen via injection

b)

To hold the patch in place and maintain contact with the skin

c)

To sterilize the application area

d)

To mark positive reactions with numbers

9.

Which pair correctly matches the test with its typical application site as described?

a)

Scratch test—arm or back

b)

Intradermal test—forearm or back

c)

Patch test—scalp or shin

d)

Scratch test—sole of foot

10.

Which statements about test sensitivity and controls are accurate based on the procedures described? Select all that apply.

a)

Intradermal testing is more sensitive than scratch testing

b)

Scratch testing requires a negative control with no allergen

c)

Patch testing is the least sensitive and therefore omits controls

d)

Intradermal testing uses positive controls only

11.

A clinician orders a Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST) to investigate a patient’s hay fever. What does this test primarily measure?

a)

Blood levels of antibodies directed at specific allergens

b)

Skin reactivity to multiple allergen pricks

c)

Airway resistance during exposure to allergens

d)

Urine metabolites produced after allergen exposure

12.

Which procedure is required to perform a Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST)?

a)

A blood draw to obtain a sample

b)

A saliva swab collected after fasting

c)

An intradermal injection followed by observation

d)

A 24-hour urine collection

13.

Select all statements that accurately describe the Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST).

a)

It measures antibody levels in blood to specific allergens.

b)

It requires obtaining a blood sample.

c)

It diagnoses allergies solely by observing skin wheals.

d)

It evaluates antibodies present in urine rather than blood.

14.

In a dermatology setting, which task is a typical responsibility of a medical assistant during minor procedures?

a)

Interpreting biopsy pathology reports

b)

Administering general anesthesia

c)

Assisting in obtaining skin biopsies

d)

Performing independent surgical excisions

15.

Select all actions that align with sterile technique when assisting with wound cultures and minor dermatologic procedures.

a)

Maintaining a sterile field during specimen collection

b)

Using non-sterile gloves to speed up sampling

c)

Minimizing contamination of instruments and dressings

d)

Allowing dressings to touch non-sterile surfaces to improve airflow

16.

Refer to the wound-care photo: a gloved clinician applies a dressing to a patient's forearm wound. What is the medical assistant’s priority during this step?

a)

Ensure sterile handling of dressings and instruments

b)

Document the patient’s insurance information

c)

Interpret the wound culture results immediately

d)

Decide the medication to prescribe

17.

Which item is specifically used to obtain a cylindrical sample of skin for biopsy?

a)

Dermal punch biopsy

b)

Gauze

c)

Incision and drainage tray

d)

Specimen collection container

18.

Which tool is most appropriate for carefully cutting superficial skin lesions during minor dermatologic surgery?

a)

Dermal cutter

b)

Gauze pad

c)

Magnifying lamp

d)

Incision and drainage tray

19.

During a dermatology exam, which tool combination is routinely used to closely inspect the entire skin surface under adequate illumination?

a)

Magnifying lens with bright light

b)

Stethoscope with ambient room light

c)

Otoscope with dim light

d)

Reflex hammer with natural daylight

20.

Which action is recommended for the medical assistant to maintain patient comfort and privacy during a full skin examination?

a)

Drape the patient as much as possible

b)

Keep all clothing removed throughout the exam

c)

Avoid using any lighting to reduce exposure

d)

Position the patient only standing upright

21.

Select all statements that accurately describe the Wood’s lamp examination.

a)

It is a simple test used on the skin, scalp, and hair

b)

It helps diagnose fungal, bacterial, and parasitic infections

c)

It relies on long-wave ultraviolet (UV) light to reveal color changes or fluorescence

d)

It primarily measures skin temperature using infrared light

22.

During a general neurological examination, which aspect is specifically assessed to evaluate the patient’s ability to feel and interpret stimuli such as touch or temperature?

a)

Motor response

b)

Sensory response

c)

Speech patterns

d)

Muscle tone

23.

Which set best represents common supplies used to assess neurologic function in a general exam?

a)

Lancet, glucometer

b)

Otoscope, tuning fork, cotton balls

c)

Surgical scalpel, suture kit, sterile drapes

d)

EKG leads, defibrillator, nasal cannula

24.

Which item is most appropriate for testing deep tendon reflexes during a general neurological assessment?

a)

Percussion hammer

b)

Tongue depressor

c)

Penlight

d)

Ophthalmoscope

25.

Which test is primarily used to record the electrical activity of the brain?

a)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

b)

Electromyography (EMG)

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

Spirometry

26.

Select all clinical situations where an EEG is commonly used according to the material.

a)

Diagnosing and monitoring epilepsy

b)

Evaluating sleep disorders

c)

Assessing brain injuries

d)

Measuring skeletal muscle nerve conduction

27.

According to the instructional text, what role can a medical assistant (MA) play in EEG procedures?

a)

Interpret EEG waveforms independently

b)

Assist with electrode placement, often under an EEG technician

c)

Administer sedative medications during EEG

d)

Diagnose epilepsy based on EEG readings

28.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of EMG?

a)

It records nerve impulses going to skeletal muscle

b)

It measures brain waves during sleep

c)

It images muscles using ultrasound

d)

It records heart electrical activity

29.

Which conditions are specifically mentioned as being assessed with EMG? Select all that apply.

a)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

Muscular dystrophy

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Sleep apnea

30.

Which pairing correctly matches the test to what it records?

a)

EEG—nerve impulses in skeletal muscle; EMG—electrical activity of the brain

b)

EEG—electrical activity of the brain; EMG—nerve impulses going to skeletal muscle

c)

EEG—cardiac electrical signals; EMG—respiratory airflow

d)

EEG—ultrasound images of the brain; EMG—blood pressure changes

31.

A clinician wants to monitor a patient after a traumatic brain injury for abnormal brain activity and sleep disturbances. Based on the material, which procedure is indicated?

a)

EMG, because it evaluates skeletal muscle innervation

b)

EEG, because it records electrical activity of the brain and is used for brain injuries and sleep disorders

c)

Spirometry, because it assesses pulmonary function affecting sleep

d)

CT scan, because it shows structural changes but not electrical activity

32.

Which statement best describes the primary role of a pulmonologist?

a)

Perform surgeries to repair cardiac valves

b)

Conduct tests to assess respiratory function and diagnose pulmonary disease

c)

Manage endocrine disorders through hormone therapy

d)

Provide nutritional counseling for weight management

33.

Which test is commonly included among Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs)?

a)

Electrocardiography

b)

Spirometry

c)

Renal ultrasound

d)

Blood culture

34.

Select all devices listed as common tools for performing Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs).

a)

Spirometers

b)

Peak flow meters

c)

Pulse oximeters

d)

Defibrillators

35.

Which components are found in all spirometers?

a)

A mouthpiece and tubing connected to a recording device

b)

A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer

c)

A nebulizer chamber and oxygen tank

d)

An ECG lead set and printer only

36.

Which patient use most commonly justifies having a peak flow meter at home?

a)

Monitoring daily respiratory function in asthma

b)

Checking blood pressure in hypertension

c)

Measuring blood glucose in diabetes

d)

Tracking body temperature during infection

37.

What parameter does a peak flow meter measure during respiratory assessment?

a)

Average tidal volume over one minute

b)

Fastest rate of exhalation after a maximum breath

c)

Total lung capacity during inhalation

d)

Oxygen saturation at rest

38.

Pulse oximeters are best described as devices that measure which clinical value?

a)

Peak expiratory flow

b)

End-tidal carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen saturation

d)

Respiratory rate

39.

Which statement correctly characterizes a pulse oximeter’s placement and invasiveness?

a)

It requires arterial puncture and is placed on the wrist

b)

It is noninvasive and clipped to sites like the fingertip or earlobe

c)

It is surgically implanted under the skin of the chest

d)

It is invasive and inserted into the nostril

40.

Orthopedics primarily focuses on disorders of which body system?

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Musculoskeletal system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Endocrine system

41.

Which structures are included in the musculoskeletal system as defined in orthopedics? Select all that apply.

a)

Muscles

b)

Bones

c)

Joints

d)

Ligaments and tendons

e)

Alveoli

42.

Which task reflects the medical assistant’s role in patient interaction within orthopedics?

a)

Interpreting radiographs independently

b)

Educating patients about conditions and treatment options

c)

Performing arthroscopic surgery

d)

Diagnosing fractures without provider input

43.

What is the primary function of a goniometer in orthopedic practice?

a)

Measure bone density

b)

Evaluate range of motion of a joint

c)

Visualize internal joint structures

d)

Assess tendon strength

44.

Arthroscopy is best described as a procedure that involves which characteristic?

a)

Open surgery with large incisions

b)

Minimally invasive visualization and treatment inside a joint

c)

Noninvasive external imaging

d)

Pharmacologic injection without visualization

45.

Which benefits align with minimally invasive arthroscopy compared with open procedures? Select all that apply.

a)

Smaller incisions

b)

Direct visualization inside the joint

c)

Elimination of anesthesia

d)

Potential for diagnostic and therapeutic use