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RTE ACT 2009 & RTI ACT 2005 QUIZ

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the minimum age group of children for whom the RTE ACT provides free and compulsory education?

a)

Three to fourteen years

b)

Six to ten years

c)

Six to fourteen years

d)

Three to eighteen years

2.

According to the RTE ACT, what does 'elementary education' mean?

a)

Education from pre-school to fifth class

b)

Education from first class to eighth class

c)

Education from sixth class to tenth class

d)

Education up to tenth class

3.

How is 'capitation fee' defined in the RTE ACT?

a)

Any fee required for books and uniforms

b)

Any kind of donation or contribution or payment other than the fee notified by the school

c)

Only the initial admission charge

d)

The annual tuition fee

4.

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of a 'local authority' under the RTE ACT?

a)

Municipal Corporation

b)

Zila Parishad

c)

Gram Sabha

d)

Nagar Panchayat

5.

What is the minimum percentage of seats reserved for children belonging to weaker section and disadvantaged group in Class I in unaided schools (sub-clause (iv) of section 2(n))?

a)

Ten per cent

b)

Fifteen per cent

c)

Twenty-five per cent

d)

Fifty per cent

6.

What is the maximum fine for receiving a capitation fee in contravention of the RTE ACT?

a)

Ten thousand rupees

b)

Twenty-five thousand rupees

c)

Ten times the capitation fee charged

d)

One lakh rupees

7.

What is the maximum fine for the first contravention of subjecting a child to screening procedure during admission?

a)

Fifty thousand rupees

b)

Ten times the fee charged

c)

Twenty-five thousand rupees

d)

One lakh rupees

8.

For the purpose of admission to elementary education, the age of a child shall primarily be determined on the basis of the birth certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of which RTE ACT?

a)

Indian Penal Code, 1860

b)

Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration RTE ACT, 1886

c)

Child Protection RTE ACT, 2005

d)

Indian Evidence RTE ACT, 1872

9.

In an aided school (sub-clause (ii) of section 2(n)), the proportion of children to be provided free and compulsory elementary education is subject to a minimum of what percentage?

a)

Ten per cent

b)

Twenty per cent

c)

Twenty-five per cent

d)

Thirty-three per cent

10.

Where a child above six years has not been admitted or has not completed elementary education, to which class shall he or she be admitted?

a)

First class only

b)

A class appropriate to his or her age

c)

A special coaching center

d)

The class they last attended

11.

If a child is directly admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age, what provision is required to bring them at par with others?

a)

Private tuition by the teacher

b)

Home-based assignments

c)

Special training facility

d)

Mandatory evening classes

12.

How long does a child admitted to elementary education after the age of fourteen remain entitled to free education?

a)

Until age sixteen

b)

Until completion of elementary education

c)

For two years only

d)

Until they pass the eighth class examination

13.

Under Section 21, what is the minimum proportion of members of the School Management Committee (SMC) that must be parents or guardians?

a)

Half

b)

Two-thirds

c)

Three-fourth

d)

All members

14.

What minimum percentage of Members of the School Management Committee (SMC) shall be women?

a)

Twenty-five per cent

b)

Thirty-three per cent

c)

Fifty per cent

d)

Sixty per cent

15.

What is the penalty for running a school without obtaining a certificate of recognition?

a)

Fine up to ten thousand rupees

b)

Fine up to one lakh rupees and, in case of continuing contravention, a fine of twenty thousand rupees for each day

c)

Fine up to one lakh rupees and, in case of continuing contravention, a fine of ten thousand rupees for each day

d)

Imprisonment only

16.

What is the minimum number of working days required for the first class to the fifth class in an academic year, according to the Schedule under RTE ACT?

a)

One hundred and eighty

b)

Two hundred

c)

Two hundred and twenty

d)

Two hundred and forty

17.

What is the minimum number of working days required for the sixth class to the eighth class in an academic year, according to the Schedule under RTE ACT?

a)

Two hundred

b)

Two hundred and ten

c)

Two hundred and twenty

d)

Two hundred and forty

18.

What is the minimum number of instructional hours per academic year for first class to fifth class?

a)

Eight hundred instructional hours

b)

One thousand hours

c)

Seven hundred hours

d)

One thousand two hundred hours

19.

What is the minimum number of instructional hours per academic year for sixth class to eighth class?

a)

Eight hundred hours

b)

Nine hundred hours

c)

One thousand instructional hours

d)

One thousand two hundred hours

20.

What is the minimum number of working hours per week required for a teacher (teaching including preparation hours)?

a)

Thirty-five hours

b)

Forty hours

c)

Forty-five hours

d)

Fifty hours

21.

For classes I to V, if the admitted children are between sixty-one to ninety, how many teachers are required?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

22.

For classes VI to VIII, what is the required Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR)?

a)

At least one teacher for every twenty-five children

b)

At least one teacher for every thirty children

c)

At least one teacher for every thirty-five children

d)

At least one teacher for every forty children

23.

Which Central Government body has the concurrent responsibility with State Governments for providing funds for carrying out the provisions of the RTE ACT?

a)

Ministry of Finance

b)

Reserve Bank of India

c)

Central Government

d)

Planning Commission

24.

The Head-teacher delaying issuance of a transfer certificate shall be liable for disciplinary action under which rules?

a)

Criminal Procedure Code

b)

Civil Procedure Code

c)

Service rules applicable to him or her

d)

RTE guidelines

25.

The maximum number of Members in the National Advisory Council, constituted by the Central Government under RTE ACT, shall not exceed:

a)

Ten

b)

Twelve

c)

Fifteen

d)

Twenty

26.

For classes I to V, if the number of admitted children is above 200, the Pupil-Teacher Ratio (excluding the Head-teacher) shall not exceed:

a)

Twenty

b)

Thirty

c)

Thirty-five

d)

Forty

27.

Which specific education institutions are explicitly stated NOT to be applied to by the provisions of this RTE ACT?

a)

Government Schools, Aided Schools, and Unaided Schools

b)

Kendriya Vidyalaya, Navodaya Vidyalaya, and Sainik School

c)

Madrasas, Vedic Pathsalas, and educational institutions primarily imparting religious instruction

d)

Schools specified in sub-clause (iii) of clause (n) of section 2

28.

Under Section 17, whoever contravenes the prohibition of physical punishment or mental harassment to a child shall be liable to disciplinary action under which rules?

a)

The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights RTE ACT

b)

The service rules applicable to such person

c)

Criminal Procedure Code

d)

Rules prescribed by the SMC

29.

Who is required to provide infrastructure including school building, teaching staff and learning equipment as a duty under Section 8?

a)

The Head-teacher

b)

The National Advisory Council

c)

The appropriate Government

d)

The parents/guardian

30.

Under RTE ACT, The Central Government may, by ___________, amend the Schedule by adding to, or omitting therefrom, any norms and standards.

a)

Resolution in Parliament

b)

Notification

c)

Order of the President

d)

Executive Order

31.

Which academic authority is authorized by the Central Government to lay down the minimum qualifications for appointment as a teacher?

a)

University Grants Commission

b)

Academic authority, authorised by the Central Government, by notification

c)

State Education Board

d)

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

32.

If a school is derecognised, the order withdrawing recognition must contain a direction regarding the admission of the children studying in that school to which type of school?

a)

Any private school

b)

Any nearby government school

c)

Which of the neighbourhood school

d)

The closest available aided school

33.

How long must the local authority take to decide a matter after receiving a written grievance relating to the right of a child under the RTE ACT?

a)

Within one month

b)

Within two months

c)

Within a period of three months

d)

Within six months

34.

For classes VI to VIII, if the admission of children is above one hundred, the school must have a full-time Head-teacher and part-time instructors for Art Education, Health and Physical Education, and which third subject?

a)

Computer Science

b)

Work Education

c)

Moral Science

d)

Home Science

35.

As per the 2022 amendment, what is the required ratio for a Special Education Teacher for children with special needs in the first class to fifth class?

a)

One Special Education teacher for every five pupils with disabilities

b)

One Special Education Teacher for every ten pupils with disabilities enrolled

c)

One Special Education teacher for every fifteen pupils with disabilities enrolled

d)

One Special Education teacher for every twenty pupils with disabilities enrolled

36.

In the context of curriculum and evaluation procedure, the academic authority laying down procedures shall take into consideration:

a)

Conformity with the values enshrined in the Constitution

b)

All round development of the child

c)

Learning through activities, discovery and exploration in a child friendly and child-centered manner

d)

Comprehensive and continuous evaluation of child's understanding of knowledge

37.

Which of the following bodies perform monitoring functions related to the PROTECTION OF RIGHT OF CHILDREN under the RTE ACT (Chapter VI)?

a)

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

b)

The State Commission for Protection of Child Rights

c)

Local Authority

d)

School Management Committee

38.

The School Management Committee (SMC) shall perform which of the following functions?

a)

Monitor the working of the school

b)

Prepare and recommend school development plan

c)

Monitor the utilisation of grants received from the appropriate Government

d)

Decide the academic calendar

39.

Which of the following duties must a teacher perform under the RTE ACT?

a)

Maintain regularity and punctuality in attending school

b)

Complete entire curriculum within the specified time

c)

Hold regular meetings with parents and guardians and apprise them about the child's progress

d)

Engage himself or herself in private tuition

40.

Which of the following non-educational purposes may a teacher be deployed for under the RTE ACT?

a)

Decennial population census

b)

Disaster relief duties

c)

Duties relating to elections to the local authority or the State Legislatures or Parliament

d)

Collecting data for government schemes unrelated to elections/census/relief

41.

Which of the following are included in the definition of a 'child belonging to disadvantaged group'?

a)

A child with disability

b)

A child belonging to the Schedule Caste

c)

A child belonging to the Schedule Tribe

d)

A child belonging to socially and educationally backward class

42.

Which category of schools, specified in clause (n) of section 2, is/are excluded from the compulsory requirement to constitute a School Management Committee (SMC) under Section 21?

a)

School established, owned or controlled by the appropriate Government or a local authority

b)

Aided school

c)

Unaided school

d)

School belonging to specified category

43.

According to the norms and standards in the Schedule under RTE ACT, an all-weather school building must consist of which features?

a)

At least one class-room for every teacher and an office-cum-store-cum-Head teacher’s room

b)

Barrier-free access

c)

Safe and adequate drinking water facility to all children

d)

A kitchen where mid-day meal is cooked in the school

44.

The 'appropriate Government' means, in relation to a school established, owned or controlled by the Central Government, or the administrator of a Union territory having no legislature, which entity?

a)

The State Government

b)

The Central Government

c)

The Local Authority

d)

The administrator of the Union territory

45.

The duties of the local authority include:

a)

Maintain records of children up to the age of fourteen years residing within its jurisdiction

b)

Monitor functioning of schools within its jurisdiction

c)

Decide the academic calendar

d)

Provide special training facility specified in section 4

46.

If a child fails in the regular examination in the fifth class or eighth class, what provisions are made under Section 16 (as amended in 2019)?

a)

The child shall be given additional instruction

b)

The child shall be granted opportunity for re-examination within two months

c)

The appropriate Government may allow schools to hold back the child if they fail the re-examination

d)

The child must immediately seek transfer to another school

47.

The Central Government is responsible for providing technical support and resources to the State Government for promoting which activities?

a)

Innovations

b)

Researches

c)

Planning

d)

Capacity building

48.

A school specified in sub-clause (i) of clause (n) of section 2 (Government/Local Authority school) shall provide free and compulsory elementary education to:

a)

Children belonging to weaker section only

b)

Children belonging to disadvantaged group only

c)

All children admitted therein

d)

Only children whose parents request it

49.

For seeking admission in a school following a transfer, what is the immediate duty of the Head-teacher or in-charge of the school where the child was last admitted?

a)

Verify the parent's income status

b)

Immediately issue the transfer certificate

c)

Assess the child's academic level

d)

Obtain previous sanction for prosecution

50.

Which key components are required for the physical infrastructure of a school according to the Schedule under RTE ACT?

a)

Separate toilets for boys and girls

b)

Playground

c)

Arrangements for securing the school building by boundary wall or fencing

d)

Library providing newspaper, magazines and books on all subjects

51.

Which body is/are protected from suit or other legal proceedings if action is taken in good faith in pursuance of this RTE ACT?

a)

The Central Government

b)

The State Commission for Protection of Child Rights

c)

The School Management Committee

d)

The Local authority

52.

According to the 2022 amendment regarding Itinerant Special Education Teacher deployment in a cluster of schools, which conditions must be met regarding school distance?

a)

Not more than five schools should be allotted.

b)

Not more than four schools should be allotted.

c)

Distance between any two allotted schools should not be more than ten kilometers.

d)

Distance between any two allotted schools should not be more than five kilometers.

53.

Statement: The RTE ACT shall extend to the whole of India.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Statement: Delay in producing a transfer certificate shall be a ground for denying admission in a new school.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Statement: The term "compulsory education" means the obligation of the appropriate Government to provide free elementary education to every child of the age of three to fourteen years.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Statement: A parent or guardian is exempted from the duty to admit their child to an elementary education if the child belongs to a disadvantaged group.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Statement: In the case of pre-school education, the SMC constitution provisions apply for admission to such education if the school imparts it.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Statement: No child shall be denied admission in a school for lack of age proof.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Statement: A teacher is prohibited from engaging in private tuition or private teaching activity.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Statement: The medium of instructions for elementary education shall, as far as practicable, be in the child's mother tongue.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

When did the RTI ACT, 2005, receive the President's assent?

a)

15th April, 2005

b)

15th May, 2005

c)

15th June, 2005

d)

15th July, 2005

62.

Which of the following is explicitly included in the definition of "record" under RTI ACT?

a)

Any document, manuscript and file

b)

Cabinet papers

c)

Press releases

d)

Monthly remuneration

63.

The term "right to information" accessible under this RTI ACT includes the right to take which of the following?

a)

Certified samples of material

b)

Certified copies of private body records

c)

Obtaining confidential information

d)

Demanding a fresh inquiry

64.

In relation to a public authority substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly by a Union territory administration, who is the "appropriate Government"?

a)

The administrator appointed under article 239

b)

The State Government

c)

The Central Government

d)

The Union Territory Legislative Assembly

65.

Which of the following bodies is defined as a 'competent authority' in the case of the Supreme Court?

a)

The President

b)

The Chief Justice of India

c)

The Speaker of the House of the People

d)

The Administrator appointed under Article 239

66.

A non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government, is included in the definition of:

a)

Third party

b)

Competent authority

c)

Public authority

d)

Private body

67.

How frequently must a public authority update the information published under Section 4(1)(b)?

a)

Quarterly

b)

Half-yearly

c)

Annually (every year)

d)

Biannually

68.

For the purpose of Section 4(1), public authorities are required to provide reasons for their administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to:

a)

The media

b)

Affected persons

c)

The appropriate Government

d)

The Information Commission

69.

If an application for information is given to a Central Assistant Public Information Officer (CAPIO), how many days shall be added in computing the period for response specified under Section 7(1) to forward it to CPIO?

a)

Two days

b)

Three days

c)

Five days

d)

Seven days

70.

If a CPIO/SPIO seeks the assistance of another officer for proper discharge of duties, that assisting officer shall be treated as:

a)

A subordinate officer

b)

A third party

c)

A CPIO/SPIO for purposes of contravention of the RTI ACT

d)

A competent authority

71.

When making a request for information, the applicant is generally NOT required to provide which of the following?

a)

A request in writing

b)

The fee prescribed

c)

Any reason for requesting the information

d)

The particulars of the information sought

72.

If an application is received by the wrong public authority, the transfer to the appropriate public authority must be made as soon as practicable, but in no case later than:

a)

Three days

b)

Five days

c)

Seven days

d)

Thirty days

73.

The Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) must generally dispose of a request for information within what period of receipt?

a)

Forty-eight hours

b)

Fifteen days

c)

Thirty days

d)

Forty days

74.

If the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within:

a)

Twenty-four hours

b)

Forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request

c)

Three working days

d)

Five days

75.

If the CPIO/SPIO fails to give a decision on the request within the specified time, the officer shall be deemed to have:

a)

Deferred the request

b)

Transferred the request

c)

Approved the request

d)

Refused the request

76.

If further fees are requested for providing information, the period intervening between the despatch of the intimation and the payment of fees shall be:

a)

Included in the thirty-day limit

b)

Excluded for calculating the thirty-day period

c)

Limited to a maximum of ten days

d)

Calculated separately by the Information Commission

77.

The prescribed fee for information requests under sections 6(1) and 7(1)/(5) of RTI ACT must be reasonable and shall not be charged from persons who are of:

a)

Below poverty line

b)

Senior citizens

c)

Disadvantaged sections

d)

Public sector employees

78.

If a public authority fails to comply within the time limits specified in sub-section (1) of Section 7 of RTI ACT, the information must be provided to the applicant:

a)

At a reduced cost

b)

Free of charge

c)

Only after penalty is imposed

d)

Within the extended period of 45 days

79.

Information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought unless it would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority or would be detrimental to the:

a)

Financial interests of the State

b)

Competitive position of a third party

c)

Safety or preservation of the record in question

d)

Public interest override

80.

Which of the following is a specific exemption from disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to?

a)

Information leading to incitement of an offence

b)

Information available in a fiduciary relationship

c)

Information impeding prosecution of offenders

d)

Information relating to personal privacy

81.

What is the consequence if the disclosure of information, including commercial confidence, would harm the competitive position of a third party?

a)

Disclosure is mandatorily denied.

b)

Disclosure may be allowed if the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants it.

c)

Disclosure is always exempt.

d)

Disclosure is allowed if the third party agrees.

82.

Notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (19 of 1923) nor any of the exemptions permissible in accordance with sub-section (1),:

a)

Disclosure is mandatorily denied.

b)

Disclosure may be allowed, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.

c)

Disclosure is always exempt.

d)

Disclosure is allowed if the third party agrees.

83.

Under Section 8(1)(j), disclosure of personal information may be justified if:

a)

It relates to a public activity

b)

It does not cause invasion of privacy

c)

The CPIO/SPIO is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure

d)

The information is sought by the media

84.

What is the general condition for providing information relating to an occurrence that took place twenty years before the request date?

a)

It must be denied if it falls under any exemption.

b)

It shall be provided unless it falls under exemption.

c)

It must first be approved by the Central Information Commission.

d)

The cost of retrieval must be borne by the applicant.

85.

The CPIO/SPIO may reject a request for information if providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in whom?

a)

The State

b)

A person other than the State

c)

The Central Government

d)

The President

86.

If access to a record is rejected, but severability applies, the CPIO/SPIO must give notice to the applicant informing them of:

a)

The full text of the exempt part

b)

The reasons for the decision, including findings on material questions of fact

c)

The time limit for filing a second appeal

d)

The legal consequences of the rejection

87.

Where a CPIO/SPIO intends to disclose confidential third-party information, a written notice must be given to the third party within how many days from the receipt of the request?

a)

Two days

b)

Five days

c)

Seven days

d)

Ten days

88.

If a third party makes a representation against proposed disclosure, the CPIO/SPIO shall make a decision within how many days after the receipt of the initial request under Section 6?

a)

Thirty days

b)

Forty days

c)

Fifty days

d)

Sixty days

89.

The Central Information Commission (CIC) shall be constituted by notification in the Official Gazette by:

a)

The President

b)

The Prime Minister

c)

The Central Government

d)

The Lok Sabha Speaker

90.

The number of Central Information Commissioners (excluding the Chief) shall not exceed:

a)

Five

b)

Eight

c)

Ten

d)

Twelve

91.

Who is the Chairperson of the committee recommending the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners?

a)

The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

b)

The Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

c)

The President of India

d)

The Prime Minister

92.

In the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition in the House of the People, who shall be deemed to be the Leader of Opposition for the appointment committee?

a)

The Leader of the single largest group in opposition of the Government

b)

The Speaker of the House of the People

c)

The seniormost opposition MP

d)

The Chief Justice of India

93.

The general superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the Central Information Commission vests in:

a)

The Central Government

b)

The Information Commissioners

c)

The Chief Information Commissioner

d)

The President

94.

The Chief Information Commissioner shall not hold office after attaining the age of:

a)

Sixty years

b)

Sixty-two years

c)

Sixty-five years

d)

Seventy years

95.

If an Information Commissioner is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner, their total term (IC + CIC) shall not be more than:

a)

Three years

b)

Five years in aggregate

c)

Seven years in aggregate

d)

Till they attain sixty-five years

96.

The headquarters of the Central Information Commission is at:

a)

Mumbai

b)

Chennai

c)

Delhi

d)

Kolkata

97.

The Chief Information Commissioner can only be removed by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an inquiry by:

a)

The Supreme Court

b)

The High Court of Delhi

c)

The Central Government

d)

A Joint Parliamentary Committee

98.

If the Chief Information Commissioner is adjudged an insolvent, who has the power to remove him from office immediately?

a)

The Supreme Court

b)

The Central Government

c)

The President, by order

d)

The Prime Minister

99.

The Information Commissions, while inquiring into any matter, have the same powers as a civil court while trying a suit under which code?

a)

Indian Penal Code, 1860

b)

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

c)

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

d)

Indian Evidence RTI ACT, 1872

100.

The first appeal against the decision of a CPIO/SPIO must be preferred to an officer senior in rank to the CPIO/SPIO within:

a)

Thirty days

b)

Forty-five days

c)

Sixty days

d)

Ninety days

101.

A second appeal against the decision of the first appellate authority shall lie with the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission within:

a)

Thirty days

b)

Forty-five days

c)

Sixty days

d)

Ninety days

102.

In appeal proceedings, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified rests on:

a)

The appellant

b)

The third party

c)

The Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer

d)

The appellate authority

103.

The maximum extended period allowed for disposing of a first appeal, beyond the initial thirty days, is a total of:

a)

Forty days

b)

Forty-five days

c)

Sixty days

d)

Seventy-five days

104.

If the CPIO/SPIO knowingly gives incorrect, incomplete or misleading information, the Information Commission shall impose a penalty of what amount per day?

a)

One hundred rupees

b)

Two hundred rupees

c)

Two hundred and fifty rupees

d)

Five hundred rupees

105.

What is the maximum total penalty that can be imposed by the Information Commission on a CPIO/SPIO?

a)

Ten thousand rupees

b)

Twenty thousand rupees

c)

Twenty-five thousand rupees

d)

Fifty thousand rupees

106.

When information relating to allegations of violation of human rights is sought from a Central intelligence/security organization, the information shall be provided within how many days from the receipt of the request?

a)

Thirty days

b)

Forty days

c)

Forty-five days

d)

Ninety days

107.

Which organisation is specified in the Second Schedule of RTI ACT as an intelligence and security organisation established by the Central Government?

a)

Border Road Development Board

b)

National Security Guard (NSG)

c)

Central Vigilance Commission

d)

Ministry of Finance

108.

Which of the following elements are included in the definition of "information" under the RTI ACT?

a)

Documents, memos, e-mails, and contracts

b)

Data material held in any electronic form

c)

Information relating to any private body accessible by a public authority under any other law

d)

Opinions and advices

109.

Which of the following entities are included in the definition of "competent authority" under RTI ACT?

a)

The Speaker in the case of the House of the People

b)

the administrator appointed under article 239 of the Constitution

c)

The President or the Governor in the case of authorities established under the Constitution

d)

The Chairman in the case of the Council of States

110.

Which of the following duties must every public authority fulfil under Section 1(a) of 4 of RTI ACT, Obligations of public authorities?

a)

Maintain all records duly catalogued and indexed

b)

Ensure all appropriate records are computerised within a reasonable time, subject to resource availability

c)

Publish the procedure followed in the decision making process

d)

Publish particulars of recipients of concessions, permits, or authorisations granted by it

111.

The Central Government or State Government has the power to remove the Chief Information Commissioner/State Chief Information Commissioner if they:

a)

Are not engaged in paid employment outside the duties of office

b)

Have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude

c)

Have acquired financial or other interests likely to prejudicially affect their functions

d)

Are adjudged an insolvent

112.

Which of the following rights are included in the definition of "right to information"?

a)

Inspection of work, documents, and records

b)

Videography of the office concerned

c)

Taking notes or extracts of records

d)

Obtaining information through printouts where stored in a computer

113.

Under Section 8(1) of RTI ACT, which of the following categories of information may be exempted from disclosure?

a)

Information disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament

b)

Information received in confidence from a foreign Government

c)

Information disclosure of which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension of offenders

d)

Information expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law

114.

In a notice to an applicant regarding partial disclosure (severability), the CPIO/SPIO must inform the applicant of:

a)

The name, designation and address of the person giving the decision

b)

The details of the fees calculated and required to be deposited

c)

His or her rights with respect to review of the decision regarding non-disclosure

d)

The reasons for the decision, referring to the material on which findings were based

115.

The Central Information Commission shall consist of:

a)

The Chief Information Commissioner

b)

Such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten

c)

The Prime Minister

d)

The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

116.

A person who prefers an appeal to the Information Commission (second appeal) against the decision of the first appellate authority may be aggrieved by:

a)

Refusal of access to information

b)

Failure to receive a response within the time limit

c)

Being required to pay an unreasonable fee

d)

Being given incomplete, misleading, or false information

117.

The CIC/SIC, in deciding an appeal, has the power to require the public authority to take which of the following steps?

a)

Provide access to information in a particular form

b)

Make necessary changes to practices in relation to maintenance of records

c)

Compensate the complainant for loss or detriment suffered

d)

Publish certain categories of information

118.

The CIC/SIC shall receive and inquire into a complaint from any person who:

a)

Has been unable to submit a request because no PIO was appointed

b)

Has access to information

c)

Has been given a response within the specified time limit

d)

Has been given misleading or false information

119.

If the CPIO/SPIO obstructs in any manner in furnishing the information without any reasonable cause, the Information Commission may impose a penalty and recommend:

a)

Imprisonment

b)

Disciplinary action under service rules

c)

Fine only

d)

Compensation to the complainant

120.

If the public interest in disclosure outweighs any possible harm or injury to the third party's interests, disclosure may be allowed, except in the case of:

a)

Information involving commercial confidence

b)

Trade or commercial secrets protected by law

c)

Information received in confidence from a foreign government

d)

Information relating to personal privacy

121.

Statement 1: The preamble states that democracy requires an informed citizenry and transparency of information to contain corruption. Statement 2: The RTI ACT does not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

122.

Statement 1: The purpose of the RTI ACT is to harmonize conflicting interests between revelation of information and the preservation of sensitive information. Statement 2: Public authorities must maintain records and ensure that all records appropriate to be computerised are connected through a network all over the country. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

123.

Statement 1: The disclosure of cabinet papers, including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, is unconditionally exempt from disclosure. Statement 2: Decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons thereof, and the material basis shall be made public after the decision has been taken and the matter is complete. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

124.

Statement 1: The appropriate Government must make all information easily accessible, to the extent possible, in electronic format, available free or at cost price. Statement 2: "Disseminated" means making information known to the public only through the internet or media broadcasts. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

125.

Statement 1: The Central Public Information Officer must provide assistance to enable access to information for a sensorily disabled person. Statement 2: The period intervening between the despatch of a further fee intimation and the payment of fees shall be included for calculating the 30-day response period. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

126.

Statement 1: If the CPIO seeks assistance from another officer, that officer cannot be held liable for any contravention of the RTI ACT. Statement 2: The maximum fine that can be imposed on a CPIO/SPIO for a contravention is thirty-five thousand rupees. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

127.

Statement 1: In any appeal proceedings, the CPIO/SPIO must prove that the denial of a request was justified. Statement 2: The decision of the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission shall be binding. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

128.

Statement 1: The Central Information Commission may only admit a second appeal after the ninety-day expiry period if the appellant pays a late filing fee. Statement 2: The Central Information Commission has the power to require a public authority to provide an annual report in compliance with Section 4(1)(b). Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

129.

Statement 1: If the CPIO/SPIO intends to disclose confidential third-party information, the third party shall have ten days from the receipt of the notice to make a representation. Statement 2: Disclosure of third-party trade or commercial secrets protected by law may still be allowed if the public interest outweighs the harm to the third party. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

130.

Statement 1: The grounds for imposing penalties include the CPIO/SPIO maliciously destroying information which was the subject of the request. Statement 2: Before a penalty is imposed, the CPIO/SPIO must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

131.

Statement 1: If a request is rejected because disclosure would endanger the life or physical safety of any person, this exemption cannot be overridden by public interest. Statement 2: Notwithstanding the exemptions in Section 8(1), a public authority may allow access to information if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

132.

Statement 1: If the Central Information Commission finds that a public authority's practice does not conform with the provisions or spirit of the RTI ACT, it may give a recommendation specifying necessary steps. Statement 2: The Central Information Commission must forward a copy of its annual implementation report to the appropriate Government. Select the correct option.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

S1 is True and S2 is False

c)

S1 is False and S2 is True

d)

Both Statements are False

133.

For classes I to V, if the admitted children are above One hundred and fifty children, how many teachers are required?

a)

Five plus one Head teacher

b)

Five teachers

c)

Five plus one Head teacher

d)

Five teachers

134.

As per the 2022 amendment, what is the required ratio for a Special Education Teacher for children with special needs for sixth to eighth class?

a)

One Special Education Teacher for every fifteen pupils with disabilities enrolled

b)

One Special Education Teacher for every ten pupils with disabilities enrolled

c)

as many as enrolled

d)

One Special Education Teacher for every ten to fifteen pupils with disabilities enrolled

135.
  • The RTI ACT was gradually extended to Jammu and Kashmir in 2019 after the abrogation of .

a)
  • Article 371

b)
  • Article 370

c)
  • Article 372

d)
  • Article 340

136.

When did the RTI ACT, 2005, came into force

a)

12th October 2005

b)

12th July 2005

c)

12th September 2005

d)

12th August 2005

137.

when did RTE ACT receive President's assent?

a)

26th August 2009

b)

26th August 2010

c)

1st April 2010

d)

1st April 2009

138.

When did the RTE ACT, came into force

a)

1st April 2010

b)

1st April 2011

c)

1st April 2009

d)

29 August 2009

139.

Who was the first person to file an RTI application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 in India?

a)

Arvind Kejriwal

b)

Shahid Raza Burney

c)

Anna Hazare

d)

Nikhil Dey

140.

Which was the first state in India to enact a Right to Information law?

a)

Goa

b)

Rajasthan

c)

Tamil Nadu

d)

Maharashtra

141.

Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, intelligence and security organizations listed in the Second Schedule are generally exempt from the Act. However, this exclusion does NOT apply to which of the following types of information?

a)

Routine operational details

b)

Allegations of corruption

c)

Staff appointments and transfers

d)

Human rights violations