wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Patient Care Technician Practice Test 2

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true of enemas?

a)

Although physicians must order enemas, all assistants are permitted to administer enemas.

b)

When administering an enema, release the bottle while the bottle tip is still in the patient's rectum.

c)

Encourage the patient to take deep breaths through the mouth to help them relax.

d)

Patients should be placed in the prone position before administering an enema.

2.

What is the purpose of an ostomy?

a)

Allows surgeons access to the patient's intestines.

b)

To heal a patient's bowel.

c)

Allows waste to be expelled.

d)

Drains pus and other fluids from an internal wound or disease.

3.

What must you do if the connection end of the catheter accidentally touches the bed?

a)

Quickly move the catheter and inspect it for residue.

b)

Wipe the tube with an antiseptic wipe and then plug the tube.

c)

Plug the tube and call the nurse to insert a new, sterile, catheter.

d)

Wait for some urine to drain from the tube and then plug the tube.

4.

What type of catheter is left in the bladder, held in place by an inflated balloon?

a)

Texas.

b)

Condom.

c)

Straight.

d)

Indwelling.

5.

A catheter drainage bag should be emptied at least how often?

a)

Every 30 minutes

b)

Every 1 to 2 hours

c)

Every 8 hours

d)

Every 12 to 24 hours

6.

What is the key to bladder and bowel training success?

a)

Restrict the patient's intake for several weeks.

b)

Have plenty of staff able to assist patients when they feel the urge to eliminate.

c)

Establish a regular schedule of toileting.

d)

Use rewards when a patient has success in the training.

7.

For which type of training is it important for assistants to urge patients to eat foods high in fiber?

a)

Bladder training

b)

Bowel training

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

8.

What is the term that means a person is unable to predict and control elimination?

a)

Continent

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Incontinent

d)

Aspiration

9.

What does it mean to "force fluids?"

a)

To give fluids to the patient through straws

b)

To remind the patient to drink each time you are in the room

c)

To give an extra IV to a patient

d)

To refuse to give any food until the patient drinks a certain amount

10.

How many milliliters are equal to 1 ounce?

a)

3 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

1 mL

d)

30 mL

11.

Which of the following is true of an Intake and Output chart?

a)

The daily output should be half of the daily intake

b)

The chart contains two columns: intake and output

c)

Outputs are subtracted from inputs each hour during the day

d)

The daily intake should be almost the same as the daily output.

12.

Which of the following is true of intake?

a)

One glass of juice is equal to 300 cc or mL

b)

Intake is measured in milligrams or ounces

c)

Oral intake may need to be estimated

d)

IV fluids must be estimated

13.

Why is it important to face patients while feeding them?

a)

So you can see if the patient likes the food or not.

b)

To interact and make the patient the focus of attention.

c)

So the patient can see what is being served.

d)

It is not important to face patients while feeding them.

14.

How long after a meal should a patient remain in an upright position?

a)

5 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

1 hour

15.

Which of the following is NOT true?

a)

Aspiration is a serious risk with enteral feedings.

b)

An enteral feeding should be given straight from the refrigerator to ensure it is fresh.

c)

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and hyperalimentation have the same meaning.

d)

NG tubes and nasointestinal tubes are used for short-term enteral feedings.

16.

Which of the following is NOT true?

a)

A pureed diet may be used for patients who have difficulty swallowing.

b)

Snacks are served between meals for patients on a high-calorie diet.

c)

The sizes of food portions should be controlled on a calorie-restricted diet.

d)

Cheese and butter are good food choices for a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.

17.

Which of the following is true?

a)

A less-effective gag reflex in older persons increases their risk for choking.

b)

Pain and nausea often lead patients to eat more in response.

c)

Liquids or foods ordered by a physician to improve a patient's nutrition are called nourishments.

d)

While they may prepare the food differently, all cultures use beef as their main source of protein.

18.

At the end of breakfast, you notice that Rhonda did not drink any of her milk. She says she does not like milk because it upsets her stomach. What should you do?

a)

Ask Rhonda if she would like a different beverage, and then check with the dietary department.

b)

Scold Rhonda for not consuming everything that was served with the meal.

c)

Smell the milk to make sure it is not sour, and then leave it out on her overbed table for the rest of the morning.

d)

Give Rhonda a straw to drink the milk so she will not have to taste it as much.

19.

Which of the following is true of elasticized stockings?

a)

The top of the stocking should be mid-knee.

b)

Sores, swelling, and numbness in the legs or feet should all be reported immediately.

c)

Stockings come in one size that fit most patients.

d)

Assistants are not permitted to apply elasticized stockings.

20.

What should you do if a patient begins to feel dizzy while you are helping with breathing and coughing exercises?

a)

Monitor the situation over the course of your shift.

b)

Ask the patient to 'work through it' to improve their recovery.

c)

Note it in the patient chart and allow the nurse to handle the situation.

d)

Report it to the supervisor immediately.

21.

Which of the following is a compressive garment that is applied to the abdomen, chest, or perineal area?

a)

A binder

b)

A dressing

c)

A bandage

d)

A compressor

22.

How often must elasticized stockings be removed?

a)

Twice a day

b)

At least once every eight hours for 30 minutes

c)

Every hour for 5 minutes

d)

After four hours

23.

Describe elderly people's sensitivity to temperature.

a)

They have less sensitivity to temperature.

b)

They have the same sensitivity to temperature as younger people.

c)

They have more sensitivity to temperature.

24.

Which is a dry cold application?

a)

Ice bag

b)

Cold soak

c)

Cold compress

25.

What is a hot soak?

a)

A moist heat application

b)

A dry heat application

c)

A moist cold application

26.

What area of the body is treated using a sitz bath?

a)

The feet

b)

The lower body

c)

The back

d)

The perineal and rectal areas

27.

Cold applications have a numbing effect. What benefit does this result in?

a)

Pain relief

b)

Reduced swelling

c)

Decreased bleeding

28.

Which range of motion term means 'bending a body part'?

a)

Opposition

b)

Extension

c)

Supination

d)

Flexion

29.

What is a reduction in the normal movement of a joint?

a)

Limited range of motion

b)

Passive range of motion

c)

Active range of motion

d)

Full range of motion

30.

Which of the following is NOT true of ROM exercises?

a)

Encourage movement beyond the patient's range of motion

b)

Increases the flexibility of muscles and tissue surrounding a joint

c)

Do not exercise the patient's neck unless instructed and permitted to do so

d)

Must be completed according to the patient's care plan

31.

Which level of range of motion assistance is the most assistive?

a)

Resistive ROM exercises

b)

Passive ROM exercises

c)

Active ROM exercises

d)

Active assistive ROM exercises

32.

When assisting patients with range of motion (ROM) exercises, what should health care workers do?

a)

Leave the bed in a raised position

b)

Expose the entire side of the body being exercised

c)

Exercise the body part while it is covered

d)

Expose only the body part being exercised

33.

Which of the following is true?

a)

People with poor balance should never use canes.

b)

All patients with crutches use the same gait.

c)

The handlebars of walkers should be level with the patient's hips.

d)

When using axillary crutches, patients should rest their weight on the axillary bars.

34.

Which type of cane provides patients with the minimum amount of stability and support?

a)

Single-tipped canes

b)

Hemiwalkers

c)

Multiple-tipped canes

35.

On which side of the body should patients use canes?

a)

The unaffected side of the body

b)

The affected side of the body

36.

Which assistive device provides patients with the most stability and support?

a)

Crutches

b)

Canes

c)

Walkers

37.

What should a health care worker do if the patient begins to fall?

a)

Try to prevent the fall

b)

Help patients safely to the floor

c)

Rush the patient back to the room

d)

Step away and move furniture around the patient

38.

Mrs. Smith is recovering from a stroke and needs minimal physical assistance with ambulation. This level of assistance is called:

a)

Supervised

b)

Independent

c)

Limited

d)

Setup

39.

After lowering a falling patient to the floor, what should you do?

a)

Stay with the patient and call a nurse

b)

Leave the patient and go get a nurse

c)

Find a wheelchair

d)

Help the patient get up and walk back to the room

40.

When helping a patient to ambulate, where should the health care workers stand?

a)

To the patient's unaffected side and in front of patient

b)

To the patient's affected side and slightly behind patient

c)

Behind the patient, holding the transfer belt

d)

Directly beside the patient's affected side

41.

What type of tool do patients use to do activities of daily living (ADLs) they otherwise would have trouble doing?

a)

Activities aide

b)

Assistive device

c)

Independent device

d)

Activity of daily living device

42.

Mr. Peterson has dementia and needs simple directions as prompts to do ADLs. This type of ADL training is called:

a)

Setup

b)

Hand-over-hand

c)

Demonstration

d)

Verbal cues

43.

In order to bathe as independently as possible, what assistive device(s) may patients use?

a)

Canes

b)

Walkers

c)

Grab bars

d)

Seat lifts

44.

For eating, a health care worker opens containers and packages, puts condiments on food, cuts food, and opens the napkin. What type of activities of daily living (ADL) training is this an example of?

a)

Setup

b)

Hand-over-hand

c)

Demonstration

d)

Verbal cues

45.

What is an orthotic device?

a)

A device that is applied externally to a body part to support or control movement

b)

An artificial replacement for a missing body part

c)

A device that makes a part of the body work better

d)

All of the above

46.

Who is primarily responsible for planning and providing restorative care to patients?

a)

The nursing team

b)

The patients' family

c)

Physicians

d)

The physical therapy team

47.

Which of the following is a way to help patients be as independent as possible?

a)

Force a patient to complete a task.

b)

Offer as much assistance as possible.

c)

Help a patient with a task only if assistance is needed.

d)

Get frustrated when a patient asks for help completing a task.

48.

Which of the following laws requires rehabilitation and restorative care be available for patients?

a)

OBRA

b)

OSHA

c)

HIPAA

d)

None of the above

49.

Why is it important for patients to ambulate after surgery?

a)

To maintain muscle strength

b)

To encourage them to void in the bathroom

c)

To prevent circulatory and respiratory problems

d)

To get an accurate blood pressure reading

50.

How often are vital signs taken in the PACU after surgery?

a)

Every 5 minutes

b)

Every 15 to 60 minutes

c)

Every 2 to 4 hours

d)

Whenever there is time

51.

When patients are asked to rate their pain from 0 to 10, what does 10 mean?

a)

No pain

b)

Moderate pain

c)

Severe pain

d)

Mild pain

52.

Which of the following is a sign of infection?

a)

Wound drainage with foul odor

b)

Decreased pain

c)

Hunger

d)

Regular breathing

53.

What is done with disposable supplies that are contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids?

a)

Drop them in a sharps container.

b)

Discard in a biohazardous waste bag.

c)

Put in the trashcan with other non-contaminated items.

d)

Wrap the supplies in gauze or paper towels and put in a regular trashcan.

54.

What are stitches that hold the skin together?

a)

Sutures

b)

Staples

c)

Adhesive strips

d)

Tissue glue

55.

What is a collection of pus that is caused by an infection?

a)

A biopsy

b)

A skin lesion

c)

An incision

d)

An abscess

56.

How should additional surgical instruments and supplies be arranged on the counter?

a)

In order of use

b)

In order of size

c)

In order of sharpness

d)

By type

57.

What is contaminated if an item on a sterile tray becomes contaminated?

a)

Only the contaminated item

b)

The contaminated item and all of the items it touched on the sterile tray

c)

The entire sterile tray

d)

None of the above

58.

In which direction should an assistant shave the operative site?

a)

Shave in short vertical strokes, across the operative site.

b)

Shave outward from the operative site.

c)

Shave away from your body, across the operative site.

d)

Shave inward toward the operative site.

59.

What may be used to track the tasks that need to be completed before surgery?

a)

Authorization checklist

b)

Preoperative checklist

c)

Postoperative instructions

d)

All of the above

60.

What is used to track the tasks that need to be completed before surgery?

a)

Operative information

b)

Postoperative instructions

c)

Preoperative checklist

d)

Authorization checklist

61.

What do food and fluid restrictions before surgery reduce the risk of?

a)

Patients requesting food and fluids

b)

Patients being tired the morning of surgery

c)

Patients having to use the bathroom

d)

Patients vomiting and aspirating

62.

What prevents surgery from being performed on the wrong part of the body?

a)

The physician marks the operative site.

b)

The assistant leaves the operative site uncovered after prepping the skin.

c)

The assistant documents the surgical site on the preoperative checklist.

d)

The patient reminds the surgeon during the procedure.

63.

Which of the following is true?

a)

A patient's family and caregivers will not rely on you for their own psychological care.

b)

A patient's financial concerns have usually been taken care of before the day of surgery.

c)

A patient will not notice if you ignore their needs.

d)

You should only answer questions that you are qualified to answer.

64.

Which of the following is an example of medical asepsis?

a)

Chemical sterilization

b)

Handwashing

c)

Sterile field

d)

Autoclave

65.

What should health care workers do to provide psychological care to patients?

a)

Allow patients to talk and listen to what they say.

b)

Smile and say that you are not the person to help them.

c)

Ignore patients' body language.

d)

Just focus on your tasks and try not to get involved.

66.

Which type(s) of asepsis eliminates all microorganisms and spores?

a)

Medical asepsis

b)

Surgical asepsis

c)

All of the above

67.

Which patients should be considered infectious?

a)

Homeless and addicted patients

b)

Patients with a cough and fever

c)

Pediatric and elderly patients

d)

All patients should be considered infectious

68.

Which of the following is true of elasticized stockings?

a)

The top of the stocking should be mid-knee.

b)

Sores, swelling, and numbness in the legs or feet should all be reported immediately.

c)

Stockings come in one size that fit most patients.

d)

Assistants are not permitted to apply elasticized stockings.

69.

What should you do if a patient begins to feel dizzy while you are helping with breathing and coughing exercises?

a)

Note it in the patient chart and allow the nurse to handle the situation.

b)

Ask the patient to 'work through it' to improve their recovery.

c)

Monitor the situation over the course of your shift.

d)

Report it to the supervisor immediately.

70.

Which of the following is a compressive garment that is applied to the abdomen, chest, or perineal area?

a)

A binder

b)

A dressing

c)

A bandage

d)

A compressor

71.

How often must elasticized stocking be removed?

a)

After four hours

b)

At least once every eight hours for 30 minutes

c)

Twice a day

d)

Every hour for 5 minutes

72.

What is the mixture of specimen and saline called?

a)

Smear

b)

Stain

c)

Suspension

d)

Solution

73.

In a direct smear, how is the specimen sealed to the slide?

a)

By placing a cover slip over the specimen

b)

By applying a chemical sealant

c)

By letting it air-dry

d)

By heating it with a Bunsen burner

74.

What is the total magnification of a microscope when the ocular lens is combined with a 10X objective lens?

a)

10X

b)

100X

c)

500X

d)

1000X

75.

Which area of the throat should you swab during a throat culture?

a)

Areas that are raw and swollen

b)

Areas with no sign of infection

c)

Area nearest the tonsils

d)

As far down the throat as you can, without making the patient vomit

76.

How long should cultures be kept in an incubator?

a)

5 to 10 hours

b)

12 to 24 hours

c)

24 to 48 hours

d)

48 to 72 hours

77.

After completing Gram's stain, what color should Gram-positive bacteria be?

a)

Green

b)

Pink

c)

Yellow

d)

Purple

78.

What is mucus that forms in the bronchial tubes during a respiratory infection?

a)

Sputum

b)

Pus

c)

Saliva

d)

Plasma

79.

What is occult blood?

a)

Blood from the menstrual flow

b)

Blood from hemorrhoids

c)

Microscopic blood from the intestinal tract

d)

Bright red blood from the stomach