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Medical Assisting 3-4 Pre-Test 25-26

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most common insurance claim form is the: (MA 2.1)

a)

UB92 form

b)

ICD-9-CM

c)

CMS-1500 form

d)

CPT

2.

Medicare: (MA 2.1)

a)

was created by Title 19 of the Social Security Act

b)

covers most persons 65 years and older and individuals with a disability who cannot work

c)

is designed to cover prescriptions

d)

is handled separately by each state

3.

A system that was designed to convert descriptions of medical procedures into a five-digit numeric code and may have two-digit modifiers is the: (MA 2.1)

a)

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)

b)

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS)

c)

International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM)

d)

CMS-1500 (08-05)

4.

Maximum amount of money that third-party payors will pay for a specific procedure or service: (MA 2.2)

a)

Benefit

b)

Allowable charge

c)

Allowed service

d)

Incurred amount

5.

The deductible is the: (MA 2.2)

a)

A set amount the subscriber pays for each medical service

b)

An amount the subscriber must pay before the insurance begins to pay

c)

A percentage the subscriber is required to pay of every medical bill

d)

A percentage that the government pays towards each medical bill

6.

The set amount the subscriber pays for each medical service? (MA 2.2)

a)

Co-insurance

b)

Deductible

c)

Premium

d)

Co-Payment

7.

Which military insurance offers coverage for spouses and dependents for military veterans that have disability from their service? (MA 2.2)

a)

Tricare

b)

CHAMPVA

c)

Medicaid

d)

Medicare

8.

Which of the following is sent to the patient and details what the patients financial responsibility is and what expenses were paid to the provider? (MA 2.3)

a)

Remittance advice

b)

Estimate of benefits

c)

Explanation of benefits

d)

Advanced Beneficiary Notice

9.

What does a X in an ICD-10-CM indicate? (MA 2.4)

a)

Placeholder

b)

Left Eye

c)

Subsequent encounter

d)

Modifier

10.

HCPCS is the code set for which of the following? (MA 2.4)

a)

Hospital Inpatient

b)

Evaluation and Management

c)

Diagnoses

d)

Durable medical equipment

11.

A reports that lists balances owed on a patient account: (MA 2.5)

a)

Aging Report

b)

After Visit Summary

c)

Explanation of Benefits

d)

Encounter Form

12.

When a patient calls with an emergency, your first responsibility is to: (MA 4.6, 5.8)

a)

determine if the patient has an appointment.

b)

decide whether the problem can be treated in the office.

c)

verify that the physician can see the patient.

d)

identify the patient’s constellation of symptoms

13.

What type of scheduling allows for more than 1 patient to be scheduled at the same time slot? (MA 5.1)

a)

Cluster booking

b)

WAVE scheduling

c)

Double booking

d)

CHEDDAR

14.

Which is not an example of a scheduling type? (MA 5.1)

a)

Clustering

b)

Block

c)

Stream

d)

Wave

15.

Which is an example of PHI? (MA 3.2, 5.2)

a)

Published statistics by a credible source

b)

Insurance company’s mailing address

c)

Physician’s pager number

d)

First and last name associated with a diagnosis

16.

What is the primary purpose of identifying and using the correct chart forms? (MA 5.3)

a)

To increase charting errors

b)

To promote patient dissatisfaction

c)

To ensure accurate and organized documentation of patient information

d)

To save time and effort

17.

When you receive a patient lab report by fax, who must: (MA 5.4)

a)

Date and place in patient’s file

b)

Date, time stamp, and give it to the physician

c)

Call the patient

d)

Time stamp and place in file

18.

This type of medical charting is organized according to its suppliers or source: (MA 5.5)

a)

SOAP

b)

HOPS

c)

SOMR

d)

POMR

19.

Subjective observations include: (MA 5.5)

a)

Observations seen by the medical practitioner

b)

Symptoms that comes directly from the patient

c)

Results learned through an x-ray

d)

Information obtained through palpation by the medical practitioner

20.

After seeing a patient who was referred to your office, what should you do with the consultation report? (MA 5.6)

a)

File it

b)

Give to the patient to give to their PCP

c)

Shred it

d)

Send it the patient’s PCP/referring physician

21.

What is the primary purpose of sorting and prioritizing mail, email, and FAXES in a healthcare setting? (MA 5.7)

a)

To increase disorganization

b)

To delay response time

c)

To ensure timely and organized communication, facilitating efficient patient care

d)

To save time and effort

22.

Triaging calls is important because: (MA 5.8)

a)

it reduces the amount of time that callers wait

b)

it places the calls in order of most urgent to least urgent

c)

it lets the receptionist take care of the calls as quickly as possible

d)

it puts the calls in time order so the receptionist knows who called first.

23.

When a patient calls the office and wants to be seen for chest pain, your first action should be: (MA 5.8)

a)

Ask if he or she also has shortness of breath, nausea, and/or profuse sweating.

b)

Tell him or her to hang up and call 911.

c)

Asks the patient’s name in case he or she loses consciousness.

d)

Give the patient an appointment for the next day.

24.

Who would request preauthorization from an insurance company for a specific treatment? (MA 5.9)

a)

the patient

b)

the patient’s employer

c)

a specialty physician

d)

the treating physician/medical practice

25.

When do you verify the patient’s insurance eligibility? (MA 5.10)

a)

Only when they are a new patient.

b)

Only when insurance plan has changed

c)

Every visit

d)

Annually

26.

You work as a MA at specialty practice and receive a referral from a family practice office. Which of the following is the first action the medical assistant should take? (MA 5.10)

a)

Check the patient’s info and contact them.

b)

Get a signed Notice of Privacy Practices.

c)

Verify the reason for the referral and recommendation regarding how soon the patient should be seen.

d)

Book an appointment and notify the patient

27.

When should patient education should be provided in the office? (MA 5.11)

a)

The medical provider will handle patient education.

b)

Provide patient education to each patient as they check out.

c)

Refer patients to website.

d)

After the patient checks in

28.

When scheduling a new patient a medical assistant should: (MA 5.12)

a)

Establish a new electronic medical record

b)

Prepare the insurance claim paperwork

c)

Print off the discharge instructions

d)

Refer to another physician

29.

Which of the following would NOT be included in a living will? (MA 9.1)

a)

How a person’s assets should be distributed

b)

If a patient does not want to have tube feeding

c)

If a patient would like to be kept alive with life-prolonging equipment

d)

Whether a patient would like cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if cardiac arrest occurs

30.

What are the components of a medical record? (MA 9.1)

a)

Methods to increase confusion

b)

The parts that can be omitted

c)

Patient demographic information, medical history, progress notes, diagnostic test results, treatment plans, and consent forms

d)

Information irrelevant to patient care

31.

What is the primary goal of ensuring accuracy and completeness of the medical record? (MA 9.2)

a)

To increase confusion

b)

To promote errors and miscommunication

c)

To maintain a reliable and comprehensive record of patient information for continuity of care

d)

To save time and effort

32.

To which person/group would you need a subpoena for to release a medical record: (MA 9.3)

a)

Specialist physician

b)

Patient

c)

Parent of a minor

d)

Attorney

33.

The medical record (MA 9.3)

a)

Is the most credible evidence in various legal proceedings.

b)

Can’t be relied on for reimbursement purposes.

c)

May never be used to provide data for research studies.

d)

May not be introduced as evidence in domestic abuse cases

34.

Which of the following sequences correctly placed the names in alphabetical order? Use the number in front of the name to select the correct sequence. (MA 9.4) (1) Woods-Jones, Stephanie (2) Ross, Kim (3) Mitchell, Pat (4) Jones, Sandra

a)

(1), (2), (3), (4)

b)

(3), (2), (4), (1)

c)

(2), (3), (1), (4)

d)

(4), (3), (2), (1)

35.

What is the primary purpose of identifying medical filing systems? (MA 9.4)

a)

To complicate record keeping

b)

To increase errors in record organization

c)

To ensure organized and efficient retrieval of patient information

d)

To save time and effort

36.

A patient has been seen at an office within 2 to 5 years. His file would be considered _____. (MA 9.5)

a)

inactive

b)

closed

c)

active

d)

Suspended

37.

What is the primary purpose of explaining record retention practices in a healthcare setting? (MA 9.5)

a)

To complicate record keeping

b)

To increase errors in record organization

c)

To ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements and facilitate efficient retrieval of patient information

d)

To save time and effort

38.

What form would need to be filled out in order to release a patient’s record: (MA 9.6)

a)

Consent to treat form

b)

Medical release authorization form

c)

History form

d)

Subpoena

39.

What is the primary purpose of explaining the release of medical record and HIPAA requirements? (MA 9.6)

a)

To complicate record keeping

b)

To promote unauthorized disclosure of patient information

c)

To ensure compliance with patient privacy laws and protect patient confidentiality

d)

To save time and effort

40.

The 10-digit identification number issued to health care providers in the United States for Medicare and Medicaid services is the: (MA 11.2)

a)

New Product Introduction

b)

National Provider Identifier

c)

New Patient Information

d)

Non Policy Insurance

41.

A patient answers to the wrong name in the waiting room. What should the MA do next to ensure proper identification? (MA 6.1)

a)

Call the next patient instead

b)

Assume the patient made a mistake and take them back

c)

Ask the patient for two identifiers to confirm their identity

d)

Ask the patient for their insurance card only

42.

Your patient has a pulse rate of 45 beats per minute, she has which of the following conditions? (MA 6.2)

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Arrhythmia

43.

A patient presents with difficulty breathing the medical term you document in their chart is? (MA 6.2)

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Apnea

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Hypotension

44.

The blood pressure when the heart is contracting is which of the following? (MA 6.2)

a)

Diastolic

b)

Systolic

c)

Sphygmomanometer

d)

Asystole

45.

Which of the following is part of a patient’s medication history that a medical assistant must document during intake? (MA 6.3)

a)

The patient’s preferred pharmacy name only

b)

The name, dosage, and frequency of current medications

c)

Only medications prescribed in the last 24 hours

d)

Expiration dates of over-the-counter medications

46.

All of the following are measurements of weight except (MA 6.4)

a)

Milliliters

b)

Kilograms

c)

Gram

d)

Lbs

47.

Which of the following is tracked on a standard growth chart for patients ages 2 to 20? (MA 6.5)

a)

Age, height, and weight

b)

Age, head circumference, height

c)

Age, weight, BMI

d)

Age, head circumference, weight, height

48.

When weighing an infant the medical assistant should place their hands over the baby’s (MA 6.5)

a)

Abdomen

b)

Head

c)

Pelvis

d)

Shoulders

49.

A patient is coming in for a Pap smear. What position would she need to be placed in for the procedure? (MA 6.6)

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Prone

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Supine

50.

A patient appears anxious about changing into a gown. What is the best action for the medical assistant to take? (MA 6.7)

a)

Ignore the patient’s discomfort

b)

Tell the patient it’s required and leave the room quickly

c)

Explain the purpose of the gown, offer assistance if needed, and ensure privacy

d)

Tell the patient to stay dressed and proceed with the exam

51.

Which position and preparation are appropriate for a patient receiving an abdominal exam? (MA 6.7)

a)

Sitting position, fully clothed

b)

Supine position with abdomen exposed and draped appropriately

c)

Prone position with lower back exposed

d)

Lithotomy position with lower limbs uncovered

52.

The patient needs to be prepared for a sigmoidoscopy, in which position should this patient be positioned? (MA 6.8)

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Sim’s

c)

Prone

d)

Knee-chest/Genupctoral Position

53.

A patient with emphysema should be placed in this position (MA 6.8)

a)

Knee to Chest

b)

Sim’s Position

c)

Fowler’s Position

d)

Prone

54.

Which of the following actions helps ensure patient privacy during a medical examination? (MA 6.9)

a)

Leaving the door open for ventilation

b)

Asking the patient to talk about their symptoms in the waiting room

c)

Closing the door or curtain before asking the patient to undress

d)

Having another patient in the room as a witness

55.

During a routine exam, an elderly patient becomes unsteady while trying to step onto the scale. What should the MA do to ensure patient safety? (MA 6.9)

a)

Ask the patient to try again alone

b)

Quickly take their weight verbally instead

c)

Offer physical support, use a walker if available, or use an alternative scale

d)

Record the previous weight to avoid discomfort

56.

Which of the following is standard instruction for a patient scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test? (MA 6.10)

a)

Eat a light snack 30 minutes before the test

b)

Avoid taking any medications

c)

Do not eat or drink anything except water for 8–12 hours prior

d)

Arrive 2 hours early to the clinic

57.

A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy but expresses confusion about the bowel prep instructions. What is the medical assistant’s best course of action? (MA 6.10)

a)

Refer the patient to online videos

b)

Re-explain the instructions clearly using simple language and confirm understanding through teachback

c)

Ask the patient to call the provider's office later

d)

Tell the patient to just follow the packaging directions on the prep kit

58.

A doctor orders a sputum specimen to be collected from a patient. What must you do to collect the specimen? (MA 8.4)

a)

Provide the patient with a urine collection cup and cleaning swabs.

b)

Obtain blood samples.

c)

Collect vomitus from an emesis basin.

d)

Have the patient cough up phlegm into a designated sterile collection container.

59.

A urine specimen for routine urinalysis would be rejected by the laboratory because: (MA 8.4)

a)

The specimen had been refrigerated

b)

More than 50 mL was in the container

c)

The specimen and accompanying requisition did not match

d)

The label was placed on the side of the container

60.

Which of the following is not a CLIA waived test? (MA 8.6)

a)

CBC

b)

Glucose

c)

Hgb- Hemoglobin blood testing

d)

Hcg- Human Chorionic Gonadotropin testing