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WorksheetsRESP 170 Exam 2 Chapters 39-43 Review Quiz
Total questions: 79
Worksheet time: 40mins
What is the primary role of the upper airway?
Gas exchange
Heat and moisture exchange
Sense of smell
Air filtration
What can cause a shift of the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB)?
Bypassed upper airway
Breathing cold, dry air
All of the above
High minute ventilation
What is the most important factor affecting humidifier output?
Surface area
Thermal mass
Time of contact
Temperature
Your patient is receiving 6 liters of oxygen per minute via a nasal cannula. What type of humidification is indicated for this therapy?
Bubble humidifier
HME
Passover
Boiler
Clinical indications for delivering cool humidified gas include which of the following?
Postextubation edema
Upper airway inflammation
Croup (laryngotracheal bronchitis)
Epiglottitis
What device adds molecular water to gas?
Nebulizer
Atomizer
Agitator
Humidifier
Which type of humidifier “traps” the patient’s body heat and expire water vapor to raise the humidity of inspired gas?
HME (Heat and Moisture Exchanger)
Bubble humidifier
Passover humidifier
Ultrasonic humidifier
Which of the following are contraindications for heat and moisture exchangers?
Presence of thick, copious, or bloody secretions
Presence of a large leak around artificial airway
When a patient is suffering from hyperpyrexia
When a patient’s minute ventilation exceeds 10 L/min
Hazards and complications of bland aerosol therapy include which of the following?
Bronchospasm
Overhydration
Infection
Hemoconcentration
Which of the following is false about heated humidifier condensate?
It poses minimal infection risk.
It can block or obstruct the delivery circuit.
It requires that circuits be drained frequently.
It must be treated as contaminated waste.
After inhalation, what can improve sedimentation of medication?
Deposition
Breath Hold
Inertial Impaction
Exhalation
Match the target area with the ideal mean mass aerodynamic diameter (MMAD). Fill in the blank: The ideal MMAD for the Upper Airway is _________. The ideal MMAD for the Lower Airway is _________. The ideal MMAD for the Parenchyma: alveolar region is _________. The ideal MMAD for the Parenchyma is _________.
Upper Airway: 5 to >50 µm; Lower Airway: 2–5 µm; Parenchyma: alveolar region: 1–3 µm; Parenchyma: <0.1 µm
Upper Airway: 1–3 µm; Lower Airway: 2–5 µm; Parenchyma: alveolar region: 5 to >50 µm; Parenchyma: <0.1 µm
Upper Airway: <0.1 µm; Lower Airway: 1–3 µm; Parenchyma: alveolar region: 2–5 µm; Parenchyma: 5 to >50 µm
Upper Airway: 2–5 µm; Lower Airway: 5 to >50 µm; Parenchyma: alveolar region: <0.1 µm; Parenchyma: 1–3 µm
What is the most likely hazard of aerosol drug therapy?
Infection
Adverse reaction to medication
Secondhand exposure
Eye irritation
A patient has been taking their inhaled medication via a dry powder inhaler (DPI) but has not had any improvements in their symptoms. Their inhaled flow rate is 20 liters per minute (lpm). What is the most likely cause of their symptoms not improving?
DPI's are not effective for delivering inhaled medications
Inspiratory flow is too high and causes deposition in the oropharynx
Dosage is too low
Inspiratory flow is too low to generate a DPI
Infants and children have a higher respirable dose than adults due to their higher respiratory rates and smaller airways.
True
False
What is an aerosol?
Suspension of liquid or solid particles in a gas
Molecular water dispersed throughout a carrier gas
Suspension of particulate matter in a gas
Suspension of liquid droplets in a gas
An aerosol is a suspension of solid or liquid particles in gas.
With which of the following devices are therapeutic aerosols generated?
Atomizers
Nebulizers
Humidifiers
Soft mist inhalers
Which of the following describes the mass of drug leaving the mouthpiece of a nebulizer as aerosol?
Multiple dose
Single dose
Emitted dose
Output dose
A physician wants to deliver a therapeutic aerosol to the upper airway (nose, larynx, trachea). To help ensure maximum deposition in this area, you would select an aerosol generator with an MMAD in what range?
5 to 50 µm
2 to 5 µm
Less than 1 µm
1 to 3 µm
Each actuation of a typical metered dose inhaler delivers approximately what output volume?
10 to 30 mcl
30 to 100 ml
10 to 30 ml
30 to 100 mcl
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Oxygen = ________
Green
Blue
Yellow
Red
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Carbon Dioxide = ________
Gray
Black
Blue
Green
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Nitrous Oxide = ________
Blue
Green
Yellow
Black
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Helium = ________
Brown
Black
Blue
Yellow
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Air = ________
Yellow
Black
White
Blue
Match the medical gas with the appropriate color code. Nitric Oxide = ________
Blue
Black
Red
Yellow
Which of the following affects the duration of gas flow from a cylinder?
Gas flow
Cylinder size
All of the above
Cylinder pressure
Calculate the cylinder duration of flow. A patient is being discharged home and has to wear oxygen. Their flow is set to 4L/min and you provide them with a full E cylinder at 2200 psi. How many minutes do they have until the tank runs completely out?
192.5
154
88
126.5
Which of the following statements about multiplace hyperbaric oxygenation chambers is false?
They can accommodate multiple patients at the same time.
Patients breathe pure oxygen through masks or hoods.
The chamber is always pressurized with pure oxygen.
Medical staff can enter the chamber to care for patients.
Which of the following is true about hyperbaric oxygen therapy chambers?
Air locks allow entry and egress of caregivers.
Pressures of 6 ATA or more can be applied.
Care is provided directly within the chamber.
The chamber normally is filled with 100% O₂.
An O₂ delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O₂ sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
Reservoir system
O₂ blending system
Air-entrainment system
Low-flow system
You note that the air intake ports surrounding the jet of a 35% air-entrainment mask are partially obstructed by the patient’s bedding. Which of the following would you expect?
Decrease in the device’s total output flow
Increase in the percentO₂ delivered by the device
No change in the FiO₂ received by the patient
A true high-flow O₂ delivery system should provide at least what flow?
60 L/min
30 L/min
40 L/min
50 L/min
Which of the following are advantages of the nasal cannula as a low-flow O₂ delivery system?
Stability
Low cost
Easy application
Disposability
Delivery systems that provide only a portion of a patient’s inspired gas are referred to as what?
Air-entrainment systems
Fixed-performance systems
High-flow O₂ systems
Variable-performance systems
To minimize the risk of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping the PaO₂ below what level?
60 mm Hg
70 mm Hg
90 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
A physician orders a 70% He:30% O₂ mixture to reduce the work of breathing in a patient having an acute asthmatic attack. Which of the following delivery systems would be appropriate in this case?
Nonrebreathing mask at 10 L/min
Aerosol mask at 12 L/min
Adult O₂ tent at 15 L/min
Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
Specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O₂) therapy include which of the following?
Decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia.
Decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs.
Correct documented arterial hypoxemia.
Correct documented respiratory acidosis.
Which of the following would indicate a need for O₂ therapy for an adult or a child?
SaO₂ less than 87% to 90%
PaCO₂ greater than 45 mm Hg
PaO₂ less than 55 to 60 mm Hg
Pulmonary complications are common after what type of surgery?
Dermatological
Orthopedic
Neurological
Abdomen and Thoracic
What causes compression atelectasis to occur?
Ventilation is compromised in large airways
Significant shift in V/Q
Transalveolar pressure exceeds transthoracic pressure
Transthoracic pressure exceeds transalveolar pressure
What is a clinical sign of atelectasis?
Fine crackles on auscultation
Rapid respiratory rate
Increased density on a chest x-ray
All of the above
Effective therapy with incentive spirometry does not require patient effort.
True
False
A patient has a decreased level of consciousness and increased CO₂ on their most recent arterial blood gas. Chest x-ray results determine the patient has atelectasis. What would be an appropriate approach for lung expansion therapy?
Non-invasive ventilation
IPPB
Incentive Spirometry
PEP
Which of the following are necessary for normal airway clearance?
Patent airway
Functional mucociliary escalator
Effective cough
Normal pulmonary compliance
What are some approaches to airway clearance therapy?
Chest physical therapy
Vibratory PEP
Aerosolized bronchodilator
Mobilization and physical activity
High-frequency compression
What would be the best approach for airway clearance therapy in a patient who does not give a good effort?
Vibratory PEP
PEP
Incentive spirometer
High-frequency vest
Retained secretions can cause which of the following?
Increase work of breathing
Atelectasis
Increase incidence of infection
Normal breath sounds
Numerous factors must be considered in trying to select the best airway clearance strategy for a given patient.
True
False
Where should a vibrating mesh nebulizer be placed in a ventilator circuit?
On the expiratory limb
Near the humidifier
On the inspiratory limb close to the patient
At the ventilator outlet
Which of the following is NOT a cause of atelectasis?
Airway obstruction
Pleural effusion
Excess surfactant
Postoperative immobility
Which patient is most at risk for developing atelectasis?
A healthy athlete
A patient with facial trauma
A postoperative patient with shallow breathing
A patient receiving CPAP
What is a common complication of CPAP therapy?
Hypoglycemia
Gastric distention
Bradycardia
Hyperkalemia
Which of the following is a contraindication for CPAP?
Atelectasis
Facial trauma
Obesity
IPPB therapy is contraindicated in which condition?
Atelectasis
Active hemoptysis
Neuromuscular weakness
Poor cough effort
Incentive spirometry is indicated for:
Patients with asthma
Patients with pneumonia
Postoperative patients at risk for atelectasis
Patients with COPD
How can you increase the transpulmonary pressure gradient?
Reduce alveolar pressure
Increase pleural pressure
Enhance alveolar pressure or reduce pleural pressure
Administer bronchodilators
What is the most common complication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy?
Claustrophobia
Oxygen toxicity
Barotrauma to the ears
Sinus infection
What oxygen concentration range do air entrainment devices typically deliver?
10%-30%
24%-50%
50%-80%
80%-100%
What does a collapsed reservoir bag on a nonrebreather mask indicate?
Proper flow
Obstruction
Inadequate oxygen flow
High FiO₂
What is the tank color for helium?
Green
Blue
Brown
What causes shifts in the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB)?
High humidity
Dry gas inhalation and bypassed upper airway
Low oxygen concentration
Increased surfactant
Why would you use a spacer with an MDI?
To reduce medication dose
To increase aerosol particle size
To improve drug delivery and coordination
To cool the medication
The RT needs to determine how long a G cylinder of O2 with a gauge pressure of 800 psi set to deliver 8L/min will last until empty. What is the correct duration?
120 minutes
181 minutes
301 minutes
241 minutes
What is the cylinder factor for oxygen in a D tank?
0.16
0.28
2.41
3.14
What is the cylinder factor for oxygen in an E tank?
0.16
0.28
2.41
3.14
What is the cylinder factor for oxygen in a G tank?
0.28
1.56
What is the cylinder factor for oxygen in an H tank?
0.28
2.41
3.14
1.56
What is the cylinder factor for oxygen in a K tank?
0.16
2.41
3.14
0.28
What is the cylinder factor for carbon dioxide in a D tank?
0.20
0.35
2.94
3.84
What is the cylinder factor for carbon dioxide in an E tank?
0.20
0.35
2.94
3.84
What is the cylinder factor for carbon dioxide in a G tank?
0.20
0.35
2.94
3.84
What is the cylinder factor for carbon dioxide in an H tank?
0.20
0.35
2.94
3.84
What is the cylinder factor for carbon dioxide in a K tank?
0.20
0.35
2.94
What is the cylinder factor for heliox in a D tank?
0.14
0.23
1.93
2.50
What is the cylinder factor for heliox in an E tank?
0.14
0.23
1.93
2.50
What is the cylinder factor for heliox in a G tank?
0.14
0.23
1.93
2.50
What is the cylinder factor for heliox in an H tank?
0.14
0.23
1.93
2.50
What is the cylinder factor for heliox in a K tank?
0.14
0.23
1.93
2.50
