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Physiology Worksheet

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An initial disturbance in a system sets off a chain of events that does not favor stability and often abruptly displaces a system from its steady state: what is that?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

c)

Disease

d)

Homeostasis

2.

What organ shrinks with age?

a)

Prostate

b)

Gums

c)

Heart

d)

All of the above

3.

Which of the following is true?

a)

An infant will have a slower heart rate than an adult

b)

The elderly have better temperature sensations

c)

There are more sweat glands in an elderly person

d)

There is less thirst perception in the elderly

4.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Women snore more than men

b)

Men have higher calcium levels

c)

Women have a lower hemoglobin than men

d)

Men have a lower creatinine level than women

5.

An increase in normal adaptive response to the decreased availability of oxygen at high altitude is termed which?

a)

Acclimatization

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Altitude sickness

d)

Oxygen therapy

6.

What does it mean when the cause of the disease is unwanted medical treatment?

a)

Idiopathic

b)

Ecogenetic

c)

Genotypical

d)

Iatrogenic

7.

Which term is used for the first two months of life?

a)

Infancy

b)

Childhood

c)

Prenatal

d)

Neonatal

8.

Which is an objectively identifiable aberration of the disease?

a)

Symptom

b)

Syndrome

c)

Stage

d)

Sign

9.

Which of the following is true regarding catecholamines?

a)

They are from the parasympathetic nervous system

b)

They cross the blood brain barrier

c)

They include epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

They cause a decrease in heart rate

10.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Antidiuretic hormone is not important for blood volume regulation

b)

Endorphins increase with stress, resulting in a decrease in pain perception

c)

Epinephrine and cortisol act very differently

d)

Cortisol negates epinephrine's activity

11.

By what mechanism do lipid molecules cross cell membranes?

a)

They use channel proteins

b)

They are transported by endocytosis and exocytosis

c)

They use voltage-gated ion channels

d)

They cross by diffusion

12.

Which metabolic process is anabolic?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

13.

Which electrochemical mechanism maintains cell volume?

a)

Calcium pump

b)

Glucose transporters

c)

Sodium-potassium pump

d)

ATP-binding cassette transporters

14.

Cellular hypoxia results in:

a)

Enhanced ATP activity

b)

Loss of intracellular calcium

15.

A 75-year-old woman develops weakness in her lower extremities after prolonged bed rest. Cause?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Hyperplasia

16.

Which type of cellular adaptation is most likely from chronic ischemia?

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Atrophy

d)

Hyperplasia

17.

Mechanism of injury when deep sea divers get "the bends"?

a)

Free radicals destroy cell membranes

b)

Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin

c)

Intracellular calcium accumulation causes tetany

d)

Gas bubbles form in blood, blocking circulation → ischemia

18.

Which type of cellular adaptation is most concerning on biopsy?

a)

Dysplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Hyperplasia

d)

Atrophy

19.

Process by which mRNA is synthesized from DNA?

a)

Sense stranding

b)

Replication

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

20.

Which is NOT one of the four cell types in adult humans?

a)

Epithelium

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Hematopoietic tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

21.

If a patient has a recessive trait, which is the genotype?

a)

aa

b)

AA

c)

Aa

d)

aA

22.

Which chromosomal abnormality is linked with Down syndrome?

a)

Translocation

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

23.

Deficiency of factor VIII causing a bleeding disorder?

a)

Marfan Syndrome

b)

Phenylketonuria

c)

Hemophilia

24.

Which retrovirus causes cancer?

a)

Rhinovirus

b)

Parvovirus

c)

Epstein-Barr virus

d)

Poxvirus

25.

Which gene contributes specifically to some breast cancer?

a)

Rb

b)

BRCA1

c)

P53

d)

VHL

26.

Which term describes histologic characteristics of tumor cells?

a)

Staging

b)

Cachexia

c)

Grading

d)

Angiogenesis

27.

Which offers the best prognosis for curing cancer?

a)

Early detection

b)

Aggressive chemotherapy

c)

Adjunct radiation

d)

Gene therapy

28.

Which of the following is true about cancer?

a)

Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell growth.

b)

Cancer is always caused by bacteria.

c)

Cancer only affects older adults.

d)

Cancer cannot be treated.

29.

What is the correct statement?

a)

Most deaths occur age >75

b)

Men have a 1 in 3 lifetime risk

c)

Combined 5-year survival is 62%

d)

It is the leading cause of death

30.

Purpose of the TNM system?

a)

Info for research

b)

Tracks progress & effectiveness of treatment

c)

Determines cause of malignancy

d)

Sends tumor data to CDC

31.

Why do patients with advanced cancer develop cachexia?

a)

Cancer cells produce enzyme that robs nutrients

b)

Not enough normal cells to support metabolism

c)

Increased basal metabolic rate

d)

Nutrients used for cancer cell destruction

32.

Genetic basis for cancer development?

a)

Ionizing radiation

b)

Decreased immune function

c)

Oncogenic bacteria

d)

Loss/defect of tumor suppressor genes

33.

Bacteria are categorized by

a)

Shape

b)

Need for oxygen

c)

Reaction to staining

d)

Size

e)

Color

34.

Resident flora become pathogenic when immune system is compromised:

a)

Opportunistic infection

b)

Salmonella infection

c)

Otitis media

d)

Myocarditis

35.

Teaching to reduce emergence of resistant infections:

a)

Stop antibiotics once fever gone

b)

Take antibiotics for viral infections

c)

Take all antibiotics even when feeling better

d)

Share antibiotics with family

36.

What occurs first after cellular injury?

a)

Vessel walls rupture

b)

Neutrophils migrate

c)

Plasma proteins & water move interstitial

d)

Vessel walls briefly constrict

37.

Example of active immunity?

a)

Pooled gamma globulin

b)

Breast-feeding

c)

Passed via placenta

d)

Pneumonia vaccine

38.

WBC count shows “shift to the left.” Assess for:

a)

Leukemia

b)

Weakness

39.

Child with chronic nasal drainage has elevated eosinophils. Cause?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Allergies

c)

Viral infection

d)

Sinus infection

40.

Vesicle burst releasing clear fluid. Drainage described as:

a)

Serous

b)

Vesicular

c)

Purulent

d)

Sanguineous

41.

Specialized cells associated with immune response?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Lymphocytes

42.

A severe life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

a)

Angioedema

b)

Urticaria

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Hives

43.

What pathophysiologic abnormality underlies systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

a)

Immune deficiency

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Autoimmunity

d)

Immunosuppression

44.

Which term describes petechiae, easy bruising, bleeding gums, occult hematuria, or retinal hemorrhage?

a)

Neutropenia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Anemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

45.

If I get a kidney transplant from my sister, what is it called?

a)

Allogenic transplant

b)

"Gift of Life"

c)

Autologous transplant

d)

Peripheral stem cell transplant

46.

Which is a malignant disorder of mature antibody-secreting B lymphocytes (plasma cells)?

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Hairy cell leukemia

c)

ALL

d)

CML

47.

46. Reed–Sternberg cells are characteristic of which disease?

a)

Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

c)

Leukemia

d)

Multiple myeloma

48.

Which of the following is a type of lymphoma?

a)

B-cell lymphoma

b)

NK-cell lymphoma

c)

Hodgkin lymphoma

d)

T-cell lymphoma

49.

Which finding assists in diagnosing multiple myeloma?

a)

Elevated liver enzymes

b)

Bence Jones proteins

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Erythrocytosis

50.

What is true regarding HIV-1?

a)

It is the causative agent in the US

b)

It produces a milder form of disease

c)

Most common in West Africa

d)

Has longer latency than HIV-2

51.

Result of increased hydrostatic pressure in blood vessels?

a)

Increased albumin

b)

Fluid moves into interstitial space

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Hypertension

52.

Which is a manifestation of left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Increased exercise tolerance

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

53.

Expected findings in compartment syndrome?

a)

Ischemia

b)

Pain

c)

Rubor

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Coolness

54.

Manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a)

Projectile vomiting

b)

Altered mental status

c)

Decerebrate positioning

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Intense thirst

55.

What may unusual thirst in a diabetic patient indicate?

a)

Nephropathy

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Polyuria

d)

Fluid overload

56.

Which of the following is true about chronic airway disease?

a)

COPD → ↑ ciliary function

b)

Asthma causes edema and ↑ mucus

c)

COPD produces reversible airway constriction

d)

Asthma results in hyperinflation of alveoli

57.

Which hormone is elevated early in pregnancy and detected by tests?

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

Beta-hCG

d)

Prolactin

58.

Patient with PAD experiences intermittent pain with walking. Mechanism?

a)

Vein engorgement

b)

Hyperglycemic arteriole damage

c)

Arteriole occlusion → ischemia

d)

Thromboembolism in capillaries

59.

First vital sign change in acute hypovolemia?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Hypotension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Elevated temperature

60.

Episodes of chest pain and SOB with activity relieved by rest is:

a)

Stable angina

b)

Unstable angina

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Pericarditis

61.

Risk factors for gastric cancer?

a)

Eating cured meats

b)

Celiac disease

62.

Which of the following is associated with increased risk of gastric cancer?

a)

Eating bacon/cured meats

b)

Ulcerative colitis

c)

H. pylori infection

d)

High-carb diet

63.

Immunologic activity in COPD development?

a)

T cells attack goblet cells

b)

B cells overproduce antibodies

c)

Macrophages destroy alveoli → decreased surface area

d)

Immune complexes in small airways

64.

Why restrict protein in liver/kidney disease?

a)

Protein is pro-inflammatory

b)

Protein gets excreted

c)

Organ dysfunction ↓ metabolic needs

d)

Protein breakdown → nitrogenous waste needing liver/kidney excretion

65.

Mechanism of end-organ disease in diabetes?

a)

Hyperglycemia → microvascular damage

b)

Episodic hypoglycemia

c)

Nitrogenous waste buildup

d)

Reduced viscosity → ↑ perfusion

66.

How to diagnose pancreatitis?

a)

Hard stools

b)

RLQ pain

c)

Elevated lipase + amylase

d)

Thrombocytopenia

67.

What is caused by elevated plasma glucose?

a)

Release of glucagon

b)

Release of insulin

c)

Release of glycogen

d)

Release of potassium

68.

Which lab values reflect normal levels?

a)

LDL 100 mg/dL

b)

K+ 3.5–5.0 mEq/L

c)

Hgb 12–17 g/dL

d)

HDL >40 mg/dL

e)

BUN 15 mg/dL

69.

What is true of open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Angle of Schlemm constricted

b)

Sudden and acutely painful

c)

Trabecular meshwork becomes blocked

d)

Reduced aqueous humor production

70.

Expected feature of ARDS?

a)

Extreme hypercapnia

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Green/yellow sputum

71.

Which leukemia may be suppressed but not cured?

a)

ALL

b)

CLL

72.

Which type of leukemia is most common in adults?

a)

ALL

b)

CML

c)

Hodgkin’s

d)

AML

73.

Why might BPH cause urinary symptoms?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Tumor metastasis

c)

Compression of urethra

d)

Calculi formation

74.

Expected finding in acute renal failure?

a)

Low specific gravity

b)

Reduced BUN

c)

High potassium

d)

Normal creatinine

75.

Mechanism of extreme edema after a burn?

a)

Heat → blood vessels constrict

b)

Tissue damage → inflammatory response

c)

Burns ↑ CO → ↑ kidney perfusion

d)

Burns → pain → immobility

76.

Tissue injury caused by prolonged pressure → ischemia?

a)

Eczema

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Decubitus ulcers

d)

Abrasions

77.

HIV patient has nonreactive TB skin test but positive sputum. Why?

a)

HIV interferes with skin reaction

b)

Anergic response due to immune damage

c)

↑ T cells suppress response

d)

Sputum inaccurate in HIV

78.

Travel to contaminated-water country — possible infections?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Acute amoebic dysentery

d)

Ulcerative colitis

e)

Gluten enteropathy

79.

Which are true? (Select all)

a)

Osteoporosis → ↑ bone resorption

b)

RA → immune complexes in joints

c)

Acute gout → repetitive stress

d)

Osteoarthritis always symmetric

80.

Which cells are associated with atherosclerosis?

a)

Foam cells

b)

Stem cells

c)

Reticulocytes

d)

Myocytes

81.

Who should receive emergency factor VII?

a)

Von Willebrand disease patient having surgery

b)

Gunshot wound

82.

Appropriate candidate for whole blood transfusion?

a)

Elderly woman with iron deficiency anemia

b)

Septic patient with DIC

c)

Trauma patient hemorrhaging

d)

Hemophilia A routine infusion

83.

Expected progression of ALS?

a)

Substantia nigra dysfunction → ↓ dopamine

b)

Acute meningitis inflammation

c)

Loss of cholinergic receptors

d)

Destruction of motor neurons → progressive weakness

84.

If an abdominal aortic aneurysm ruptures, what happens?

a)

Sudden loss of circulation to one leg

b)

Acute respiratory distress

c)

Hypotension and shock

d)

Proteinuria and edema

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