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Intuit Bookkeeping Exam — Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Four key elements of bookkeeping ethics are best described as which set?

a)

Independence, Prudence, Disclosure, and Timeliness

b)

Honesty, Objectivity, Confidentiality, and Professionalism

c)

Compliance, Risk-taking, Creativity, and Innovation

d)

Accuracy, Profitability, Negotiation, and Leadership

2.

What does the mnemonic DEALER represent in accounting?

a)

Dividends, Expenses, and Assets on one side equal Liabilities, Owner's equity (beginning), and Revenue on the other side

b)

Debits increase liabilities and equity while credits increase assets

c)

Depreciation, Equity, Assets, Liabilities, Earnings, and Reserves

d)

Detailed entries and ledger errors reconciliation

3.

What is the accounting equation?

a)

Assets=Liabilities+EquityAssets = Liabilities + Equity

b)

Assets=RevenueExpensesAssets = Revenue - Expenses

c)

Equity=AssetsRevenueEquity = Assets - Revenue

d)

Liabilities=Assets+EquityLiabilities = Assets + Equity

4.

Which financial statement shows a company's revenues and expenses for a particular period?

a)

The Balance Sheet

b)

The Statement of Cash Flow

c)

The Income Statement

d)

The Statement of Equity

5.

Which financial statement reports a company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time?

a)

The Statement of Cash Flow

b)

The Balance Sheet

c)

The Income Statement

d)

The Statement of Equity

6.

Which financial statement reports changes in company equity from the opening balance to the end of the period?

a)

The Statement of Equity

b)

The Income Statement

c)

The Balance Sheet

d)

The Statement of Cash Flow

7.

Which financial statement reports the sources and uses of cash by a business?

a)

The Statement of Cash Flow

b)

The Balance Sheet

c)

The Income Statement

d)

The Statement of Equity

8.

Which list correctly outlines the accounting cycle steps?

a)

1) Analyze transactions 2) Post to ledger 3) Prepare an unadjusted trial balance 4) Prepare adjusted entries at period end 5) Prepare adjusted trial balance 6) Prepare financial statements

b)

1) Prepare financial statements 2) Close books 3) Audit 4) File taxes 5) Budget 6) Forecast

c)

1) Record cash receipts 2) Reconcile bank 3) Calculate ratios 4) Prepare tax return 5) Approve payroll 6) Close books

d)

1) Identify revenues 2) Identify expenses 3) Allocate overhead 4) Compute net income 5) Issue dividends 6) Budget

9.

If a customer pays at the time of sale, how should the transaction be entered?

a)

Invoice

b)

Sales Receipt

c)

Credit Memo

d)

Statement of Equity entry

10.

If a customer does not pay at the time of sale, how should the transaction be entered?

a)

Sales Receipt

b)

Invoice

c)

Bank Deposit

d)

Credit Memo

11.

Once a customer has paid an invoice, which action should be used?

a)

Issue a credit memo

b)

Mark as bad debt

c)

Receive payment

d)

Reverse the sale

12.

After recording receive payment and sales receipt, what step typically follows?

a)

Post to the general journal

b)

Bank deposit

c)

Close the books

d)

Prepare a budget

13.

Step 4 of the accounting cycle—preparing adjusted entries—typically includes which items?

a)

Deferrals, Accruals, Missing Transactions, and Tax Adjustments

b)

Inventory valuation, bank reconciliation, payroll processing, and budgeting

c)

Depreciation schedules, dividend declarations, ratio analysis, and audit procedures

d)

Forecasting, variance analysis, strategic planning, and capital budgeting

14.

Removing transactions that belong to a different period is known as what?

a)

Accrual

b)

Deferral

c)

Capitalization

d)

Amortization

15.

What is the opposite of a deferral, concerned with future payments or expenses?

a)

Prepayment

b)

Accrual

c)

Write-off

d)

Depreciation

16.

Which assumption states that the business is a separate entity from its owners and their other financial activities?

a)

Going Concern Assumption

b)

Economic Entity Assumption

c)

Monetary Unit Assumption

d)

Reliability Assumption

17.

Which assumption requires that only transactions that can be proven—such as with receipts, invoices, or bank statements—are recorded?

a)

Full Disclosure Principle

b)

Reliability Assumption

c)

Consistency Principle

d)

Materiality Principle

18.

Which principle requires that all information relevant and important to lenders or investors be disclosed in the financial statements or notes?

a)

Full Disclosure Principle

b)

Materiality Principle

c)

Consistency Principle

d)

Conservatism Assumption

19.

Which assumption selects the option that is least likely to overstate assets and income when choosing between two solutions?

a)

Materiality Principle

b)

Conservatism Assumption

c)

Consistency Principle

d)

Economic Entity Assumption

20.

Which principle states that an amount may be ignored if its effect on the financial statements is small and not misleading?

a)

Reliability Assumption

b)

Consistency Principle

c)

Materiality Principle

d)

Full Disclosure Principle

21.

Which principle requires continued application of an adopted accounting method so results are comparable across periods?

a)

Consistency Principle

b)

Conservatism Assumption

c)

Reliability Assumption

d)

Full Disclosure Principle

22.

Which assumption states that one currency is used throughout accounting activities and inflation is not considered when that currency is used?

a)

Monetary Unit Assumption

b)

Economic Entity Assumption

c)

Going Concern Assumption

d)

Conservatism Assumption

23.

Which assumption refers to a business stable enough to operate and meet its obligations in the future?

a)

Going Concern Assumption

b)

Economic Entity Assumption

c)

Reliability Assumption

d)

Monetary Unit Assumption

24.

Revenue is recognized when payment is received and expenses are recognized when paid out

a)

Cash-Basis Account Method

b)

Accrual Method of Accounting

c)

Hybrid Accounting

d)

Allowance Method

25.

Revenues are reported when they are earned and expenses are reported when they are incurred

a)

Accrual Method of Accounting

b)

Cash-Basis Account Method

c)

Hybrid Accounting

d)

Direct Write-Off Method

26.

A combo of cash-basis and accrual methods

a)

Hybrid Accounting

b)

Cash-Basis Account Method

c)

Accrual Method of Accounting

d)

Perpetual

27.

Things your company owns that you can easily convert to cash and expect to do so within the next 12 months

a)

Currents Assets

b)

Long-term Assets

c)

Total Assets

d)

Intangible Asset

28.

Things your company owns that you expect to have for more than 12 months

a)

Long-term Assets

b)

Currents Assets

c)

Total Assets

d)

Tangible Asset

29.

The total you get when adding all current assets and all long-term assets. This should equal Total Liabilities+Toal Equity

a)

Total Assets

b)

Currents Assets

c)

Long-term Assets

d)

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

30.

A physical asset, such as inventory, vehicle, or a building

a)

Tangible Asset

b)

Intangible Asset

c)

Total Assets

d)

Accumulated Depreciation Account

31.

Not a physical asset. Examples would be a copyright, patent, or brand recognition

a)

Intangible Asset

b)

Tangible Asset

c)

Total Assets

d)

Notes Receivable

32.

A signed document containing a written promise to pay a stated sum to a specified person or bearer at a specified ate or on-demand

a)

Promissory Note

b)

Notes Payable

c)

Notes Receivable

d)

Accounts Uncollectible

33.

Notes Receivable

a)

A current or non-current asset

b)

A current or non-current liability

c)

Bad Debt

d)

Closing Inventory

34.

Notes Payable

a)

A current or non-current liability

b)

A current or non-current asset

c)

Inventory Cost Flows

d)

Average Cost

35.

Interest Equation

a)

Principle x Interest (multipy by 30/365 to find day)

b)

BI(Beginning Inventory) + COGP (Cost of Goods Purchased) - EI (Ending Inventory) = COGS

c)

Closing Inventory=Cost of Goods Available- COGS

d)

Direct Write-Off Method

36.

Receivables, loans, or other debits that have virtually no chance of being paid

a)

Accounts Uncollectible

b)

Bad Debt

c)

Allowance Method

d)

Accumulated Depreciation Account

37.

An expense that a business incurs once the repayment of credit previously extended to a customer is estimated to be uncollectible

a)

Bad Debt

b)

Accounts Uncollectible

c)

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

d)

Perpetual

38.

A bad debt is charged to expense as soon as it is apparent that an invoice will not be paid. This is easier for business owners.

a)

Direct Write-Off Method

b)

Allowance Method

c)

Accrual Method of Accounting

d)

Hybrid Accounting

39.

An estimate of the future amount of bad debt is charged to a reserve account as soon as a sale is made. This is more accurate but complex

a)

Allowance Method

b)

Direct Write-Off Method

c)

Accounts Uncollectible

d)

Bad Debt

40.

A contra-asset account that has a natural credit balance. Balances decrease with debits and increase with credits

a)

Accumulated Depreciation Account

b)

Intangible Asset

c)

Tangible Asset

d)

Total Assets

41.

An expense account on the income statement showing the cost of merchandise to the business

a)

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

b)

Total Assets

c)

Closing Inventory

d)

Average Cost

42.

An inventory system that continuously update the inventory account

a)

Perpetual

b)

Periodic

c)

FIFO

d)

LIFO

43.

An inventory system that updates the inventory account only at specified intervals

a)

Periodic

b)

Perpetual

c)

Average Cost

d)

Hybrid Accounting

44.

Inventory Cost Flows

a)

FIFO, LIFO, and Average Cost

b)

Perpetual and Periodic

c)

Cash-Basis and Accrual

d)

Notes Receivable and Notes Payable

45.

Method to assign cost to inventory that assumes items are sold in the order acquired; earliest items purchased are the first sold.

a)

First-In, First-Out (FIFO)

b)

Last in, First out (LIFO)

c)

Average Cost

d)

Perpetual

46.

Method to assign cost to inventory that assumes costs for the most recent items purchased are sold first and charged to cost of goods sold.

a)

Last in, First out (LIFO)

b)

First-In, First-Out (FIFO)

c)

Average Cost

d)

Periodic

47.

All items in the inventory are priced at their average cost

a)

Average Cost

b)

First-In, First-Out (FIFO)

c)

Last in, First out (LIFO)

d)

COGS equation

48.

Closing Inventory

a)

Closing Inventory=Cost of Goods Available- COGS

b)

BI(Beginning Inventory) + COGP (Cost of Goods Purchased) - EI (Ending Inventory) = COGS

c)

Principle x Interest (multipy by 30/365 to find day)

d)

Reverse journal entry or reproduce financial statements

49.

COGS equation

a)

BI(Beginning Inventory) + COGP (Cost of Goods Purchased) - EI (Ending Inventory) = COGS

b)

Closing Inventory=Cost of Goods Available- COGS

c)

FIFO, LIFO, and Average Cost

d)

Direct Write-Off Method

50.

Fixing Journals Entries

a)

Reverse journal entry or reproduce financial statements

b)

FIFO, LIFO, and Average Cost

c)

Perpetual

d)

Accrued expenses

51.

Which term describes PP&E (Plants, Property, and Equipment), trademarks, and long-term investments?

a)

Current Assets

b)

Non-Current Assets

c)

Intangible Liabilities

d)

Deferred Expenses

52.

Which depreciation method records the same amount of expense each accounting period during an asset's service life?

a)

Straight-Line Depreciation

b)

Accelerated Depreciation

c)

Units-of-Production

d)

Double Declining Balance

53.

Which depreciation approach assumes the asset is used more earlier in its life so expense is larger in year 2 than year 4?

a)

Straight-Line Depreciation

b)

Accelerated Depreciation

c)

Salvage-Based Depreciation

d)

No Depreciation

54.

Which table shows the depreciation amount over the span of an asset's life?

a)

Aging Schedule

b)

Depreciation Schedule

c)

Cash Flow Statement

d)

Trial Balance

55.

Which kind of lease does not intend transfer of ownership of the asset?

a)

Capital Lease

b)

Operating Lease

c)

Purchase Agreement

d)

Finance Sale

56.

Which kind of lease intends transfer of ownership of the asset at the end of the lease?

a)

Operating Lease

b)

Capital Lease

c)

Service Contract

d)

Short-Term Rental

57.

Which category includes a company's liabilities that will come due within one year?

a)

Long-Term Liabilities

b)

Current Liabilities

c)

Contingent Liabilities

d)

Deferred Liabilities

58.

Which account represents money owed by a company to its creditors?

a)

Accounts Receivable

b)

Accounts Payable

c)

Notes Receivable

d)

Prepaid Expenses

59.

Which account records income taxes payable to state and federal governments on the work performed by employees for that period?

a)

Income Taxes Payable

b)

Payroll Expense

c)

Deferred Tax Asset

d)

Accrued Interest

60.

Which liability is created when a business collects cash from customers in advance of completing a service or delivering a product?

a)

Accrued Expenses

b)

Deferred Revenue

c)

Unearned Sales Discount

d)

Accounts Payable

61.

Which category describes money owed by the business for more than one year, sometimes called long-term liabilities?

a)

Non-current liabilities

b)

Current Liabilities

c)

Contingent Liabilities

d)

Owner’s Equity

62.

Which liability represents long-term money lent to the firm that must be repaid?

a)

Bonds Payable

b)

Accounts Payable

c)

Notes Receivable

d)

Deferred Revenue

63.

Which concept refers to the expected balance of a particular account type (assets normally debit where debits increase and credits decrease; liabilities normally credit where debits decrease and credits increase)?

a)

Contra Account

b)

The Natural (Normal) Account Balance

c)

Materiality

d)

Posting Reference

64.

Which term means the total amount of an employee’s earnings before deductions are taken out?

a)

Net Pay

b)

Gross Pay

c)

Take-home Pay

d)

Bonus

65.

Which term means the amount of income left after taxes and deductions have been taken out?

a)

Gross Pay

b)

Net Pay

c)

Accrued Wages

d)

Withholding

66.

Which term names the period covered by a salary payment?

a)

Pay Date

b)

Pay Period

c)

Fiscal Quarter

d)

Service Period

67.

Which payroll component includes w‑2s, I‑9’s, 1099’s, and w‑4’s?

a)

Employee Information or Payroll

b)

Human Resources Policy Manual

c)

Benefits Enrollment

d)

Timekeeping Log

68.

Which business form is owned and managed by a single individual?

a)

Partnership

b)

Sole Proprietorship

c)

C Corp

d)

LLC

69.

Which business organization is owned by two or more persons who agree on a specific division of responsibilities and profits?

a)

Partnership

b)

Sole Proprietorship

c)

Nonprofit Corporation

d)

C Corp

70.

Which entity type is owned by one or more and not personally liable; compensation can be by salary, guaranteed payments, or owners’ draw; amounts may show on the balance sheet or P&L depending on filing?

a)

LLC (Limited Liability Company)

b)

S Corp

c)

Partnership

d)

Nonprofit Corporation

71.

Which corporation type has one or more shareholders who are not personally liable, must have a board of directors and strict operating rules, and can pay owners as employees or via dividends (salary shows on the balance sheet; dividends show on P&L)?

a)

S Corp

b)

C Corp

c)

LLC

d)

Partnership

72.

Which corporation type has owners who are heavily involved and are also employees with reasonable salaries, and pay appears on both the balance sheet and P&L?

a)

C Corp

b)

S Corp

c)

LLC

d)

Partnership

73.

Which organization type has one or more owners but no single person or group owns it; it is governed by a board of directors, has no personal liability, and a founder can become a staff employee or executive director to receive pay?

a)

Nonprofit Corporation

b)

S Corp

c)

C Corp

d)

Partnership

74.

Which reporting system gathers relevant information from within the organization’s own internal operations?

a)

External Reports

b)

Internal Reports System

c)

General Ledger

d)

Audited Statements

75.

Which reports are produced for use by people outside the organization?

a)

Internal Reports System

b)

External Reports

c)

Managerial Memos

d)

Timecards

76.

Which term is the reduction of a loan balance through payments made over a period of time?

a)

Accretion

b)

Amortization

c)

Depreciation

d)

Capitalization

77.

Which schedule shows each payment’s breakdown between interest and principal and the remaining balance after each payment?

a)

Budget Forecast

b)

Loan Amortization Schedule

c)

Aging of Payables

d)

Bank Reconciliation

78.

Which loan is used to finance a company’s daily operations?

a)

Secured Loan

b)

Working Capital Loan

c)

Mortgage

d)

Bridge Loan

79.

Which loan indicates the borrower has pledged some asset as collateral?

a)

Unsecured Loan

b)

Secured Loan

c)

Revolving Credit

d)

Signature Loan

80.

Which formula defines net assets?

a)

Assets + Liabilities

b)

Assets − Liabilities

c)

Assets ÷ Liabilities

d)

Liabilities − Assets

81.

Which records are the original proof that a specific transaction took place?

a)

Journal Entries

b)

Source Documents

c)

Trial Balance

d)

Subsidiary Ledger

82.

Which method compares totals listed on source document reports to the totals listed on the balance sheet?

a)

Transactional Reconciliations

b)

Report Reconciliation Method

c)

Bank Reconciliation

d)

Variance Analysis

83.

Which process reviews all existing transactions or source documents to confirm they actually occurred?

a)

Transactional Reconciliations

b)

Audit Sampling

c)

Report Reconciliation Method

d)

Forecasting

84.

Which expression gives percent change?

a)

Percent Change = (Older value year − Recent value year)/Older value year × 100

b)

Percent Change = (Recent value year − Older value year)/Older value year × 100

c)

Percent Change = (Recent value year + Older value year)/2

d)

Percent Change = Recent value year × 100

85.

Which analysis technique evaluates a series of financial statement data over a period of time?

a)

vertical analysis

b)

horizontal analysis (trend analysis)

c)

ratio analysis

d)

break-even analysis

86.

Which analysis reports an amount on a financial statement as a percentage of another item on the same financial statement?

a)

horizontal analysis (trend analysis)

b)

vertical analysis

c)

duPont analysis

d)

comparative indexing

87.

Which equation defines net income?

a)

Expenses − Revenues

b)

Assets − Liabilities

c)

Revenues − Expenses

d)

Gross Profit − Operating Expenses

88.

From the table of bookkeeping terms and definitions, choose the term described as “A measure of a company’s profitability. Shows the percentage of revenue that exceeds COGS.”

a)

Gross Profit Margin

b)

Operating Margin

c)

Net Profit Margin

d)

Cash Flow Margin Ratio

89.

Select the correct formula labeled in the table as the gross profit margin formula.

a)

(Sales Revenue − Cost of Goods Sold) / Sales Revenue

b)

Net profit / sales revenue

c)

operating earnings / sales revenue

d)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

90.

In the table, the description “Measures how much profit a company makes on a dollar after paying for employees and overhead” corresponds to which term?

a)

Operating Margin

b)

Gross Profit Margin

c)

Current Ratio

d)

Debt to Equity Ratio

91.

According to the table, which expression represents Operating Profit Margin?

a)

operating earnings / sales revenue

b)

Net profit / sales revenue

c)

cash flow from operations / net sales

d)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

92.

From the table, the phrase “Used to calculate the percentage of profit a company produces from its total revenue” identifies which term?

a)

Net Profit Margin

b)

Gross Profit Margin

c)

Current Ratio

d)

Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio

93.

Choose the correct Net Profit Margin formula shown in the table.

a)

Net profit / sales revenue

b)

(Sales Revenue − Cost of Goods Sold) / Sales Revenue

c)

operating earnings / sales revenue

d)

Cash Flow Operations / Total Debt

94.

Which term in the table is described as “Analyzes short term financial risk”?

a)

Current Ratio

b)

Debt to Equity Ratio

c)

Accounts Payable Turnover

d)

Cash Flow Coverage Ratio

95.

Select the correct Current Ratio formula listed in the table.

a)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

b)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

c)

Net Credit Purchases / Average Accounts Payable

d)

Net Cash from Operating Activities / Average Current Liabilities

96.

From the table, the description “Compares total debt to total equity” corresponds to which ratio?

a)

Debt to Equity Ratio

b)

Current Ratio

c)

Cash Flow Coverage Ratio

d)

Cash Flow Margin Ratio

97.

Choose the formula labeled “Debt to Equity Ratio Formula” in the table.

a)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

b)

Net Credit Purchases / Average Accounts Payable

c)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

d)

Net profit / sales revenue

98.

In the table, select the formula for Accounts Payable Turnover.

a)

Net Credit Purchases / Average Accounts Payable

b)

net credit sales / average net accounts receivable

c)

Cash Flow Operations / Total Debt

d)

Net Cash from Operating Activities / Average Current Liabilities

99.

Choose the correct formula for Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio shown in the table.

a)

net credit sales / average net accounts receivable

b)

Net Credit Purchases / Average Accounts Payable

c)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

d)

cash flow from operations / net sales

100.

Select the formula labeled “Cash Flow Coverage Ratio” in the table.

a)

Cash Flow Operations / Total Debt

b)

Net Cash from Operating Activities / Average Current Liabilities

c)

cash flow from operations / net sales

d)

Net profit / sales revenue

101.

Choose the formula labeled “Current Liability Coverage Ratio” in the table.

a)

Net Cash from Operating Activities / Average Current Liabilities

b)

Cash Flow Operations / Total Debt

c)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

d)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

102.

Select the formula labeled “Cash Flow Margin Ratio” in the table.

a)

cash flow from operations / net sales

b)

Net profit / sales revenue

c)

operating earnings / sales revenue

d)

Total Debt / Shareholder’s Equity

103.

From the table, which term matches the definition “Quantifiable measures of performance used to gauge progress toward strategic objectives or agreed standards of performance”?

a)

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

b)

Operating Margin

c)

Current Ratio

d)

Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio

104.

According to the 8 Step Payroll Process, which item is listed as step 1? The table displays the following steps: 1. Choose payroll system 2. Create Payroll Policy 3. Gather Employee Info 4. Setup Direct Deposit.

a)

Choose payroll system

b)

Create Payroll Policy

c)

Gather Employee Info

d)

Setup Direct Deposit

105.

According to the 8 Step Payroll Process, which item is listed as step 3? The table displays the following steps: 1. Choose payroll system 2. Create Payroll Policy 3. Gather Employee Info 4. Setup Direct Deposit.

a)

Gather Employee Info

b)

Choose payroll system

c)

Create Payroll Policy

d)

Setup Direct Deposit

106.

From the continuation of the 8 Step Payroll Process, which item is listed as step 5? The list shows: 5. Establish Time Tracking System 6. Collect Employee Time Sheets 7. Approve and Submit Employee Payroll 8. Report and Update Payroll records.

a)

Establish Time Tracking System

b)

Collect Employee Time Sheets

c)

Approve and Submit Employee Payroll

d)

Report and Update Payroll records

107.

According to the list of steps 5–8 in the 8 Step Payroll Process, which item is step 8? The list shows: 5. Establish Time Tracking System 6. Collect Employee Time Sheets 7. Approve and Submit Employee Payroll 8. Report and Update Payroll records.

a)

Report and Update Payroll records

b)

Approve and Submit Employee Payroll

c)

Collect Employee Time Sheets

d)

Establish Time Tracking System

108.

What is the main purpose of adjusting journal entries at the end of an accounting period?

a)

To prepare the cash flow statement

b)

To close temporary accounts

c)

To ensure revenues and expenses are recorded in the correct period

d)

To correct errors in the ledger