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Fertilization

Total questions: 27

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Station 1: Male Reproductive System — Gonads. What is the role of the testes?

a)

Produce male gametes and secrete male sex hormones

b)

Store mature sperm and regulate body temperature

c)

Transport sperm to the urethra and add seminal fluid

d)

Control secondary sex characteristics only

2.

Station 1: Male Reproductive System — Gonads. Where are the testes located and why is this location actually a good thing?

a)

Inside the pelvic cavity to keep sperm warm for faster division

b)

In the scrotum outside the body so sperm develop in a cooler environment

c)

Embedded in abdominal fat to provide cushioning from pressure

d)

Near the kidneys so wastes can be removed quickly

3.

Station 1: Male Reproductive System — Gonads. Where specifically are sperm made?

a)

In the epididymis on the posterior testis

b)

In the seminiferous tubules within the lobules of each testis

c)

In the vas deferens after puberty

d)

In the ejaculatory duct during arousal

4.

Station 2: Male Reproductive System — Ducts. Which sequence correctly describes the path a sperm must travel in order to leave the body?

a)

Seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra

b)

Epididymis → seminiferous tubules → ejaculatory duct → vas deferens → urethra

c)

Seminiferous tubules → vas deferens → urethra → epididymis → ejaculatory duct

d)

Vas deferens → seminiferous tubules → urethra → ejaculatory duct → epididymis

5.

Station 2: Male Reproductive System — Ducts. Where do sperm mature, and what is the overall impact if sperm never matured?

a)

They mature in the urethra; without maturation, sperm would be overactive and damage tissues

b)

They mature in the epididymis; without maturation, sperm could not swim effectively to reach the oocyte

c)

They mature in the vas deferens; without maturation, sperm would be unable to fertilize due to lack of enzymes

d)

They mature in the ejaculatory duct; without maturation, sperm would fail to undergo meiosis

6.

Station 3: Male Reproductive System — Accessory Sex Glands. Which statement correctly summarizes the roles of the accessory sex glands?

a)

Seminal glands add substances that aid sperm motility in the female tract; the prostate helps activate sperm; bulbourethral glands help neutralize urethral acidity

b)

Seminal glands store sperm; the prostate produces all semen; bulbourethral glands release testosterone

c)

Seminal glands deactivate sperm; the prostate provides nutrients only; bulbourethral glands secrete prostaglandins to cause uterine contractions

d)

All three glands have the same role of storing mature sperm until ejaculation

7.

Station 5: Female Reproductive System — Gonads. What structures are the female gonads, what roles do they share with male gonads, and what unique role does the female reproductive system have that the male does not?

a)

Ovaries; like testes they produce gametes and secrete sex hormones; uniquely, the female system nurtures a developing fetus during pregnancy

b)

Fallopian tubes; like testes they store sperm; uniquely, the female system produces testosterone

c)

Uterus; like testes it makes semen; uniquely, the female system releases sperm

d)

Cervix; like testes it releases gametes into semen; uniquely, the female system produces milk

8.

Station 5: Female Reproductive System — Gonads. Which option correctly describes the components of an ovarian follicle?

a)

A mature ovum and corpus luteum cells

b)

One oocyte surrounded by supportive follicle cells such as granulosa and theca cells

c)

Multiple sperm cells embedded in uterine epithelium

d)

A zygote enclosed by endometrial tissue

9.

Station 5: Female Reproductive System — Gonads. Which statement best defines ovulation and identifies the two events that must follow for a healthy pregnancy to begin?

a)

Ovulation is the shedding of the uterine lining; it must be followed by menstruation and implantation

b)

Ovulation is the release of one oocyte from a mature follicle; it must be followed by fertilization by a sperm and implantation in the uterus

c)

Ovulation is the fusion of gametes; it must be followed by ovary regeneration and lactation

d)

Ovulation is the thickening of the endometrium; it must be followed by hormone decline and embryo cleavage

10.

Station 6: Female Reproductive System — Ducts. What is unique about the gonad–duct system connection in females compared with males?

a)

Female gonads are directly connected to the uterine tubes like the testes to the vas deferens

b)

Female gonads are not actually connected to the duct system, unlike the continuous connection in males

c)

Both sexes lack any connection between gonads and ducts

d)

Females have no ducts associated with their gonads

11.

Which statement correctly distinguishes gametes from somatic cells in humans?

a)

Gametes are sex cells in the gonads; somatic cells are body cells found throughout the body.

b)

Gametes are body cells throughout the body; somatic cells are sex cells in the gonads.

c)

Both gametes and somatic cells are located only in the gonads.

d)

Somatic cells are sex cells in the ovaries only; gametes are sex cells in the testes only.

12.

During which part of the cell cycle are chromosomes duplicated before cell division so that each daughter cell receives the correct number of chromosomes?

a)

G1 phase of interphase

b)

S phase of interphase

c)

G2 phase of interphase

d)

M phase (mitosis)

13.

Which description accurately summarizes when mitosis and meiosis occur in humans?

a)

Mitosis occurs only in childhood; meiosis occurs only before birth in all humans.

b)

Mitosis occurs throughout life starting from the zygote; meiosis begins at puberty in males and begins before birth in females but is not completed in all cells.

c)

Meiosis occurs throughout life in all cells; mitosis occurs only in gonads.

d)

Mitosis and meiosis both begin at puberty and proceed the same way in males and females.

14.

Identify the process shown in the sequence of one cell progressing through prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase in a single division.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis I

c)

Meiosis II

d)

Binary fission

15.

What is the correct term for a fertilized egg formed when an egg and sperm fuse?

a)

Zygote

b)

Gamete

c)

Embryo

d)

Somite

16.

Identify the division shown in the sequence where homologous chromosomes separate, producing two cells.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis I

c)

Meiosis II

d)

Cytokinesis only

17.

Which option correctly pairs human chromosome sets with the terms diploid and haploid?

a)

Diploid = one full set (23); Haploid = two full sets (46)

b)

Diploid = two full sets (46); Haploid = one full set (23)

c)

Diploid = three sets (69); Haploid = one set (23)

d)

Diploid = two sets (92); Haploid = one set (46)

18.

Identify the process labeled with P2, M2, A2, and T2 showing a second round of division that separates sister chromatids.

a)

Meiosis II

b)

Meiosis I

c)

Mitosis

d)

Binary fission

19.

Which statement correctly identifies where sperm are produced and where they mature?

a)

Produced in seminiferous tubules of the testes; mature in the epididymis

b)

Produced in the epididymis; mature in the seminiferous tubules

c)

Produced in the vas deferens; mature in the urethra

d)

Produced and mature entirely in the prostate gland

20.

A somatic cell with 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many daughter cells form, and how many chromosomes will each contain?

a)

2 daughter cells, each with 20 chromosomes

b)

2 daughter cells, each with 10 chromosomes

c)

4 daughter cells, each with 10 chromosomes

d)

4 daughter cells, each with 20 chromosomes

21.

If interphase did not occur before cell division, what would most likely happen to the resulting daughter cells?

a)

They would have twice the correct number of chromosomes.

b)

They would have half the correct number of chromosomes because chromosomes were not duplicated.

c)

They would be genetically identical but larger than normal.

d)

They would fail to complete cytokinesis but have a normal chromosome number.

22.

What are the identical halves of a duplicated chromosome called?

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Homologous chromosomes

c)

Centromeres

d)

Spindle fibers

23.

Where are human eggs (oocytes) made, and where do they mature?

a)

Made in the ovaries; mature in follicles within the ovaries

b)

Made in the uterus; mature in the oviduct

c)

Made in the cervix; mature in the uterus

d)

Made in the fallopian tubes; mature in the uterus

24.

Which type of cell division is used for growth because it produces identical copies that can later differentiate into tissues and organs?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Crossing over

25.

What is the term for the process by which unspecialized cells become specialized into specific tissues and organs?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Replication

c)

Fertilization

d)

Mutation

26.

Why must meiosis reduce the chromosome number in human gametes?

a)

So the resulting offspring has the right number of chromosomes

b)

So gametes can be larger than somatic cells

c)

So mitosis can proceed faster after fertilization

d)

So chromosomes will be identical in all body cells

27.

Which statement best distinguishes the effects of mistakes in mitosis versus mistakes in meiosis?

a)

Mitosis errors affect body cells and can contribute to cancer; meiosis errors affect gametes and can cause genetic disorders in offspring.

b)

Mitosis errors affect only gametes; meiosis errors affect only body cells.

c)

Both mitosis and meiosis errors primarily cause cancer in offspring.

d)

Mitosis errors cause nondisjunction in gametes; meiosis errors cause tumors in parents.