NEW
Font size
WorksheetsDiabetes (Chapter 56)
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
What is the normal A1C range for diagnosing prediabetes?
5.7-6.4
6.5 and up
4.0-5.0
7.0-8.0
Which of the following best describes Type 1 diabetes?
Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas, leading to lack of insulin production, usually diagnosed in childhood.
Progressive inability for cells to respond to insulin, associated with obesity and sedentary lifestyle.
Temporary increase in blood glucose due to stress.
Overproduction of insulin by the pancreas.
Which of the following is a correct step when checking blood glucose?
Wipe away the first drop of blood after poking the finger.
Use the same lancet for multiple patients.
Do not use an alcohol swab before poking the finger.
Skip recording the blood glucose value.
What is the correct order for mixing insulin when both clear (short acting) and cloudy (intermediate/long acting) insulins are needed?
Air into cloudy, air into clear, draw clear, draw cloudy.
Draw cloudy first, then clear.
Draw clear, then cloudy, then inject air into both.
Air into clear, air into cloudy, draw cloudy, draw clear.
Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?
Sweating and hunger
Dry mouth and rapid weak pulse
Polyuria and blurred vision
Weight gain and increased appetite
What is the initial nursing intervention for a patient with hypoglycemia and a blood glucose under 17?
Give 15g of carbohydrates and recheck blood glucose.
Administer IV dextrose immediately.
Call the physician without giving any treatment.
Start insulin therapy.
Which of the following is a symptom of hyperglycemia?
Polyuria and blurred vision
Sweating and hunger
Seizures and loss of consciousness
Heart palpitations and confusion
At what blood glucose level does treatment for hyperglycemia typically start?
150 mg/dL
70 mg/dL
250 mg/dL
40 mg/dL
Which insulin types are commonly used for treating hyperglycemia?
Short acting insulins such as Novolog and Humalog
Long acting insulins such as Lantus
Intermediate acting insulins only
Oral hypoglycemics
What is a key difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
Type 1 is autoimmune and usually diagnosed in childhood, while Type 2 is acquired and associated with lifestyle factors.
Type 1 is caused by insulin resistance, while Type 2 is caused by overproduction of insulin.
Type 1 is always managed with oral medications, while Type 2 is always managed with insulin.
Type 1 is reversible, while Type 2 is not.
What is the main cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in Type 1 diabetes?
Not enough insulin, leading to fat breakdown and ketone production.
Excessive carbohydrate intake.
Overuse of oral hypoglycemics.
Too much insulin causing hypoglycemia.
Which of the following is a correct storage instruction for insulin?
Store in the fridge until opened, then keep at room temperature for no more than 30 days.
Always keep insulin in the freezer.
Store insulin in direct sunlight.
Keep insulin at room temperature indefinitely.
Which of the following is a recommended patient teaching point for diabetes management?
Form healthy habits including nutrition, diet, exercise, and weight management.
Avoid all forms of physical activity.
Only monitor blood glucose when feeling unwell.
Ignore signs and symptoms of hypo- and hyperglycemia.
What is the appropriate action if a patient with hypoglycemia does not respond after 2-3 cycles of 15g carbohydrate treatment?
Contact the physician for further instructions.
Continue giving carbohydrates indefinitely.
Start insulin therapy.
Do nothing and wait.
Which of the following is a sign of severe hypoglycemia requiring IV dextrose?
Blood glucose under 40 mg/dL with loss of consciousness.
Blood glucose over 250 mg/dL with dry mouth.
Polyuria and blurred vision.
Mild headache and hunger.
Which of the following is a classic symptom of diabetes?
Polyuria
Weight gain and blurred vision
Persistent cough and fever
Sudden onset of chest pain
What is the recommended fluid replacement for a patient with diabetes when blood glucose is under 200?
Regular Humulin IV insulin and subcutaneous insulin
Oral glucose tablets and potassium supplements
Intravenous saline and oral fluids
Subcutaneous insulin only
Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of COPD?
Difficulty breathing, cough, and wheezing
Sudden weight gain and fever
Blurred vision and headache
Persistent sore throat and hoarse voice
What is a major risk factor for COPD?
Smoking
High-protein diet
Sedentary lifestyle
Allergies
Which nutritional recommendation is best for a patient with COPD?
High-calorie, high-protein, moderate carbohydrates, and moderate fats
Low-calorie, low-protein, high carbohydrates
High-fat, low-protein, low-carbohydrate
High-sugar, low-fat, high-protein
What is the purpose of bronchoscopy?
To view the airway, collect a sample, or remove secretions and foreign objects
To measure blood glucose levels
To administer antibiotics directly to the lungs
To monitor heart rate and blood pressure
Which nursing intervention is important after a bronchoscopy procedure?
Remain NPO until gag reflex returns and monitor for hemorrhage and pneumothorax
Encourage deep breathing and coughing immediately
Provide a high-calorie meal
Administer insulin
What is the tripod position used for?
Leaning over bedside table to help breathing and monitor respiratory status
Lying flat to reduce pain
Sitting upright to improve digestion
Standing to increase circulation
What is a sign of basal skull fracture?
Periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes)
Persistent cough
Blurred vision
Sudden weight loss
Which of the following is a symptom of pneumonia?
Fine or coarse crackles that cannot be cleared by coughing
Sudden onset of diabetes
Persistent sore throat
Blurred vision and headache
What is an appropriate nursing intervention for pneumonia?
Empiric antibiotic therapy started immediately before knowing the specific germ
Administer insulin
Encourage smoking cessation only
Provide only oral fluids
Which of the following is a risk factor for pneumonia?
Lying still and not moving around, poor hand hygiene, and intubation
High-protein diet
Regular exercise
Frequent deep breathing
What is a recommended prevention strategy for pneumonia in hospitalized patients?
Early ambulation, vaccination, hand hygiene, raising head of bed, turning, coughing, and deep breathing
Restricting movement and limiting oral hygiene
Providing only high-calorie meals
Administering insulin regularly
Which of the following is a symptom of pertussis (whooping cough)?
Violent uncontrolled coughing with a whooping sound
Persistent sore throat and hoarse voice
Blurred vision and headache
Sudden weight gain
What is a recommended nursing intervention for pertussis?
Monitor for fever, runny nose, watery eyes, and non-productive cough
Administer insulin
Encourage deep breathing and coughing immediately
Provide only oral fluids
What is the difference between a simple and complex broken nose?
Simple involves little displacement; complex involves damage to adjacent structures and evaluation for injury to cervical spine, orbital bone, and mandible
Simple involves severe pain; complex involves no pain
Simple involves only swelling; complex involves only bleeding
Simple involves blurred vision; complex involves headache
Which of the following is a common symptom of influenza?
Chills, fever, headache, sore throat, and fatigue
Persistent productive cough with weight loss
Sudden chest pain with tracheal deviation
Sharp chest pain with purulent sputum
What is the primary purpose of the rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT)?
To quickly diagnose influenza infection
To determine the severity of asthma
To assess the risk of pulmonary embolism
To monitor oxygen saturation levels
Which intervention is appropriate for a patient experiencing an asthma emergency?
Intubation and mechanical ventilation
Administering oral antibiotics
Applying a non-rebreather mask
Encouraging deep breaths only
Which medication is considered a long-term controller for asthma?
LABA bronchodilators such as salmeterol
Short-acting beta agonists like albuterol
IV magnesium sulfate
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
What is the main function of a tracheostomy?
To provide an airway by creating an opening in the neck at the trachea
To deliver medication directly to the lungs
To monitor hemodynamic status
To prevent influenza infection
Which of the following is a key aspect of patient care for someone with a tracheostomy?
Maintain airway, prevent infection, assess respiratory status, and provide humidified oxygen
Administer oral corticosteroids daily
Encourage only shallow breathing
Monitor for signs of pulmonary embolism
Compared to a tracheostomy, what is an advantage of an endotracheal tube?
Easier to keep clean, better oral and bronchial hygiene, and less risk of long-term vocal cord damage
Provides a permanent airway solution
Requires less monitoring for infection
Allows for more comfortable deep breathing
What is a pneumothorax?
Air entering the pleural cavity causing positive pressure and partial to full lung collapse
Accumulation of blood in the pleural space
Purulent fluid in the pleural space
Sudden onset of productive cough with weight loss
Which sign is most indicative of a tension pneumothorax?
Tracheal deviation
Night sweats and weight loss
Productive cough with crackles
Orange-colored urine
What is hemothorax?
Accumulation of blood in the pleural space
Air entering the pleural cavity
Purulent fluid in the pleural space
Collapse of the trachea
Which of the following is a typical sign or symptom of hemothorax?
Dyspnea, tachypnea, decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side
Night sweats and hemoptysis
Sharp chest pain with purulent sputum
Persistent dry cough
What is empyema?
Purulent fluid (pus) in the pleural space
Air entering the pleural cavity
Blood in the pleural space
Collapse of the alveoli
Which of the following is a late sign of tuberculosis?
Dyspnea and hemoptysis
Dry cough that becomes productive
Low-grade fever and night sweats
Weight loss
Which medication used in tuberculosis treatment requires monitoring for orange-colored urine and tears?
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Albuterol
Which oxygen delivery device cannot be humidified?
Non-rebreather mask (NRB)
Simple mask
Nasal cannula
Tracheostomy tube
Which sign is most commonly associated with pulmonary embolism?
Dyspnea
Productive cough with crackles
Orange-colored urine
Night sweats
Which of the following is a common symptom of pleural effusion?
Sharp chest pain
Sudden high fever with chills
Frequent urination
Severe abdominal cramps
Which intervention is recommended to promote lung expansion in a patient with pleural effusion?
Oxygen therapy and incentive spirometry
Bed rest and fluid restriction
Antibiotic therapy and pain medication
Immediate surgical removal of fluid
Which of the following is NOT a known cause of throat cancer?
Frequent exercise
Smoking
HPV infection
Exposure to asbestos
A patient presents with a sore throat, white and red patches, changes in voice, and a lump in the neck lasting more than two weeks. What condition do these symptoms most likely indicate?
Throat cancer
Asthma
Diabetes mellitus
Pneumonia
Which therapy is used to support nutrition in patients with throat cancer who have difficulty swallowing?
GT tube and enteral feedings
Oral vitamin supplements only
Intravenous glucose infusion
High-calorie snacks between meals
Which of the following is a possible cause of endocrine system disorders?
Autoimmune conditions
Excessive exercise
High carbohydrate diet
Frequent sun exposure
Which gland is NOT part of the endocrine system?
Liver
Thyroid
Adrenal
Pineal
Which of the following is a common sign of Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency)?
Hyperpigmentation and low blood pressure
Increased appetite and high blood pressure
Rapid weight gain and thick skin
Excessive sweating and bulging eyes
What is the primary hormone deficiency in Addison's disease?
Cortisol and aldosterone
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
Insulin and glucagon
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
A patient with Hashimoto's disease is most likely to have which of the following laboratory findings?
Elevated TSH and low T3/T4
Low TSH and high T3/T4
Normal TSH and high T3/T4
Elevated TSH and high T3/T4
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with hypothyroidism due to Hashimoto's disease?
Administer levothyroxine and monitor weight and bowel movements
Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose
Provide high-calorie, high-protein diet only
Administer radioactive iodine therapy
Which of the following is a classic sign of Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism)?
Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and weight loss
Bradycardia and thick skin
Moon face and buffalo hump
Muscle cramps and confusion
What is the expected TSH level in a patient with Graves' disease?
Low TSH
High TSH
Normal TSH
Fluctuating TSH
Which test is commonly used to diagnose hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?
Radioactive iodine uptake test
ACTH stimulation test
Dexamethasone suppression test
Serum glucose test
Which of the following is a typical sign of Cushing's disease?
Moon face and buffalo hump
Goiter and weight loss
Excessive thirst and dilute urine
Muscle cramps and confusion
What is a common cause of Cushing's disease?
Overproduction of ACTH by the pituitary gland
Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
Deficiency of antidiuretic hormone
Tumor in the adrenal medulla
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone)?
Concentrated urine and dilute serum chemistries
Dilute urine and concentrated serum chemistries
High blood glucose and low insulin
Elevated TSH and low T3/T4
What is the primary hormone involved in SIADH?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Cortisol
Thyroxine (T4)
Aldosterone
Which of the following is a key sign of diabetes insipidus?
Excessive dilute urine and excessive thirst
Weight gain and bradycardia
Hyperpigmentation and low blood pressure
Moon face and buffalo hump
What is the main difference between nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus?
Nephrogenic is due to renal tubules not responding to ADH, central is due to pituitary dysfunction
Nephrogenic is caused by excess ADH, central is caused by low cortisol
Nephrogenic is associated with high TSH, central is associated with low TSH
Nephrogenic is treated with levothyroxine, central is treated with insulin
A patient with pheochromocytoma is likely to present with which of the following symptoms?
Severe hypertension, tachycardia, and sweating
Weight loss, exophthalmos, and tremor
Moon face, buffalo hump, and thin skin
Goiter, bradycardia, and cold intolerance
What is the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma?
Surgical removal of the tumor
Administration of levothyroxine
Fluid restriction and loop diuretics
Radioactive iodine therapy
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with SIADH?
Fluid restriction and loop diuretics
Administering high doses of corticosteroids
Providing high-calorie, high-protein diet
Administering IV thyroid hormone
