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Ch. 4 Skeletal System Exam Review P-2

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which specialty focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal system, including bones, joints, ligaments, and tendons?

a)

Chiropractic

b)

Orthopedics

c)

Podiatry

d)

Radiography

2.

Identify the healthcare field that centers on the foot and ankle, including structural deformities and injuries of the lower extremity.

a)

Podiatry

b)

Arthroscopy

c)

Orthopedics

d)

Craniotomy

3.

Ewing’s sarcoma is best described as:

a)

An inflammatory joint disease affecting synovial membranes

b)

A malignant bone tumor typically occurring in children and adolescents

c)

A congenital spinal defect characterized by incomplete closure of vertebral arches

d)

A degenerative cartilage condition leading to joint space narrowing

4.

Match each spinal curvature term with its description.

a)

Kyphosis

1.

Excessive posterior thoracic curvature (hunchback)

b)

Lordosis

2.

Excessive anterior lumbar curvature (swayback)

c)

Scoliosis

3.

Lateral curvature of the spine

5.

Which condition involves an incomplete closure of the spinal column present at birth?

a)

Spinal stenosis

b)

Spina bifida

c)

Spondylolisthesis

d)

Subluxation

6.

Spondylolisthesis most accurately refers to:

a)

Partial dislocation of a joint

b)

Forward slippage of one vertebra over the one below it

c)

Narrowing of the spinal canal

d)

Inflammatory arthritis affecting multiple joints

7.

Gout is characterized by:

a)

Autoimmune destruction of synovial joints

b)

Urate crystal deposition causing acute inflammatory arthritis

c)

Degeneration of articular cartilage with osteophyte formation

d)

Congenital malalignment of the foot (talipes)

8.

Differentiate osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.

a)

Osteoarthritis is autoimmune, rheumatoid arthritis is degenerative

b)

Osteoarthritis involves cartilage wear-and-tear; rheumatoid arthritis is autoimmune synovitis

c)

Both are congenital; osteoarthritis affects infants, rheumatoid arthritis affects adolescents

d)

Osteoarthritis is inflammatory crystal deposition; rheumatoid arthritis is due to infection

9.

Subluxation is defined as:

a)

Complete dislocation of a joint

b)

Partial dislocation or misalignment within a joint

c)

Fracture through the growth plate

d)

Cartilage degeneration in weight-bearing joints

10.

Talipes refers to a congenital foot deformity commonly known as:

a)

Bowleg

b)

Knock-knee

c)

Clubfoot

d)

Flatfoot

11.

Arthroscopy is a procedure that:

a)

Removes the intervertebral disc via a percutaneous approach

b)

Allows visual examination and treatment of a joint using a fiber-optic scope

c)

Amputates a limb proximal to the site of infection

d)

Creates an opening in the skull for neurosurgical access

12.

Calcium supplements and vitamin D therapy are primarily indicated to:

a)

Improve cartilage hydration

b)

Enhance bone mineralization and prevent deficiency-related bone disease

c)

Treat acute gout flares by reducing urate levels

d)

Reverse congenital scoliosis

13.

Which pharmacologic class includes agents that reduce inflammation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin synthesis?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Bisphosphonates

14.

Corticosteroids exert anti-inflammatory effects primarily by:

a)

Directly chelating calcium from bone

b)

Upregulating glucocorticoid-responsive genes to suppress immune-mediated inflammation

c)

Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels in neurons

d)

Increasing synovial fluid viscosity

15.

Recall question: Which fracture is defined as a break in the bone that does not penetrate the skin?

a)

Compound fracture

b)

Closed fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Impacted fracture

16.

Identify the fracture commonly associated with a fall onto an outstretched hand that causes a distal radius break with dorsal displacement.

a)

Colles’ fracture

b)

Greenstick fracture

c)

Compression fracture

d)

Transverse fracture

17.

Which fracture involves bone fragments being crushed together, typically seen in vertebral bodies?

a)

Impacted fracture

b)

Compression fracture

c)

Oblique fracture

d)

Spiral fracture

18.

A bone is broken into three or more pieces. What is the classification?

a)

Transverse fracture

b)

Comminuted fracture

c)

Greenstick fracture

d)

Closed fracture

19.

Which term refers to a fracture that pierces through the skin, creating an open wound?

a)

Compound fracture

b)

Closed fracture

c)

Impacted fracture

d)

Spiral fracture

20.

In pediatric patients, which incomplete fracture shows one cortex bent and the other broken?

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Transverse fracture

c)

Oblique fracture

d)

Impacted fracture

21.

A fracture where one fragment is driven into the other due to axial loading is best described as:

a)

Impacted fracture

b)

Compression fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Closed fracture

22.

Which pattern runs diagonally across the bone shaft?

a)

Transverse fracture

b)

Oblique fracture

c)

Spiral fracture

d)

Greenstick fracture

23.

Which fracture pattern twists around the bone, often from rotational force?

a)

Transverse fracture

b)

Spiral fracture

c)

Compression fracture

d)

Comminuted fracture

24.

Recall the location: Which bone forms the lower jaw in the human skull? Choose the best answer.

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Zygomatic bone

d)

Palatine bone

25.

Match each bone to its anatomical region. Use the diagram to help you align the pairs accurately.

a)

Scapula

1.

Shoulder girdle/posterior of rib cage

b)

Patella

2.

Knee (anterior to the femur)

c)

Coccyx

3.

Tailbone at inferior end of vertebral column

d)

Metacarpals

4.

Hand between carpals and phalanges

26.

Strategic identification: A student points to the long bone of the thigh on the diagram. Which option correctly names this bone while also identifying its relation to nearby structures?

a)

Fibula; lateral to the tibia in the lower leg

b)

Femur; proximal to the patella and articulates with the pelvis

c)

Tibia; medial to the fibula and forms the shin

d)

Humerus; proximal to the radius and ulna in the arm

27.

Concept application: When labeling the vertebral column on the diagram, which sequence correctly orders the named regions from superior to inferior?

a)

Thoracic vertebrae, cervical vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx

b)

Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx

c)

Lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, cervical vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx

d)

Cervical vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, coccyx, sacrum

28.

Recall: How many vertebrae, in total, are there in the human spine? Provide the exact number.

(a)  

29.

Skill/Concept: Red blood cells are produced in the ______ while fat cells are produced in the ______.

a)

red marrow; yellow marrow

b)

yellow marrow; red marrow

c)

bone marrow; adipose tissue

d)

red marrow; white marrow

30.

Strategic Thinking: Identify the correct placement of vertebrae in the spine from top to bottom.

a)

Cervical → Thoracic → Lumbar → Sacral → Coccygeal

b)

Thoracic → Cervical → Lumbar → Sacral → Coccygeal

c)

Lumbar → Cervical → Thoracic → Sacral → Coccygeal

d)

Cervical → Lumbar → Thoracic → Sacral → Coccygeal

31.

Which type of fracture is most commonly seen in children due to the flexibility of their bones?

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Comminuted fracture

c)

Spiral fracture

d)

Compound fracture

32.

What is the medical term for the forward displacement of a vertebra, often leading to back pain and nerve compression?

a)

Compression fracture

b)

Subluxation

c)

Spina bifida

d)

Spondylolisthesis

33.

Which fracture is characterized by the bone being broken into several fragments?

a)

Oblique fracture

b)

Comminuted fracture

c)

Greenstick fracture

d)

Impacted fracture

34.

Which bone disorder is characterized by decreased bone density and increased risk of fractures, especially in postmenopausal women?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Gout

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

35.

What is the name of the joint that connects the femur to the pelvis?

a)

Shoulder joint

b)

Elbow joint

c)

Hip joint

d)

Knee joint

36.

Which type of arthritis is most commonly associated with aging and involves the breakdown of joint cartilage?

a)

Gout

b)

Psoriatic arthritis

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

37.

Which bone is most commonly fractured in the forearm of children due to falls?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Scaphoid

38.

Which joint is classified as a ball-and-socket joint, allowing movement in multiple directions?

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Ankle joint

c)

Hip joint

d)

Knee joint

39.

What is the primary function of synovial fluid within a joint?

a)

To provide structural support

b)

To produce red blood cells

c)

To lubricate and reduce friction between articular surfaces

d)

To store calcium

40-46.

The Journey of Bone Formation and Function

Bone formation begins during the fetal stage, where the skeleton primarily consists of cartilage. This cartilage gradually transforms into bone through a process called ossification, which starts around the eighth week of development. By birth, most of the cartilage has been replaced by bone, although some areas, like the growth plates, remain cartilaginous to allow for future growth. The skeletal system at birth is still developing, with bones being softer and more flexible compared to those of adults.

Bone marrow plays a crucial role in the skeletal system, residing within the hollow spaces of bones. It is a vital tissue responsible for producing red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body. In addition to red blood cells, bone marrow also produces white blood cells and platelets, essential for immune function and blood clotting. This process of blood cell production, known as hematopoiesis, is critical for maintaining overall health and supporting the body's ability to heal and fight infections.

As infants grow, their bones continue to ossify and strengthen, adapting to the demands of movement and weight-bearing. The production of red blood cells remains a constant function of the bone marrow, ensuring the body has sufficient oxygen for cellular processes. The skeletal system also serves as a reservoir for minerals like calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for bone strength and metabolic functions. Proper nutrition and physical activity during childhood are key to supporting healthy bone development.

Fractures, or breaks in bones, can occur at any stage of life, but the healing process is particularly remarkable. When a bone fractures, the body initiates a repair process that includes inflammation, the formation of a soft callus, and eventually the development of a hard callus. Bone marrow contributes to this process by producing cells that aid in tissue repair. Over time, the bone remodels itself, restoring its original structure and strength. This ability to heal underscores the dynamic and resilient nature of the skeletal system.

40.

What is the primary composition of the skeleton during the fetal stage?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Bone

c)

Muscle

d)

Tissue

41.

What is the process called where cartilage transforms into bone?

a)

Ossification

b)

Calcification

c)

Hematopoiesis

d)

Remodeling

42.

Which tissue is responsible for producing red blood cells?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Cartilage

c)

Growth plates

d)

Calcium

43.

What is the term for the production of blood cells in the bone marrow?

a)

Hematopoiesis

b)

Ossification

c)

Calcification

d)

Inflammation

44.

What minerals are stored in the skeletal system to support bone strength?

a)

Calcium and phosphorus

b)

Iron and magnesium

c)

Potassium and sodium

d)

Zinc and copper

45.

What happens first when a bone fractures?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Formation of a hard callus

c)

Remodeling

d)

Formation of a soft callus

46.

What role does bone marrow play in the healing of fractures?

a)

Produces cells that aid in tissue repair

b)

Stores minerals for bone strength

c)

Transforms cartilage into bone

d)

Supports weight-bearing activities

47.

METACARPALS

48.

Select the 1st Digit?

49.
Question Image

Use the diagram to match the color to the structure:

a)

distal phalanges

1.

Red

b)

middle phalanges

2.

Blue

c)

proximal phalanges

3.

Green

d)

metacarpals

4.

Yellow

e)

carpals

5.

Purple

50.
The ______________ is made up of arms, wrists, hands, fingers, legs, ankles, feet, and toes.
a)
Axial
b)
Appendicular
51.

This vertebrae would be considered which bone type?

a)

long

b)

short

c)

irregular

d)

sesamoid

52.

How many bones are there in your lower leg

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

53.

Pronounce spondylolisthesis

4 lines
54.

​In the human body, there are a total of ​ (a)   vertebrae in the spine. However, not all bones are single and some are fused. The two bones that are fused in the spine are the ​ (b)   and ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
33
sacrum
coccyx
32
24
lumbar
thoracic
cervical
55.

This skeleton appears to be in the (a)   position.