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WorksheetsRespiratory System Questions I
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Which brain region contains the group of nerves that forms the respiratory system’s primary control center?
Midbrain
Medulla
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Pulmonary function testing is primarily aimed at which purpose?
Measuring blood pH and arterial carbon dioxide tension
Determining the extent of dysfunction and lung volumes
Assessing oxygen saturation and tissue perfusion
Identifying pathogenic organisms and hypersensitivity state
Pleural effusion may be a complication of which condition?
Heart failure and nephrotic syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis and bronchitis
Pulmonary tuberculosis after thoracentesis
Bacterial rhinitis and unconsciousness
Which set best lists signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis?
Sternal soreness and dry cough
Barrel chest and productive cough
Night sweats and mediastinum shift
Purulent sputum and productive cough
Which combination correctly identifies complications of asthma?
Respiratory failure and atelectasis
Hypocapnia and bronchitis
Cystic fibrosis and sinusitis
Pneumothorax and cystic fibrosis
Emergency relief of tension pneumothorax most appropriately entails which immediate action?
Administration of IV fluids and blood transfusion
Administration of IV broad-spectrum antibiotics
Inserting a large-bore needle at the second intercostal space
Administration of opioid analgesics and bronchodilators
Which is a recognized risk factor for emphysema?
Penetrating chest trauma
Deficiency of alpha-1 antitrypsin
Acute upper respiratory infections
Rheumatoid arthritis
Which lung tumour type is centrally located in subsegmental bronchi?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Paradoxical movement of the chest most commonly results from which condition?
Pulmonary contusion
Open pneumothorax
Flail chest
Cystic fibrosis
Which statement best characterizes expiration during quiet breathing?
Relaxation of intercostal muscles and decrease in thoracic capacity
Decrease in thoracic capacity and contraction of intercostal muscles
Increase in thoracic capacity with contraction of intercostal muscles
Upward movement of the rib cage and decreased thoracic capacity
Tidal volume is defined as which of the following?
Volume of gas that remains in the lungs after expiration
Air breathed in and out during quiet respiration
Maximal air inspired during inspiration
Maximal air expired after normal inspiration
Orthopnea is most commonly found in patients with which condition?
Pneumonia
Hydrothorax
Emphysema
Pneumothorax
Which organism is associated with hospital-acquired pneumonia?
Pneumocystis carinii
Aspergillus fumigatus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Pleuritis may occur due to which underlying problem?
Pulmonary contusion
Respiratory failure
Cystic fibrosis
Pulmonary embolism
Which is a clinical feature expected in a patient with severe pulmonary contusion?
Agitation
Cough
Atelectasis
Hypocapnia
Deficiency of alpha-1 antitrypsin, an enzyme inhibitor, increases risk of which condition?
Pleural effusion
Empyema
Emphysema
Pneumothorax
Which drug is a mast cell stabilizer used in the management of asthma?
Theophylline
Beclomethasone
Sodium cromoglycate
Ipratropium bromide
Which of the following is listed as a complication of asthma?
Pneumonia
Lung abscess
Centrilobular emphysema
Hypocapnia
Which of the following is an indication for chest tube drainage?
Flail chest
Hemoptysis
Pneumothorax
Emphysema
In tension pneumothorax, which clinical combination is most characteristic?
Air hunger with peripheral cyanosis
Agitation with peripheral cyanosis
Hypoxemia with profuse diaphoresis
Central cyanosis with productive cough
What is the most common cause of hemoptysis?
Pulmonary emboli
Pleural effusion
Empyema
Emphysema
Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining which site?
Nail beds
Palms
Skin
Lips
Which factor predisposes a person to chronic bronchitis?
Gastric reflux
Chemical irritants
Physical irritants
Immunodeficiency
Which pain description is a diagnostic feature of pleuritis?
Dull chest pain
Stabbing chest pain
Diffuse chest pain
Epigastric pain
Which diagnostic test is primarily used to assess lung volumes?
Pulmonary function test
Sputum studies
Pulse oximetry
Arterial blood gas
Pleural effusion is commonly a complication of which condition set?
Heart failure and nephrotic syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis and bronchitis
Pulmonary tuberculosis and thoracentesis
Bacterial rhinitis and unconsciousness
Flail chest most accurately refers to which mechanism?
Accumulation of blood in the pleural space
Penetrating chest trauma leading to trapping of air
Blunt injury to lung tissues resulting in hemorrhage
Fracture of two or more adjacent ribs creating a paradoxical segment
Which is an indication for chest tube drainage?
Thoracocentesis
Hemoptysis
Flail chest
Empyema
Orthopnea is most commonly found in patients with which condition?
Pneumothorax
Hydrothorax
Emphysema
Pneumonia
A patient with severe pulmonary contusion typically presents with which finding?
Cough
Agitation
Hypocapnia
Atelectasis
Which selective beta-adrenergic agonist is used in the treatment of asthma?
Epinephrine
Salbutamol
Ephedrine
Carvedilol
Which drug is classified as a narrow-spectrum penicillin?
Penicillin V
Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
Carbenicillin
Which of the following is a cytotoxic antibiotic used in cancer therapy?
Vindesine
Vincristine
Etoposide
Bleomycin
A narcotic analgesic such as morphine commonly causes which side effect?
Diarrhea
Dysphoria
Constipation
Hallucinations
Which agent is a beta‑lactamase inhibitor?
Clavulanic acid
Imipenem
Amikacin
Atropine
Which drug is most appropriate for lowering elevated blood cholesterol levels?
Carvedilol
Methyldopa
Atorvastatin
Nitroglycerine
Ranitidine is indicated for which condition?
Peptic ulcer disease
Pregnancy vomiting
Exophthalmic goitre
Toxic nodular goitre
Which antiprotozoal drug is effective against both intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis?
Metronidazole
Chloroquine
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin
Which statement is true about aminoglycosides?
They are bacteriostatic
They are bactericidal
They inhibit DNA synthesis
They are teratogenic
Which statement about anticoagulant (anti‑clotting) drugs is correct?
Warfarin is given orally
Heparin can be given orally
Heparin is safe in pregnancy
Their major side effect is clotting
What is the most appropriate intervention for a drowsy patient receiving anti‑anxiety drugs?
Withhold the drug and notify the physician
Let the patient take drugs with food and milk
Let the patient arise slowly from a sitting position
Advise the patient not to operate dangerous machinery
Antiparkinsonian agents act by restoring the natural balance of which neurotransmitters?
Dopamine and serotonin neurotransmitters
Serotonin and adrenaline neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine and dopamine neurotransmitters
Dopamine and noradrenaline neurotransmitters
Which class is considered first‑line therapy for acute asthma?
Beta‑adrenergic agonists
Methylxanthines
Anticholinergics
Corticosteroids
What is an appropriate treatment for a bacterial skin lesion?
Calamine lotion
10% hydrochloric acid
3% tetracycline cream
Hydrocortisone cream
Which side effect is associated with pethidine (meperidine)?
Dysphoria
Diarrhoea
Tachycardia
Constipation
Which oral drugs are used for iron‑deficiency anaemia?
Ferrous sulphate, ferrous gluconate
Ferrous fumarate, ferrous glucophage
Ferrous sulphate, iron sorbitol
Ferous fumarate, iron dextran
Which antifungal drug is an imidazole derivative?
Miconazole
Itraconazole
Voriconazole
Cotrimoxazole
Which combination lists anticonvulsant drugs?
Imipramine, primidone
Amitryptiline, phenobarbital
Imipramine, sodium valproate
Sodium valproate, phenobarbital
Which statement is true about antimalarial drugs?
Chloroquine is a tissue schizonticide
Quinine can be used in pregnancy
Pyrimethamine inhibits Plasmodium DNA
Primaquine may cause methemoglobinemia
Which is a common high‑level disinfectant?
Chlorine
Formaldehyde
Povidone‑iodine
Chlorhexidine
Which mechanism most commonly explains resistance to penicillins?
Absence of efflux pumps
β-lactamase–mediated inactivation
Impaired protein synthesis
Extended gram-negative coverage
Which pair lists nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)?
Zidovudine, efavirenz
Nevirapine, zidovudine
Stavudine, didanosine
Saquinavir, ritonavir
Which cephalosporin has sufficient penetration to cross the blood–brain barrier?
Cefepime
Cefixime
Cefazolin
Cefoperazone
Proton pump inhibitors are indicated for which condition?
Peptic ulcer disease
Pregnancy vomiting
Exophthalmic goitre
Toxic nodular goitre
Which agent is a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
Clavulanic acid
Imipenem
Amikacin
Atropine
Which of the following is classified as a cytotoxic antibiotic?
Vindesine
Vincristine
Etoposide
Bleomycin
A narcotic analgesic such as morphine commonly causes which side effect?
Diarrhea
Dysphoria
Constipation
Hallucinations
Which statement about anticlottings (anticoagulants) is true?
Warfarin is given orally
Heparin can be given orally
Their major side effect is clotting
Heparin is administered intrathecally
Which antifungal drug is an imidazole?
Miconazole
Itraconazole
Voriconazole
Cotrimoxazole
In the inflammatory process, what is the correct sequence of microcirculatory changes?
Vasodilation, leukocytic cellular infiltration, increased vascular permeability
Increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, leukocytic cellular infiltration
Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, leukocytic cellular infiltration
Leukocytic cellular infiltration, vasodilation, increased vascular permeability
A mass formed by infection of multiple adjacent hair follicles is referred to as what?
An abscess
A carbuncle
A furuncle
A gangrene
In oncology, neoplasia primarily means which of the following?
The uncontrolled growth of cells
A reversible cellular adaptation
Programmed cell death
Inflammatory exudate formation
Which pair correctly distinguishes drug classes: choose the NRTI and the NNRTI pair?
Stavudine (NRTI) and efavirenz (NNRTI)
Saquinavir (NRTI) and ritonavir (NNRTI)
Cefixime (NRTI) and nevirapine (NNRTI)
Imipenem (NRTI) and miconazole (NNRTI)
Select the scenario where a proton pump inhibitor is the most appropriate first-line therapy.
Epigastric pain with endoscopic evidence of peptic ulcer
Morning sickness in the first trimester
Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
Palpable toxic nodular goitre
A patient develops meningitis; which listed cephalosporin would be most appropriate due to blood–brain barrier penetration?
Cefazolin for skin infections
Cefixime for CNS penetration
Cefoperazone for biliary excretion
Cefepime for Pseudomonas coverage
Persistence and multiplication of live bacteria in the bloodstream is termed what?
Lymphangitis
Bacteremia
Fungemia
Pyemia
Which factor primarily determines the severity of an infection?
Presence of endotoxins in the blood
The mucous membranes acting as a barrier
Sensitivity of organisms to drugs
Failure of the inflammation process
A shock state caused by abnormal displacement of circulating blood volume within the vasculature is best referred to as what?
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Circulatory shock
Oligemic shock
Which type of hemorrhage occurs a few hours after an injury?
Primary
Obvious
Secondary
Reactionary
During a neurological examination, which tool is used to test fine touch sensation?
Tape measure
Tuning fork
Torch
Coin
Normal serum sodium levels are approximately what?
135–145 mEq/L
135–145 mg/dL
9.0–10.5 mg/dL
9.0–10.5 mEq/L
Which combination contributes to hypocalcemia?
Decreased oral intake of calcium, decreased vitamin D intake
Decreased oral intake of calcium, increased vitamin D intake
Increased oral intake of calcium, increased vitamin D intake
Increased oral intake of calcium, decreased vitamin D intake
Venous blood is typically described as which of the following?
Dark red and wells up in a steady stream
Very bright red and spurts with the pulse
Bright red and oozes with the pulse
Red and trickles with the heartbeat
Which factor helps determine the severity of an infection?
Sensitivity of micro-organisms to drugs
Endotoxins produced by the pathogen
The size of the micro-organisms
Impairment of skin integrity
A red macular rash on the trunk or hands and feet is a classical sign of which condition?
Septicemia
Fungemia
Toxemia
Pyemia
Dry gangrene most commonly occurs due to which underlying problem?
Reduction of blood flow through the arteries
Complication of an untreated infected wound
Infection by Clostridia bacteria
Marked increase in cholesterol levels
Hyperplasia is best defined as which cellular change?
Loss of normal characteristics from cells of origin
Abnormal change of tissue due to chronic inflammation
Growth of normal cells in an uncontrolled manner
Increase in the number of cells within a tissue
Which component of the immune system is released in response to viral infection?
Lymphocytes
Lymphokines
Interferons
Antibodies
A positive Trousseau’s sign indicates which electrolyte disorder?
Hypercalcemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypermagnesemia
Which set of findings represents signs and symptoms of revealed hemorrhage?
Dizziness, feeling cold, melena
Bleeding, hematuria, dizziness
Feeling cold, bleeding, dizziness
Hematuria, melena, hematemesis
Which of the following can contribute to hyperkalemia?
Shift of potassium into the cell
Excessive use of corticosteroids
Potassium-sparing diuretics
Excessive sweating by the patient
Identify the false statement regarding neoplasia.
Myelocytic leukemia is a benign cancer of the blood
Adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor of glandular epithelial tissue
Grading of tumors determines the size of a tumor
Grading of tumors evaluates non-involved body system functions
The primary aim of tumor grading is which of the following?
Determining the size of a tumor
Determining the presence of a tumor
Evaluating functions of non-involved body systems
Assessing the degree of differentiation and aggressiveness
An infection originating from the neck most likely causes inflammation of which lymph nodes?
Cervical lymph nodes
Inguinal lymph nodes
Parotid lymph nodes
Axilla lymph nodes
Which statement best defines septicemia?
Laboratory-proven presence of bacteria in the blood
Persistent multiplication of live bacteria in the blood
Presence of toxins in blood from a local site
Growth of blood-borne bacteria in distant organs
Which organism is classically associated with gas production in gangrene?
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringens
Streptococcus pyogens
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Select the normal range for serum potassium from the choices below.
3.5–5 mEq/L
9–10.5 mEq/L
2.5–4.5 mEq/L
1.4–2.0 mEq/L
In cancer biology, anaplasia refers to which cellular change?
Loss of normal characteristics from cells
Uncontrolled growth of normal cells
Conversion of mature cells to another type
Normal multiplications of normal cells
Which description most accurately characterizes arterial blood during bleeding?
Dark red and wells up in a steady stream
Very bright red and spurts with the pulse
Bright red and oozes with the pulse
Red and trickles with the heartbeat
Gas gangrene most commonly occurs under which condition?
Due to reduction of blood flow through the arteries
As a complication of an untreated infected wound
Due to infection by bacteria known as Clostridia
Due to a marked increase in cholesterol levels
Resistance to infection primarily depends on which factor?
First line of defense
The race of an individual
Antigens in the bloodstream
Blood volume within circulation
Which statement about second-degree burns is accurate?
Fluid loss is severe especially if more than 2% of body surface is involved
Involves destruction of the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis
The burned area is painless because nerve fibers are destroyed
Fluid loss is slight if less than 15% of body surface involved
The commonest causative organism of osteomyelitis is which of the following?
Beta streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
An impacted fracture is best defined as:
Bone fragment driven into another bone fragment
One side of the bone is broken and another is bent
Fragments of bone pulled away by ligament and tendons
Bone fracture resulting from repeated loading of bone
Volkmann’s contracture is a complication most commonly associated with which type of cast?
Leg cast
Arm cast
Body cast
Hip cast
Which of the following is included in conservative management of osteoarthritis?
Adequate intake of calcium and vitamins
Immediate surgical fixation of the joint
High-intensity plyometric exercises daily
Short-term high-dose systemic antibiotics
Which lifestyle measure is appropriate in conservative management of osteoarthritis?
Limit daily intake of meat and fish in diet
Weight reduction with avoidance of joint overuse
Weight bearing exercise for middle aged individuals
High-purine diet to improve energy
Medical management of gout typically includes which medication combination?
Probenecid with allopurinol
Calcitonin with colchicine
Prednisolone with alendronate (fosamax)
Sulfasalazine with calcium supplements
Subluxation is best defined as which of the following?
Traumatic joint dislocation
Pathologic joint dislocation
Partial joint dislocation
Complete joint dislocation
A condition leading to the development of osteomalacia is most closely associated with which of the following?
Chronic endocarditis
Peritonitis
Emphysema
Chronic pancreatitis
Which joint classification describes a fixed and immovable joint?
Synovial
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Gliding
Which list contains benign bone tumors?
Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
Osteochondroma, osteoid osteoma, enchondroma
Ewing sarcoma, osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
Multiple myeloma, osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma
An early indication of rheumatoid arthritis is most commonly:
Pain that improves with rest
Generalised body fatigue
Early morning stiffness
Chronic low back pain
Bone tissue consists primarily of which structural types?
Calcium and osteoblasts
Osteoclasts and osteocytes
Compact and cancellous bone
Osteophytes and periosteum
Following a fracture, which sequence best represents the order of bone healing?
Hematoma formation, cartilage formation, bone remodelling
Hematoma formation, bone remodelling, phagocytosis of clot
Remodelling of bone, phagocytosis, hematoma formation
Cartilage formation, granulation tissue, phagocytosis of clot
Which option lists early complications of fracture?
Regional pain syndrome and shock
A vascular necrosis and deep vein thrombosis
Compartment syndrome and fat embolism
Heterotrophic ossification and infection
Which drug group can predispose a patient to osteoporosis?
Gentamycin and aspirin
Furosemide and indomethacin
Methotrexate and gentamycin
Corticosteroids and antiseizure medications
The most common causative organism of osteomyelitis is:
Beta streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Impacted fracture is defined as:
A bone fragment driven into another bone fragment
One side of the bone is broken and another is bent
Fragments of bone pulled away by ligaments and tendons
A fracture resulting from repeated loading of bone
Volkmann’s contracture is a complication most associated with which cast?
Leg cast
Arm cast
Body cast
Hip cast
Which statement aligns with conservative management of osteoarthritis?
Adequate intake of calcium and vitamins only
Limit daily intake of meat and fish in diet as a primary measure
Weight reduction while avoiding joint overuse
Routine weight-bearing exercise for middle-aged individuals regardless of symptoms
Which medications are part of medical management of gout?
Calcitonin and colchicine
Prednisolone and fosamax
Sulfasalazine and calcium supplements
Probenecid and allopurinol
Subluxation refers to:
Complete joint dislocation
Traumatic joint dislocation
Pathologic joint dislocation
Partial joint dislocation
Which set lists predisposing factors to osteoporosis?
Joint overuse and increased age
Obesity and high purine diet
Low body weight with caffeine use
Increased oestrogen and increased age
What is the most common benign bone tumour?
Osteochondroma
Osteoid osteoma
Enchondroma
Osteosarcoma
Sequestrectomy is indicated for the removal of necrotic bone in which condition?
Chronic osteomyelitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Chronic osteomalacia
Compartment syndrome
Which feature best characterizes osteoarthritis?
Formation of tophi within the joints
Appearance of osteophytes within the joint
Development of involucrum within the joint
Formation of pannus within the joint
Which description correctly identifies the function of osteoclasts?
Cells involved in bone formation by secreting matrix
Multicellular cells involved in resorbing bone
Membrane in the joint that secretes lubricating fluid
Mature cells involved in bone maintenance functions
Which drug combination is recommended for the management of gout?
Calcitonin and probenecid
Allopurinol and colchicine
Fosamax and methotrexate
Sulfasalazine and corticosteroids
Which of the following is an indication for amputation?
Crushing injuries and severe burns
Acute osteomyelitis and benign tumours
Chronic osteomyelitis and congenital deformities
Peripheral vascular disease and osteoarthritis
A patient in a body cast needs postural drainage of the bronchial tree. Which position is recommended?
Supine position
Recumbent position
High Fowler’s position
Prone position
Sub-luxation in joint dislocation refers to which of the following?
Partial dislocation of articulating surface
Complete dislocation of articulating surface
Dislocation of articulating surface by a diseased process
Congenital dislocation of articulating surface
Which is an early indication of rheumatoid arthritis?
Pain that improves with rest
Generalised body fatigue
Early morning stiffness
Chronic low back pain
Fixed and immovable joints are classified as which type?
Cartilaginous
Fibrous
Synovial
Cancellous
Lateral deviation of the spine is referred to as which condition?
Scoliosis
Kyphosis
Lordosis
Ankylosis
Which of the following is a malignant bone tumour?
Osteochondroma
Osteoid osteoma
Endochondroma
Osteosarcoma
Which definition best describes a strain?
Soft tissue injury resulting from blunt force
Soft tissue injury resulting from muscle pull
Soft tissue injury resulting from injury to ligaments
Soft tissue injury resulting from joint dislocation
What type of fracture occurs when one bone fragment is driven into another?
Comminuted fracture
Impacted fracture
Greenstick fracture
Avulsion fracture
In osteoarthritis, what structural change within the joint typically develops over time?
Tophus accumulation around cartilage
Osteophyte formation at joint margins
Involucrum formation around synovium
Pannus spreading across articular cartilage
Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone resorption during remodeling?
Osteoblast
Osteoclast
Chondrocyte
Synoviocyte
For a patient with gout, which first-line medication reduces uric acid production?
Probenecid
Allopurinol
NSAIDs
Methotrexate
Which clinical situation most strongly warrants surgical amputation?
Minor soft tissue lacerations
Peripheral neuropathy without infection
Chronic osteomyelitis with nonviable tissue
Stable osteoarthritis managed conservatively
When facilitating bronchial drainage in a patient constrained by a body cast, which positioning maximizes gravity-assisted drainage?
Supine with pillows
Semi-recumbent with knees flexed
High Fowler’s with torso elevated
Prone with chest supported
Which term specifically denotes a partial displacement of joint surfaces?
Dislocation
Subluxation
Sprain
Strain
